Practice Exam 3 Flashcards
1
Q
- What is the term for a pre-built business application available on the Salesforce AppExchange?
a) Component
b) Package
c) Widget
d) Module
A
Correct Answer: b) Package
2
Q
- Which of the following is a fundamental building block of the Salesforce data model, used to store information?
a) Field
b) Layout
c) Object
d) Report
A
Correct Answer: c) Object
3
Q
- What is the primary function of Salesforce Sales Cloud?
a) Managing customer service interactions and support cases.
b) Automating marketing campaigns and analyzing their effectiveness.
c) Supporting e-commerce operations and online storefronts.
d) Managing sales processes, leads, opportunities, and customer accounts.
A
Correct Answer: d) Managing sales processes, leads, opportunities, and customer accounts
4
Q
- Which standard object represents a company, customer, or prospect with whom your organization has a relationship?
a) Contact
b) Lead
c) Account
d) Opportunity
A
Correct Answer: c) Account
5
Q
- What is the purpose of a Junction Object in Salesforce?
a) To enforce a Master-Detail relationship.
b) To create a many-to-many relationship between two objects.
c) To define a one-to-many relationship.
d) To look up data from an external system.
A
Correct Answer: b) To create a many-to-many relationship between two objects
6
Q
- Which type of field allows users to select one or more options from a predefined list?
a) Text Field
b) Number Field
c) Picklist Field (Multi-Select)
d) Checkbox Field
A
Correct Answer: c) Picklist Field (Multi-Select)
7
Q
- What is the purpose of a Roll-up Summary Field?
a) To display data from a related record.
b) To automatically calculate a value from related detail records in a Master-Detail relationship.
c) To allow users to enter large amounts of text.
d) To create a link to another record or website.
A
Correct Answer: b) To automatically calculate a value from related detail records in a Master-Detail relationship
8
Q
- What controls which fields are displayed when users view or edit a record?
a) Profiles
b) Permission Sets
c) Page Layouts
d) Record Types
A
Correct Answer: c) Page Layouts
9
Q
- What allows you to tailor the picklist values available for a field based on the selected Record Type?
a) Field-Level Security
b) Validation Rules
c) Workflow Rules
d) Record Types
A
Correct Answer: d) Record Types
10
Q
- Which Salesforce automation tool can send automated email responses based on specific record criteria?
a) Workflow Rules
b) Process Builder
c) Auto-Response Rules
d) Assignment Rules
A
Correct Answer: c) Auto-Response Rules
11
Q
- What is the purpose of Assignment Rules in Salesforce?
a) To automatically assign records to specific users or queues based on defined criteria.
b) To validate data entered by users.
c) To automate tasks based on record changes.
d) To send automated email notifications.
A
Correct Answer: a) To automatically assign records to specific users or queues based on defined criteria
12
Q
- Which Salesforce tool allows you to automate approval processes for records?
a) Workflow Rules
b) Process Builder
c) Approval Processes
d) Validation Rules
A
Correct Answer: c) Approval Processes
13
Q
- What is a collection of reports and visual elements arranged together to provide a snapshot of key metrics?
a) List View
b) Report Folder
c) Dashboard
d) Analytic Snapshot
A
Correct Answer: c) Dashboard
14
Q
- Which type of report allows you to group and summarize data by both rows and columns?
a) Tabular Report
b) Summary Report
c) Matrix Report
d) Joined Report
A
Correct Answer: c) Matrix Report
15
Q
- What controls a user’s ability to perform specific actions within Salesforce, such as creating or editing records?
a) Roles
b) Profiles
c) Public Groups
d) Permission Sets
A
Correct Answer: b) Profiles
16
Q
- Which security feature restricts access to specific fields, even if a user has access to the object?
a) Object-Level Security
b) Record-Level Security
c) Field-Level Security
d) Organization-Wide Defaults
A
Correct Answer: c) Field-Level Security
17
Q
- What is the purpose of the Role Hierarchy in Salesforce security?
a) To define the user interface layout.
b) To control record access based on a user’s position within the organization.
c) To assign specific permissions to users.
d) To manage user passwords and login settings.
A
Correct Answer: b) To control record access based on a user’s position within the organization
18
Q
- What does “Public Read/Write” Organization-Wide Default setting mean for an object?
a) All users can view and edit all records of that object.
b) Users can only view records they own or that are shared with them.
c) Users can view all records but can only edit records they own.
d) Access is controlled solely by the Role Hierarchy.
A
Correct Answer: a) All users can view and edit all records of that object
19
Q
- What is the process of installing a pre-built application from the AppExchange called?
a) Configuration
b) Customization
c) Installation
d) Deployment
A
Correct Answer: c) Installation
20
Q
- Which of the following is used to write custom business logic that executes on the Salesforce platform?
a) SOQL
b) SOSL
c) Apex
d) Visualforce
A
Correct Answer: c) Apex
21
Q
- Which tool can be used to create custom objects, fields, and relationships through a graphical interface?
a) Report Builder
b) Process Builder
c) Schema Builder
d) Lightning App Builder
A
Correct Answer: c) Schema Builder
22
Q
- What is a set of reusable building blocks for creating Lightning pages and applications?
a) Apex Triggers
b) Visualforce Components
c) Lightning Components
d) Workflow Actions
A
Correct Answer: c) Lightning Components
23
Q
- What is a key feature of the Salesforce Lightning Experience user interface?
a) It is identical to the Salesforce Classic interface.
b) It is primarily designed for backend data management.
c) It offers a modern, intuitive, and responsive design.
d) It has limited customization capabilities.
A
Correct Answer: c) It offers a modern, intuitive, and responsive design
24
Q
- How can users quickly navigate to specific records or settings within Salesforce?
a) Using the Report Builder.
b) Using Global Search.
c) Using the Schema Builder.
d) Using Workflow Rules.
A
Correct Answer: b) Using Global Search
25
25. What is the purpose of Topics in Salesforce Chatter?
a) To create private groups for collaboration.
b) To categorize and organize conversations around specific subjects.
c) To send direct messages to other users.
d) To track changes made to records.
Correct Answer: b) To categorize and organize conversations around specific subjects
26
26. What is the primary goal of Salesforce Service Cloud?
a) To drive sales and manage opportunities.
b) To enhance customer satisfaction and loyalty through effective service.
c) To automate marketing campaigns and lead generation.
d) To facilitate online transactions and order processing.
Correct Answer: b) To enhance customer satisfaction and loyalty through effective service
27
27. What is a Queue in Salesforce Service Cloud?
a) A predefined set of email templates for customer communication.
b) A holding area for records that need to be processed by a group of users.
c) A visual representation of service performance metrics.
d) A channel for real-time customer interaction.
Correct Answer: b) A holding area for records that need to be processed by a group of users
28
28. Which Salesforce Cloud focuses on creating personalized and multi-channel customer journeys?
a) Sales Cloud
b) Service Cloud
c) Marketing Cloud
d) Commerce Cloud
Correct Answer: c) Marketing Cloud
29
29. What is a key capability of Salesforce Commerce Cloud?
a) Managing customer support tickets.
b) Automating lead scoring and assignment.
c) Enabling online product catalogs, shopping carts, and order management.
d) Analyzing social media engagement.
Correct Answer: c) Enabling online product catalogs, shopping carts, and order management
30
30. What is the purpose of a Developer Pro Sandbox?
a) To provide a full copy of the production environment for testing.
b) To offer a development environment with a larger data and file storage limit than a Developer Sandbox.
c) To be used as a staging environment for user acceptance testing.
d) To allow developers to collaborate on the same set of code.
Correct Answer: b) To offer a development environment with a larger data and file storage limit than a Developer Sandbox
31
31. Which type of Sandbox is best suited for user acceptance testing (UAT)?
a) Developer Sandbox
b) Developer Pro Sandbox
c) Partial Copy Sandbox
d) Full Sandbox
Correct Answer: d) Full Sandbox
32
32. What is a key difference between SOQL and SOSL?
a) SOQL is used for searching text, while SOSL is used for querying records based on relationships.
b) SOQL is used for querying records, while SOSL is used for text-based searches across multiple objects.
c) SOQL is used for data manipulation, while SOSL is used for data retrieval.
d) SOQL can only query standard objects, while SOSL can query custom objects.
Correct Answer: b) SOQL is used for querying records, while SOSL is used for text-based searches across multiple objects
33
33. What is the role of a Salesforce Architect?
a) To provide end-user support and training.
b) To design and oversee the implementation of complex Salesforce solutions.
c) To manage daily administrative tasks within the Salesforce org.
d) To develop custom applications using Apex and Visualforce.
Correct Answer: b) To design and oversee the implementation of complex Salesforce solution
34
34. What is the purpose of Data Import Wizard in Salesforce?
a) To create reports from external data sources.
b) To perform complex data transformations.
c) To import data for standard and custom objects.
d) To schedule automated data backups.
Correct Answer: c) To import data for standard and custom objects
35
35. What is a key consideration during the planning phase of a Salesforce project?
a) Determining the color scheme of the user interface.
b) Defining clear project goals and objectives.
c) Selecting the appropriate hardware for the Salesforce platform.
d) Writing detailed code specifications.
Correct Answer: b) Defining clear project goals and objectives
36
36. What is the purpose of User Acceptance Testing (UAT) in a Salesforce project?
a) To ensure the technical correctness of the code.
b) To gather feedback from end-users and validate that the solution meets their needs.
c) To optimize the performance of the Salesforce platform.
d) To migrate data from a legacy system to Salesforce.
Correct Answer: b) To gather feedback from end-users and validate that the solution meets their needs
37
37. What is a Backlog in the Agile methodology for Salesforce projects?
a) A list of completed tasks.
b) A prioritized list of features, user stories, and other work to be done.
c) A document outlining the project budget.
d) A schedule of upcoming sprints.
Correct Answer: b) A prioritized list of features, user stories, and other work to be done
38
38. Which of the following is a benefit of using Lightning Web Components (LWCs)?
a) They are based on proprietary Salesforce technology.
b) They offer limited performance compared to older frameworks.
c) They leverage standard web components for better performance and interoperability.
d) They require extensive knowledge of Visualforce.
Correct Answer: c) They leverage standard web components for better performance and interoperability
39
39. What is an Integration in the context of Salesforce?
a) The process of customizing the user interface.
b) The connection of Salesforce with other external systems or applications.
c) The management of user roles and permissions.
d) The creation of reports and dashboards.
Correct Answer: b) The connection of Salesforce with other external systems or applications
40
40. Which of the following is a key benefit of the Salesforce platform's scalability?
a) It requires manual upgrades to handle increased data volume.
b) It can easily adapt to the growing needs of a business without significant infrastructure changes.
c) It has fixed storage and user limits.
d) It becomes less reliable as the amount of data increases.
Correct Answer: b) It can easily adapt to the growing needs of a business without significant infrastructure changes
