Practice Exam Flashcards
1
Q
Which of the following exercises provides an example of a muscle’s ability to use stored energy?
A
Vertical jump
2
Q
When using skin fold calipers to assess body composition, what is the increased risk of error with being as much as an inch from the appropriate site?
A
25%
3
Q
Which coordinated muscle action does balance-stabilization training improve?
A
Co-contraction
4
Q
A team focused on winning and being better than others operates in which kind of environment?
A
Outcome-oriented
5
Q
Many of the issues surrounding an athlete’s functional qualification for the use of Olympic lifts can be determined by performing which assessment?
A
Overhead squat assessment
6
Q
Which of the following is considered a balance modality?
A
Sport beam
7
Q
What is the current upper intake limit for sodium for the average person as established by the Institute of Medicine?
A
2,300 mg/day
8
Q
When should light to moderate sport-specific metabolic training primarily occur?
A
In-season
9
Q
What assessment is appropriate to determine the lateral speed and agility of an athlete?
A
Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
10
Q
Which of the following is an input that the Human Movement System uses to establish balance?
A
Visual
11
Q
Which of the following is true regarding casein?
A
80% of the proteins in milk
12
Q
Which of the following describes the motivational climate that has been proven to produce more adaptive motivational patterns, including positive attitudes and effective learning strategies?
A
Mastery-oriented
13
Q
Winning the Stanley Cup is an example of which of the following?
A
Extrinsic motivation
14
Q
A team focused on winning and being better than others operates in which kind of environment?
A
Outcome-oriented
15
Q
What impact will taking an antidepressant have on an athlete’s heart rate(HR)?
A
HR goes up
16
Q
According to the text, which type of mental imagery is MOST effective for improving sports performance?
A
Kinesthetic
17
Q
Which of the following is a common postural compensation when performing a clean and jerk with the bar overhead?
A
Excessive lumbar extension
18
Q
Which of the following is the recommended calcium intake for an amenorrheic athlete?
A
1,500 mg/day
19
Q
Which of the following is a serious risk associated with blood doping?
A
Bacterial infections
20
Q
If a beginner athlete sprints 15 yards during week 1 of Phase 1 SAQ training, how many yards should he be running by week 4?
A
20
21
Q
What is the outermost layer of connective tissue that surrounds muscle?
A
Epimysium
22
Q
Which programming is optimal for SAQ training in order to decrease fatigue and maximize effectiveness?
A
Completed on days in between strength training
23
Q
The transverse abdominis is best activated by performing which of the following exercises?
A
Prone iso-abs
24
Q
Symptoms such as stress fracture, muscle strain, joint and muscle pain, and emotional fatigue are largely due to which of the following?
A
Exhaustion
25
What muscles are probably overactive when an athlete's low back arches during an overhead squat assessment?
Hip flexor complex, erector spinae, latissimus dorsi
26
What type of training incorporates skills and movements that mimic what happens in competition?
Sport-specific
27
When performing an exercise in the transverse plane, which of the following motions is occuring?
Internal/external rotation
28
Which types of training are known to improve speed, agility, and quickness by allowing greater force in less time?
Strength and power
29
Which grade is recommended in downhill running for assisted speed drills?
5-6%
30
What is the recommended protein intake for strength and power athletes?
1.6-1.8 g/kg/day
31
During the snatch, which of the following refers to the barbell being elevated from the knees to the area between mid-thigh and the pubic bone?
Shift
32
Which of the following must be taken over a period of weeks in conjunction with training to demonstrate an ergogenic effect?
Creatine
33
What is the term for the systematic approach to program design using the General Adaptation Syndrome and the principle of specificity to produce adaptations?
Periodization
34
Which answer is an example of how the continuum of function should be progressed?
Simple to complex
35
What principle states that when a muscle is stimulated to contract, it contracts completely?
All-or-none
36
Which of the following is a key role of protein?
Supporting growth and maintenance of body tissues
37
The quadratus lumborum, psoas major, external obliques, portions of the internal obliques, rectus abdominus, gluteus medius, and adductor complex are classified as which of the following?
Global core stabilizers
38
If the squat jump exercise is performed with a 3-5 second hold upon landing, in which level of the OPT model does it belong?
Stabilization
39
Which sport would benefit from the inclusion of assisted drills in an SAQ program?
Football
40
Which of the following is a key role of protein?
Supporting growth and maintenance of body tissues
41
What type of tissue develops in the body following an injury?
Scar
42
A tempo of 4/2/1 is appropriate when training in which phase of the OPT model?
Stabilization Endurance
43
Sports-specific, integrated, progressive, and systematic are characteristics of which type of program?
Functional
44
Single-leg front-to-back hops might be done by an athlete in which phase of OPT?
5
45
Which of the following is correct when preparing for a back squat?
Lifter faces the rack, takes a comfortable grip, and steps forward under the bar
46
Which type of training overloads the stretch-shortening cycle to enhance neuromuscular efficiency, improve rate of force production, and reduce neuromuscular inhibition?
Plyometric
47
Which type of training is designed to enhance power and power-endurance while allowing the metabolic systems ample time to recover between each repetition?
Repeated sprint
48
What do you risk creating if an athlete is put into a level of balance training for which they are unprepared?
Synergistic dominance
49
Which of the following is an example of a core-strength exercise?
Back extension
50
Which of the following techniques is critical for maintaining stability in the sacroiliac joint?
Drawing-in maneuver
51
Which stage of cardio training should mark the gradual inclusion of repeated sprint training?
Stage 3
52
Which Olympic lift moves the load from the ground to overhead in one single effort?
Snatch
53
When performing an exercise in the transverse plane, around which of the following axes does the movement occur?
Longitudinal
54
Which of the following ranges represents cardiac output during maximal exercise?
20-25 L/min
55
Which nutrient becomes the dominant fuel source when athletes train and compete at 65% or greater of their VO2max?
Carbohydrate
56
What is the most common sports-related injury, and the number one injury for time lost?
Ankle sprains
57
In which phase of a plyometric exercise must a muscle switch from overcoming force to producing it?
Amortization
58
What is the primary fuel for anaerobic ATP production for activities lasting 45-120 seconds?
Muscle glycogen
59
Which of the following is a major benefit of the bent-knee achilles tendon stretch?
The gastrocnemius and the soleus are both stretched
60
What type of stretching helps improve soft tissue extensibility by taking the muscle to the point of tension and holding for 30 seconds?
Static
61
Which muscle functions as a stabilizer while an athlete performs a bench press?
Rotator cuff
62
Which of the following is the principle that states that faster motor units with larger axons are recruited second when more force and power are needed?
Henneman's size principle
63
Which specialized strength exercise for speed improves hip flexion?
Resisted knee drive
64
What is the duration that the average athlete will spend training in Phase 2: Strength Endurance?
4 weeks
65
Which phase of the OPT model supersets a traditional strength exercise (e.g. barbell squats) with a plyometric/power exercise of similar joint mechanics (e.g. squat jumps) to enhance prime mover strength and rate of force production?
Phase 5: Power
66
A coach focused on initiating structure and accomplishing a set of objectives and goals is using which type of leadership style?
Task-oriented
67
Supplementation of which nutrient has been shown to reduce the incidence of post-marathon upper respiratory infection in runners?
Beta-glucans
68
Which of the following is 70% of an athlete's age subtracted from in the HRmax regression formula?
208
69
During functional movements, which of the following is responsible for providing stabilization and eccentric control of the core?
Global stabilization system
70
When training in Phase 4: Maximal Strength, how many times per week should an athlete participate in resistance training?
2 to 4
71
According to NCAA Division 1 bylaws, which ergogenic aids can be provided to athletes by a university?
Carbohydrate/electrolyte drinks
72
Which muscular system is predominantly involved in joint support and stabilization, and is not movement specific?
Local
73
Which of the following refers to the training used to provide optimal dynamic joint support and maintain correct posture during all movements?
Stabilization
74
Which of the following happens to improve soft-tissue extensibility during self-myofascial release?
Autogenic inhibition
75
Which of the following injuries often goes unrecognized and unreported?
Concussion
76
What is probably underactive for an athlete demonstrating low back arching during the pulling assessment?
Intrinsic core stabilizers
77
Which of the following best describes muscular endurance?
Muscular endurance is the ability to produce and maintain force production over prolonged periods of time.
78
The focus of a core training program must be on which of the following?
Function
79
Which is the most commonly injured ligament in the ankle?
Anterior talofibular
80
Why do females have a greater risk of ACL injury compared to males?
Females have higher relative loads on the ACL than males.
81
How likely is an athlete with a hamstring strain at risk to experience re-injury?
6-8 times
82
The integrated performance paradigm states that in order to move with precision, forces must be loaded, stabilized, and unloaded in which order?
Loaded eccentrically, stabilized isometrically, unloaded concentrically
83
Which is the foundation from which a progressive sports performance training program is built?
Core training
84
When bracing is performed, which of the following has been activated?
Global stabilization system
85
Which exercise can help decrease perturbation and help achieve neuromuscular control?
Squat on a wobble board
86
Which of the following exercises is MOST appropriate for an athlete training in the Strength Level (Phases 2,3,4) of the OPT model?
Bench press
87
Which predictable pattern best describes the adaptation to stress the body follows to maintain a state of physiological balance (or homeostasis)?
General Adaptation Syndrome
88
Which type of feedback is used after the completion of an exercise to help inform the athlete about the outcome of what was just performed?
Knowledge of results
89
What is the proper progression for plyometric-strength exercises?
Repeat squat jumps, lunge jumps, power step-ups
90
Which of the following is a typical resting heart rate?
70 beats per minute
91
Which of the following best describes an athlete training in a vertically loaded workout?
Performing one set for each muscle group, moving from upper to lower body, then repeating
92
Which of the following best describes muscular endurance?
Muscular endurance is the ability to produce and maintain force production over prolonged periods of time.
93
Which integrated training variable utilizes tubing, cable machines, or dumbbells?
External resistance
94
Which antioxidants play a role in balancing the oxidative stress produced by free radicals during exercise?
C, E, beta carotene, selenium
95
What refers to the rate at which any individual nerve fiber transmits impulses per unit of time?
Rate coding
96
If a coach removes cones from a W or box drill and replaces them with an auditory cue, which training is utilized?
Quickness
97
Training the muscle and tendon’s ability to load eccentrically and rapidly release energy concentrically is known as which of the following?
Stretch-shortening cycle
98
Plyometric-strength exercises are designed to do which of the following?
Improve dynamic joint stabilization
99
Which of the following techniques should a coach teach an athlete who struggles with physiological anxiety in pressure situations?
Breath control
100
Which of the following exercises is performed in the frontal plane?
Ice skaters
101
For NON-vegetarian strength athletes, how many g/kg body weight are recommended for protein intake?
1.6 to 1.7
102
What exercises involve little joint motion of the balance leg to improve reflexive joint stabilization contractions and joint stability?
Balance-stabilization
103
Which of the following is a contributor to subacromial impingement syndrome (SAIS)?
Bony deformity of the acromion
104
A point guard who assesses the other team's defense, calls a new play based on what he sees, and then imagines and executes his drive to the basket with a successful layup displays which of the following?
Shifting attentional focus
105
When an athlete is thinking about who is in the stands during the competition, this is an example of which of the following?
Irrelevant cue
106
What is the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when synergists take over the function of a weak or inhibited prime mover?
Synergistic dominance
107
What is the first question athletes should ask when trying to determine whether or not they should use supplements recommended by teammates?
"Is it safe and ethical?"
108
What is the maximum amount of rest to put in between sets for an athlete performing a single-leg balance reach?
90 sec
109
Which of the following involve more dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the spine through a full range of motion?
Core-strength exercises
110
What is the ability of the neuromuscular system to perform dynamic eccentric, isometric, and concentric muscle actions in all three planes of motion?
Functional strength
111
Question text
The heart pumps blood into the aorta from which of the following structures?
Left ventricle
112
Central nervous system fatigue can be minimized by performing drills with the highest magnitude of neuromuscular demand at which time during the workout?
Beginning of the workout
113
Which progression is recommended for drills focusing on agility/MDS?
Static, dynamic, reactive
114
What can happen when blood has a high hematocrit?
Blood flow resistance
115
Which of the following is a stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome?
Resistance development
116
Resistance training protocols with higher repetitions result in which of the following adaptations?
Muscular endurance
117
Passive warming, using modalities such as heated pants or warming jackets, are most beneficial for which of the following situations?
Between multiple races, such as at track or swim meets
118
How many times per week should plyometric training be used with a Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance athlete?
2-4
119
Which of the following is the most important reason why high glycemic foods are recommended during the post exercise period?
To enhance muscle recovery and glycogen repletion
120
The muscle groups of the lateral subsystem function in which plane of motion?
Frontal
121
Athletes who participate in sports with rigid boots, such as skiing and ice hockey, are at higher risk for what type of ankle sprain?
Syndesmotic ankle sprain
122
What is the eccentric action of the gluteus medius, posterior fibers?
Decelerates hip adduction and internal rotation
123
Which of the following is an independent quality that contributes to an athlete's power capacity?
Maximum strength
124
When conducting a strength assessment, how long should an athlete rest between sets?
2 minutes
125
When an official makes a bad call in favor of the other team, an athlete may use which of the following strategies to overcome the situation?
Rational thinking
126
What occurs when an activated muscle transitions from an eccentric contraction to a rapid concentric contraction?
Stretch-shortening cycle
127
What law describes how soft tissue models along the lines of stress?
Davis's law
128
Which of the following juices has been shown to exhibit potent anti-inflammatory and antioxidant effects?
Cherry
129
When an official makes a bad call in favor of the other team, an athlete may use which of the following strategies to overcome the situation?
Rational thinking
130
What are three primary causes of muscular imbalance?
Pattern overload, aging, postural stress
131
What is an effect of a lack of neuromuscular stabilization?
Altered force-couple relationships
132
Which of the following is a risk factor for plantar fasciitis?
Sudden increases in walking or running mileage
133
What is the average resting heart rate for a male athlete?
70 beats per minute
134
A coach who creates an outcome-oriented motivational climate implements rewards based on which of the following criteria?
Social comparisons
135
Which stride length is optimal for maximal linear speed?
2.3-2.5 times athlete's leg length
136
Which implement is a form of external resistance?
Medicine ball
137
What muscle(s) are likely to demonstrate decreased neural control following an ankle sprain?
Gluteus medius, gluteus maximus
138
Which exercise is an example of a stabilization exercise?
Chest press on a stability ball
139
Plyometric-stabilization exercises are designed to do which of the following?
Establish optimum landing mechanics, postural alignment, and reactive neuromuscular efficiency
140
Which of the following selections describes a progression in an athlete's plyometric training?
Single-leg
141
Which kind of muscle contraction does balance-stabilization training primarily focus on?
Isometric
142
Which assessment is an appropriate progression from the single-leg squat assessment for measuring lower-extremity agility and neuromuscular control?
Shark skill test
143
Resistance training protocols with higher repetitions result in which of the following adaptations?
Muscular endurance
144
Which exercise can be performed with ultra-slow descents to help improve stability of the supportive musculature?
Snatch deadlift
145
Which of the following statements describes the best strategy to achieve a positive protein balance?
Consume a mixture of carbohydrates and amino acids before and immediately after strength workouts
146
Which is the most difficult exercise in the single-leg balance reach progression?
Transverse plane balance reach
147
What percentage of athletes experience low back pain in a given year?
6-15%
148
Athletes who train very hard year round run the risk of compromising their immune system, thereby exposing them to the flu or common cold. Which of the following is most likely going to help them recover and keep these systems strong?
Glutamine
149
Movement patterns that occur during plyometric exercise involve which of the following?
A series of stretch-shortening cycles
150
Which amino acid specifically helps drive muscle growth?
Leucine
151
What is the smallest percentage of deformation of collagen tissue that can lead to micro-failure?
6%
152
What is the eccentric action of the gluteus medius, posterior fibers?
Decelerates hip adduction and internal rotation
153
Which of the following is a potential adverse effect of androgenic-anabolic steroid use in men?
Impaired glucose tolerance
154
What three components make up the integrated flexibility continuum?
Corrective, active, functional flexibility
155
An athlete with knee valgus during the overhead squat is at risk of what injury?
Patellar tendinopathy
156
For a 30-year-old athlete using the regression method, which of the following is the low-end of heart rate training zone 2?
150
157
Which of the following are Olympic competition lifts?
Clean and jerk and the snatch
158
Which of the following has research shown to be an effect of excessive intake of vitamin A?
Reduced bone mineral density
159
If an athlete squats prior to performing a sagittal jump, which concept is employed?
Ballistic movement
160
What is the loss of muscle fiber size called?
Atrophy
161
The reverse crunch is categorized as what type of exercise?
Core-strength
162
Which amino acid specifically helps drive muscle growth?
Leucine
163
Which exercise is considered a chest-stabilization exercise?
Push-up: feet on ball
164
Which of the following is a risk factor for plantar fasciitis?
Sudden increases in walking or running mileage
165
Which plane of motion bisects the body into upper and lower halves?
Transverse
166
What is a primary adaptation of plyometric training?
Increased motor unit recruitment
167
Which of the following is the ultimate goal of plyometric training?
To improve the reaction time of the muscle action spectrum
168
In addition to its psychological benefits, which of the following strategies actually stimulates muscle contractions?
Imagery
169
When administering the squat assessment, what is the appropriate increase in external resistance?
10-20% of initial load
170
What is the typical body fat range for female tennis players?
21-25%
171
Which movement of the snatch exercise occurs when the lifter drops rapidly into a squat position, moving the feet quickly sideways and extending the arms overhead to catch the bar and stop its descent?
Amortization and catch
172
Which implement is a form of external resistance?
Medicine ball
173
Which tempo best corresponds to increases in maximal power?
As fast as can be controlled
174
Which of the following best defines the process which brings oxygen from the air, across the alveolar membrane, and into the blood to be carried by hemoglobin?
Pulmonary ventilation
175
What is the ability of the Human Movement System to have optimal ROM in order to prevent injury and enhance functional efficiency?
Flexibility
176
What is the amount of time an athlete traditionally spends performing core-stabilization exercises?
4 weeks
177
What percentage of athletes experience low back pain in a given year?
6-15%
178
Which of the following represents a necessary joint range of motion prerequisite for Olympic lifts?
Ankle dorsiflexion of 20 degrees
179
To develop higher levels of stability, the best way an athlete can train is with which specific forms of exercise?
Slow tempo in an unstable, but controlled, environment
180
Which of the following has research shown to be an effect of excessive intake of vitamin A?
Reduced bone mineral density
181
What type of exercises are important for the protection of joints in an athlete's training program?
Exercises that train neuromuscular coordination
182
Which athletes have the greatest risk for low vitamin D status?
Darker skinned athletes with limited sun exposure
183
An electromechanical delay in which the muscle must switch from overcoming force to imparting force in the intended direction is known as which of the following?
Amortization phase
184
Which formula is used as a simple method to estimate an athlete's maximum heart rate?
220 minus age
185
In which level of the OPT model is core training optional but recommended?
Strength
186
Which phase of the OPT model utilizes balance-stabilization exercises?
1
187
Where should a one-person spotter stand during a back squat?
Directly behind the lifter, hands on the lifter's hips
188
Which sport-specific drill is recommended for basketball, hockey, and volleyball?
Push-up sprint
189
Which drill progression is recommended for push-up sprints?
Have two athletes race
190
Which resistance exercise is appropriate for the Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance level of training?
Standing cable chest press
191
Which drill progression is recommended for push-up sprints?
Have two athletes race
192
What is the preferred location for assessing resting heart rate?
Radial pulse
193
What is the term used for the technique that recruits local core stabilizers by pulling the navel in toward the spine?
Drawing-in maneuver
194
How many repetitions of plyometric exercises will an athlete training in Phase 3: Hypertrophy perform in each set?
8 to 10
195
Which of the following is the ability of the central nervous system to gather and interpret sensory information to execute the proper motor response?
Sensorimotor integration
196
Which exercise is considered a chest-stabilization exercise?
Push-up: feet on ball
197
What type of exercises are important for the protection of joints in an athlete's training program?
Exercises that train neuromuscular coordination
198
Once an individual can correctly perform the drawing-in maneuver in a supine position, which of the following is the next progression?
Supine with marching
199
When implementing concussion prevention programming, which of the following strategies can a trainer use to mitigate the effects of a concussive injury?
Strengthening the neck musculature in all planes of motion
200
For which phase of training is single-leg balance reach: frontal plane most appropriate?
Phase 1
201
What refers to the relationship of a muscle's ability to produce tension at differing shortening velocities?
Force-velocity curve
202
What are muscles that work in direct opposition to the prime mover called?
Antagonist
203
What can happen when blood has a high hematocrit?
Blood flow resistance
204
Which of the following is the best strength exercise for an athlete who is new to resistance training?
Supported dumbbell row
205
In which phases of the OPT model is it appropriate to use Olympic competition lifts?
Phases 5 and 6
206
Following a cycle of training in OPT Phase 5, what is the next progression to produce the highest levels of acceleration and rate of force production?
Maximal power training
207
Which assessment is an appropriate progression from the single-leg squat assessment for measuring lower-extremity agility and neuromuscular control?
Shark skill test
208
Which movement of the snatch exercise occurs when the lifter drops rapidly into a squat position, moving the feet quickly sideways and extending the arms overhead to catch the bar and stop its descent?
Amortization and catch
209
Athletes who participate in sports with rigid boots, such as skiing and ice hockey, are at higher risk for what type of ankle sprain?
Syndesmotic ankle sprain
210
Endurance athletes and those with small body mass and large sodium losses are at risk for which condition?
Hyponatremia
211
Which of the following best describes the concept of selective attention?
Ability to focus on relevant cues
212
Which resistance exercise is appropriate for the Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance level of training?
Standing cable chest press
213
Training for optimum muscle function in all planes of motion, and utilizing the stretch-shortening cycle are part of what type of training?
Integrated training
214
Once an individual can correctly perform the drawing-in maneuver in a supine position, which of the following is the next progression?
Supine with marching
215
Among athletes who have a history of ankle sprain, what percentage of athletes are expected to re-sprain their ankle?
47-73%
216
An athlete with knee valgus during the overhead squat is at risk of what injury?
Patellar tendinopathy
217
Which exercise can be performed with ultra-slow descents to help improve stability of the supportive musculature?
Snatch deadlift
218
Which of the following is the last energy supply to be used?
Muscle glycogen + fatty acids
219
Which of the following sports activities relies the most on the oxidative energy system?
Soccer
220
Why should supplements like creatine, beta-alanine, and nitric-oxide boosters NOT be recommended to athletes who are minors?
Most safety tests don’t test minors
221
A well-rounded active flexibility program utilizes which three techniques?
Self-myofascial release, active-isolated stretching, and neuromuscular stretching
222
Central nervous system fatigue can be minimized by performing drills with the highest magnitude of neuromuscular demand at which time during the workout?
Beginning of the workout
223
What are three primary causes of muscular imbalance?
Pattern overload, aging, postural stress
224
When training for hypertrophy, what is the appropriate intensity at which resistance training should occur?
75-85%
