Practice Exam 2

Question 1

1. What is the underlying architecture of the Salesforce platform?
   a) Client-Server
   b) Peer-to-Peer
   c) Multi-tenant
   d) Single-tenant

Answer 1

Correct Answer: c) Multi-tenant

Question 2

2. Which of the following is a collection of fields for a specific object?
   a) Report
   b) Dashboard
   c) Record
   d) Layout

Answer 2

Correct Answer: c) Record

Question 3

3. What is the purpose of the Salesforce App Builder?
   a) To write code for custom applications.
   b) To create and customize applications using declarative tools.
   c) To manage user security settings.
   d) To build reports and dashboards.

Answer 3

Correct Answer: b) To create and customize applications using declarative tools

Question 4

4. Which standard object stores information about individual people associated with an Account?
   a) Lead
   b) Contact
   c) User
   d) Campaign Member

Answer 4

Correct Answer: b) Contact

Question 5

5. What is the term for a series of related marketing activities designed to achieve a specific goal?
   a) Lead
   b) Opportunity
   c) Campaign
   d) Case

Answer 5

Correct Answer: c) Campaign

Question 6

6. Which type of relationship allows a detail record to exist independently of a master record?
   a) Master-Detail
   b) Lookup
   c) Many-to-Many (using Junction Objects)
   d) Self-Relationship

Answer 6

Correct Answer: b) Lookup

Question 7

7. In a Lookup relationship, what happens to the lookup field value when the referenced record is deleted?
   a) It is automatically cleared.
   b) It prevents the deletion of the referenced record.
   c) It is automatically updated to a default value.
   d) It remains unchanged.
   cleared

Answer 7

Correct Answer: a) It is automatically cleared

Question 8

8. Which type of field displays data from a related record?
   a) Formula Field
   b) Roll-up Summary Field
   c) Lookup Field
   d) Text Area (Long) Field

Answer 8

Correct Answer: b) Roll-up Summary Field

Question 9

9. What allows you to create different views of the same object with different sets of fields and layouts for different user groups?
   a) Record Types
   b) Page Layouts
   c) Profiles
   d) Permission Sets

Answer 9

Correct Answer: b) Page Layouts

Question 10

10. Which Salesforce automation tool can be triggered when a record is created or updated and can perform actions like updating fields or sending emails without writing code?
    a) Apex Trigger
    b) Visualforce Page
    c) Workflow Rule
    d) SOQL Query

Answer 10

Correct Answer: c) Workflow Rule

Question 11

11. What is used to prevent users from saving records that do not meet specific criteria?
    a) Workflow Rules
    b) Validation Rules
    c) Assignment Rules
    d) Auto-Response Rules

Answer 11

Correct Answer: b) Validation Rules

Question 12

12. Which Salesforce tool provides a visual interface for building automation processes that can span multiple objects and involve more complex logic than Workflow Rules?
    a) Report Builder
    b) Process Builder
    c) Schema Builder
    d) App Builder

Answer 12

Correct Answer: b) Process Builder

Question 13

13. What is a dynamic collection of records that meet specific criteria?
    a) Report
    b) Dashboard Component
    c) List View
    d) Formula Field

Answer 13

Correct Answer: c) List View

Question 14

14. Which type of report is best for showing changes in data over time?
    a) Tabular Report
    b) Summary Report
    c) Matrix Report
    d) Joined Report

Answer 14

Correct Answer: c) Matrix Report

Question 15

15. What defines the basic set of permissions and access to objects and data for a group of users?
    a) Permission Set
    b) Role
    c) Profile
    d) Public Group

Answer 15

Correct Answer: c) Profile

Question 16

16. Permission Sets can be assigned to:
    a) Only one user at a time.
    b) Multiple users.
    c) Only profiles.
    d) Only roles.

Answer 16

Correct Answer: b) Multiple users

Question 17

17. Which Salesforce security feature controls the visibility of records that a user owns?
    a) Profile Permissions
    b) Sharing Rules
    c) Role Hierarchy
    d) Organization-Wide Defaults

Answer 17

Correct Answer: d) Organization-Wide Defaults

Question 18

18. If the Organization-Wide Default for an object is set to “Private,” how can other users gain access to records they don’t own?
    a) Through their profile settings.
    b) Through their assigned permission sets only.
    c) Through the Role Hierarchy, Sharing Rules, or manual sharing.
    d) They cannot gain access.

Answer 18

Correct Answer: c) Through the Role Hierarchy, Sharing Rules, or manual sharing

Question 19

19. What type of applications can be found on the AppExchange?
    a) Only free applications developed by Salesforce.
    b) Both free and paid applications developed by Salesforce and third-party partners.
    c) Only paid applications developed by third-party partners.
    d) Only components that enhance standard Salesforce functionality.

Answer 19

Correct Answer: b) Both free and paid applications developed by Salesforce

Question 20

20. Which of the following is a programmatic development tool in Salesforce?
    a) Workflow Rules
    b) Process Builder
    c) Apex
    d) Lightning App Builder

Answer 20

Correct Answer: c) Apex

Question 21

21. Which tool provides a visual representation of all the objects, fields, and relationships in your Salesforce org?
    a) Report Builder
    b) Process Builder
    c) Schema Builder
    d) App Builder

Answer 21

Correct Answer: c) Schema Builder

Question 22

22. What is a collection of Lightning components that can be used to build custom pages and applications?
    a) Apex Classes
    b) Visualforce Pages
    c) Lightning Web Components
    d) SOQL Queries

Answer 22

Correct Answer: c) Lightning Web Components

Question 23

23. What is the benefit of using the Salesforce mobile app?
    a) It allows for offline data access and modification.
    b) It provides the full functionality of the desktop version on a mobile device.
    c) It automatically backs up all Salesforce data to the user’s device.
    d) It requires a separate license from the desktop version.

Answer 23

Correct Answer: b) It provides the full functionality of the desktop version on a mobile device

Question 24

24. Which of the following is a characteristic of Salesforce Classic?
    a) Modern and intuitive user interface.
    b) Enhanced productivity features.
    c) Older user interface with less dynamic features.
    d) Primarily focused on mobile accessibility.

Answer 24

Correct Answer: c) Older user interface with less dynamic features

Question 25

25. What can Global Search find in Salesforce? a) Only records the user owns. b) Records across most standard and custom objects based on user permissions. c) Only setup menu items. d) Only Salesforce Help documentation.

Answer 25

Correct Answer: b) Records across most standard and custom objects based on user permissions

Question 26

26. What allows users to collaborate on records and share updates and files? a) Chatter b) Topics c) Public Groups d) Queues

Answer 26

Correct Answer: a) Chatter

Question 27

27. What is the purpose of Service Cloud in Salesforce? a) To manage sales processes. b) To provide tools and features for customer service and support. c) To automate marketing campaigns. d) To handle e-commerce transactions.

Answer 27

Correct Answer: b) To provide tools and features for customer service and support

Question 28

28. What is a Channel in Salesforce Service Cloud? a) A type of user license. b) A method through which customers can interact with support (e.g., email, phone, chat). c) A way to categorize support cases. d) A visual representation of case resolution times.

Answer 28

Correct Answer: b) A method through which customers can interact with support (e.g., email, phone, chat)

Question 29

29. Which Salesforce Cloud focuses on building and managing customer relationships across various touchpoints? a) Sales Cloud b) Service Cloud c) Marketing Cloud d) Commerce Cloud

Answer 29

Correct Answer: c) Marketing Cloud

Question 30

31. What is the recommended use case for a Developer Sandbox? a) Performance testing of a large data volume. b) Staging environment for UAT (User Acceptance Testing). c) Developing and testing new features and customizations in isolation. d) Training new users on the production environment.

Answer 30

Correct Answer: c) Developing and testing new features and customizations in isolation

Question 31

32. Which type of Sandbox is intended for testing with a subset of your production data? a) Developer Sandbox b) Developer Pro Sandbox c) Partial Copy Sandbox d) Full Sandbox

Answer 31

Correct Answer: c) Partial Copy Sandbox

Question 32

33. What is a trigger in Salesforce? a) A workflow rule that executes Apex code. b) Apex code that executes before or after specific data manipulation language (DML) events. c) A visual component on a Lightning page. d) A scheduled job that runs Apex code.

Answer 32

Correct Answer: b) Apex code that executes before or after specific data manipulation language (DML) events

Question 33

34. What does SOSL stand for in Salesforce? a) Salesforce Object Query Language b) Salesforce Object Search Language c) Salesforce Organization Query Language d) Salesforce Standard Object Language

Answer 33

Correct Answer: b) Salesforce Object Search Language

Question 34

35. What is the first step in a successful Salesforce implementation? a) Data migration from the legacy system. b) Configuring user profiles and permissions. c) Gathering and analyzing business requirements. d) Installing applications from the AppExchange.

Answer 34

Correct Answer: c) Gathering and analyzing business requirements

Question 35

36. Which task is typically performed by a Salesforce Administrator? a) Writing complex Apex code for custom business logic. b) Designing and implementing custom Lightning Web Components. c) Creating and managing users, roles, and security settings. d) Developing integrations with external systems using APIs.

Answer 35

Correct Answer: c) Creating and managing users, roles, and security settings

Question 36

37. What is a Sprint in the Agile methodology used for Salesforce projects? a) A long-term strategic planning phase. b) A short, time-boxed period in which a specific set of work is completed. c) A phase focused on user training and documentation. d) The final deployment of the Salesforce solution.

Answer 36

Correct Answer: b) A short, time-boxed period in which a specific set of work is completed

Question 37

38. Which of the following is a benefit of using the Salesforce Lightning Design System (SLDS)? a) It requires extensive custom CSS coding. b) It ensures a user interface that is not accessible. c) It provides a consistent look and feel across different Salesforce applications. d) It limits the ability to customize the user interface.

Answer 37

Correct Answer: c) It provides a consistent look and feel across different Salesforce applications

Question 38

39. What is an External Object in Salesforce Connect? a) A standard Salesforce object that has been modified. b) A custom object designed to store external data. c) A custom object whose data resides outside the Salesforce org. d) A report that pulls data from an external system.

Answer 38

Correct Answer: c) A custom object whose data resides outside the Salesforce org

Question 39

40. Which of the following is a key advantage of using a cloud-based platform like Salesforce? a) Requires significant upfront investment in hardware and infrastructure. b) Offers limited scalability based on pre-defined capacity. c) Provides automatic upgrades and maintenance managed by the vendor. d) Requires extensive on-premises IT support for ongoing operations.

Answer 39

Correct Answer: c) Provides automatic upgrades and maintenance managed by the vendor and third-party partners