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ANP1106 > Practice Exam > Flashcards

Practice Exam Flashcards

1
Q

T/F: In their resting state, all body cells exhibit a resting membrane potential ranging from -50 to about +50 mV.

A

a. False

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1
Q

What is a membrane potential?
a. A voltage of electrical charge across the plasma membrane
b. Cooperation between cells
c. The ability of the cells to perform their specialized functions
d. The possibility of cell activity

A

a

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2
Q

T/F: Nitric oxide may act as a biological messenger.

A

t

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3
Q

Put these in the proper order: integration; motor output; sensory input.

A

sensory input, integration, motor output

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4
Q

Which of the following is not one of the basic functions of the nervous system?
a. Sensory input
b. Integration
c. Motor output
d. Neural genesis

A

d. Neural genesis

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5
Q

Bipolar neurons are commonly _______.
a. Found in the retina of the eye
b. Motor neurons
c. Called neuroglial cells
d. Found in ganglia

A

a. Found in the retina of the eye

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6
Q

Collections of nerve cell bodies outside the central nervous system are called ________.
a. Tracts
b. Nerves
c. Nuclei
d. Ganglia

A

d. Ganglia

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7
Q

Ions are unequally distributed across the plasma membrane of all cells. This ion distribution
creates an electrical potential difference across the membrane. What is the name given to this
potential difference?

A

a. Resting membrane potential

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8
Q

Sodium and potassium ions can diffuse across the plasma membranes of all cells because of the
presence of what type of channel?

A

a. Leaky channels

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9
Q

The inside surface of the plasma membrane is much more ________ charged than the outside
surface.

A

a. Negatively

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10
Q

Why is the membrane much more permeable to K+ than to Na+?

A

a. There are many more K+ leaky channels along the membrane than Na+ leaky channels

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11
Q

Where do most action potentials originate?
a. Nodes of ranvier
b. Axon terminal
c. Initial segment
d. Cell body

A

C. Initial segment

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12
Q

What opens first in response to a threshold stimulus?
a. Voltage-gated Na+ channels
b. Ligand-gated Na+ channels
c. Voltage-gated K+ channels
d. Ligand-gated Ca2+ channels

A

a. Voltage-gated Na+ channels

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13
Q

Which of the following is not one of the chemical classes into which neurotransmitters fall?
a. Gases and lipids
b. Chlorides
c. Peptides
d. Amino acids

A

b. Chlorides

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14
Q

. Saltatory conduction is made possible by _____.
a. Diphasic impulses
b. The myelin sheath
c. Large nerve fibres
d. Erratic transmission of nerve impulses

A

b. The myelin sheath

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15
Q

When a sensory neuron is excited by some form of energy, the resulting graded potential is
called a(n) ________.
a. Excitatory potential
b. Action potential
c. Generator potential
d. Postsynaptic potential

A

c. Generator potential

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16
Q

T/F: A postsynaptic potential is a graded potential that is the result of a neurotransmitter released into the synapse between two neurons

A

a. True

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17
Q

An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) is associated with ______.
a. A change in sodium ion permeability
b. Opening of voltage-regulated channels
c. Lowering the threshold for an action potential to occur
d. Hyperpolarization

A

d. Hyperpolarization

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18
Q

Which neurotransmitter(s) is/are the body’s natural pain killer?
a. Acetylcholine
b. Endorphins
c. Substance P
d. Norepinephrine

A

b. Endorphins

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19
Q

Which of the following is not used to classify sensory receptors?
a. Location
b. The type of stimulus they detect
c. The number of dendritic endings present
d. Structural complexity

A

c. The number of dendritic endings present

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20
Q

Which of the following is not an example of an exteroreceptor?
a. Temperature
b. Touch
c. Pain
d. Pressure
e. Baroreceptor

A

e. Baroreceptor

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21
Q

Potentially damaging stimuli that result in pain are selectively detected by _______.
a. Photoreceptors
b. Nociceptors
c. Interoceptors
d. Proprioceptors

A

b. Nociceptors

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22
Q

. Transduction refers to conversion of _______.
a. Stimulus information to nerve impulses
b. Receptor energy to stimulus energy
c. Afferent impulses to efferent impulses
d. Presynaptic nerve impulses to postsynaptic nerve impulses

A

a. Stimulus information to nerve impulses

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23
Q

Pain, temperature, and coarse touch are involved in the _______ ascending pathways of the
somatosensory system

A

a. Spinothalamic

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24
Q

The ______ nerve is not a branch of the trigeminal nerve.
a. Mandibular
b. Maxillary
c. Cervical
d. Opthalamic

A

c. Cervical

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25
Q

Somatic reflexes activate:
a. Glands
b. Cardiac muscle
c. Skeletal muscle
d. Smooth muscle

A

c. Skeletal muscle

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26
Q

The knee-jerk reflex is an example of a:
a. Flexor reflex
b. Stretch reflex
c. Golgi tendon reflex
d. Superficial reflex

A

b. Stretch reflex

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27
Q

T/F: Dermatomes are skin segments that relate to sensory innervation regions of the spinal
nerves.

A

a. True

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28
Q

Which reflex is important for maintaining muscle tone?
a. Crosses-extensor reflex
b. Flexor reflex
c. Stretch reflex
d. Golgi tendon reflex

A

c. Stretch reflex

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29
Q

Which of the following types of neurons carries impulses away from the CNS?
a. Motor
b. Association
c. Sensory
d. Afferent

A

a. Motor

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30
Q

Which of the following is not a functional classification of neurons?
a. Extraneurons
b. Efferent
c. Sensory
d. Interneurons

A

a. Extraneurons

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31
Q

. Which part of the neuron is responsible for generating a nerve impulse?
a. Axon
b. Dendrite
c. Soma
d. Nissl substance

A

a. Axon

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32
Q

The period after an initial stimulus when a neuron is not sensitive to another stimulus if the
_____.
a. Resting period
b. Depolarization
c. Absolute refractory period
d. Repolarization

A

c. Absolute refractory period

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33
Q

Which ion channel opens in response to a change in membrane potential and participates in the
generation and conduction of action potentials?
a. Mechanically gated channel
b. Voltage-gated channel
c. Ligand-gated channel
d. Leakage channel

A

b. Voltage-gated channel

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34
Q

. ____ potentials are short-lived, local changes in membrane potential that can be either
depolarized or hyperpolarized.

A

a. Graded

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35
Q

Which of the following is an excitatory neurotransmitter secreted by motor neurons innervating
skeletal muscle?
a. Norepinephrine
b. Cholinesterase
c. Gamma aminobutyric acid
d. Acetylcholine

A

d. Acetylcholine

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36
Q

Which of the following areas of the brain is responsible for spatial discrimination?
a. Primary somatosensory cortex
b. Gustatory cortex
c. Vestibular cortex
d. Broca’s area

A

a. Primary somatosensory cortex

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37
Q

Which part of the brain is the gateway to the cerebral cortex?
a. Pons
b. Mesencephalon
c. Thalamus
d. Hypothalamus

A

c. Thalamus

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38
Q

The primary auditory cortex is located in the ________.
a. Parietal lobe
b. Temporal lobe
c. Prefrontal lobe
d. Frontal lobe

A

b. Temporal lobe

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39
Q

The central sulcus separates which lobes?
a. Temporal from parietal
b. Parietal from occipital
c. Frontal from temporal
d. Frontal from parietal

A

d. Frontal from parietal

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40
Q

T/F: The primary visual cortex contains a map of visual space

A

t

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41
Q

T/F: Sorting of sensory information and relaying it to the appropriate cerebral sensory area
occurs in the hypothalamus.

A

f

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42
Q

The anteriolateral pathways ________.
a. Receive inputs from a single type of sensory receptor
b. Are involved in the emotional aspects of perception
c. Are evolutionarily newer than the specific pathways
d. Are also called the lemniscal system

A

b. Are involved in the emotional aspects of perception

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43
Q

Sensory neurons enter the spinal cord via the _______ horn.

A

a. Dorsal

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44
Q

T/F: Most of the ascending and descending pathways to and from the brain cross over from one
side of the body to the other.

A

T

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45
Q

The major function of the conjunctiva is to:
a. Produce mucus to prevent the eyes from drying out
b. Produce sweat to cool the eyelids
c. Produce tears to lubricate the eyes
d. Lubricate the eyelids so they do not stick together

A

a. Produce mucus to prevent the eyes from drying out

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46
Q

. Which of the following is a characteristic of the lens?
a. The lens of the human eye has a concave shape
b. The lens is vascularized
c. The lens focuses light on the retina
d. In a healthy eye, the lens will be opaque

A

c. The lens focuses light on the retina

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47
Q

The receptors for smell are activated when:
a. Olfactory cilia move mucus over the receptors
b. The olfactory tracts transduce signals to the hypothalamus
c. Mitral cells relay signals to the olfactory bulbs
d. Dissolved odorants bind to the receptors in the cilium membranes

A

d. Dissolved odorants bind to the receptors in the cilium membranes

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48
Q

Which structure in the eye provides nutrition to all eye layers?
a. Vitreous humour
b. Cornea
c. Choroid
d. Ciliary body

A

c. Choroid

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49
Q

Even though we have two eyes, why do we normally see only one image?
a. Information from each eye goes to both hemispheres for processing
b. One eye processes close images; the other eye processes images at a distance
c. Only the dominant eye (which corresponds to the dominant hand) is used in vision
d. Only one eye views an image at a time

A

a. Information from each eye goes to both hemispheres for processing

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50
Q

Seventy percent of all sensory receptors are located in the _______.
a. Eye
b. Skin
c. Nose
d. Ears

A

a. Eye

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51
Q

The first “way station” in the visual pathway from the eye, after there has been partial crossover
of the fibres in the optic chiasma, is the _______.
a. Temporal lobe
b. Lateral geniculate body of the thalamus
c. Superior colliculi
d. Visual cortex

A

b. Lateral geniculate body of the thalamus

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52
Q

Nerve fibres from the medial aspect of each eye ______.
a. Pass posteriorly without crossing over at the chiasma
b. Cross over to the opposite side at the chiasma
c. Divide at the chiasma, with some crossing and some not crossing
d. Go to the superior colliculus only

A

b. Cross over to the opposite side at the chiasma

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53
Q

Visual inputs to the ______ serve to synchronize biorhythms with natural light and dark.
a. Superior colliculi
b. Suprachiasmatic nucleus
c. Lateral geniculate body
d. Pretectal nuclei

A

b. Suprachiasmatic nucleus

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54
Q

The ____ are in the visual pathway and mediate the pupillary light reflexe

A

a. Prectectal nuclei

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55
Q

T/F: The bending of light rays is called reflection.

A

f

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56
Q

Which of the following is not a requirement for something to be tasted?
a. The tastant must dissolved in saliva
b. The tastant must contact the basal cells of the taste buds
c. The tastant must diffuse into a taste pore
d. The tastant must contact gustatory hairs

A

b. The tastant must contact the basal cells of the taste buds

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57
Q

The boundary between the external and middle ear is the:
a. Mastoid antrum
b. External acoustic meatus
c. Vestibule
d. Tympanic membrane

A

d. Tympanic membrane

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58
Q

Which of the following is the basic taste quality responsible for a “beef taste?”
a. Bitter
b. Umami
c. Sweet
d. Sour

A

b. Umami

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59
Q

Which of the following types of neurons are replace throughout adult life?
a. Auditory outer and inner hair cells
b. Retinal ganglion cells
c. Olfactory receptor cells
d. Retinal bipolar cells

A

c. Olfactory receptor cells

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60
Q

Olfactory cells and taste buds are normally stimulated by _______.
a. The movement of otoliths
b. Substances in solution
c. Stretching of the receptor cells
d. Movement of a cupula

A

b. Substances in solution

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61
Q

. T/F: Each olfactory cortical neuron receives input from one receptor at a time.

A

f

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62
Q

. There are _____ auditory ossicles in the ear.
a. Two
b. Three
c. Five
d. Four

A

b. Three

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63
Q

The receptor organ for hearing is the ______.
a. Crista ampullaris
b. Spiral organ of Corti
c. Modiolus
d. Oval window

A

b. Spiral organ of Corti

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64
Q

Which of the following is true of receptors for dynamic equilibrium?
a. The receptors for dynamic equilibrium are called maculae
b. The receptors for dynamic equilibrium respond to rotation forces
c. The receptors for dynamic equilibrium are not stimulated by head movement
d. The receptors for dynamic equilibrium are located in the vestibule of the ear

A

b. The receptors for dynamic equilibrium respond to rotation forces

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65
Q

Which ear ossicle connects to the inner ear?
a. Malleus
b. Anvil
c. Incus
d. Stapes

A

d. Stapes

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66
Q

The receptor for static equilibrium is the ______.
a. Cochlear duct
b. Semicircular canals
c. Utricle
d. Macula

A

d. Macula

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67
Q

The oval window is connected directly to which passageway?
a. Scala vestibuli
b. Pharyngotympanic tube
c. External acoustic meatus
d. Scala tympani

A

a. Scala vestibuli

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68
Q

As sound levels increase in the spiral organ (of Corti), ________.
a. Inner hair cells stiffen the basilar membrane
b. Outer hair cells bend the cilia away from the kinocilium
c. Inner hair cells bend the cilia away from the kinocilium
d. Outer hair cells stiffen the basilar membrane

A

d. Outer hair cells stiffen the basilar membrane

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69
Q

. Information from balance receptors goes directly to the _______.
a. Motor cortex
b. Visual cortex
c. Back muscles
d. Brain stem reflex centres

A

d. Brain stem reflex centres

70
Q

An essential part of the maculae involved in static equilibrium is (are) the ______.
a. Otoliths
b. Scala media
c. Spiral organ of Corti
d. Cupula

A

a. Otoliths

71
Q

Which statement about sound localization is not true?
a. It uses time differences between sound reaching the two ears
b. It requires processing at the cortical level
c. It requires input from both ears
d. It is difficult to discriminate sound sources in the midline

A

b. It requires processing at the cortical level

72
Q

T/F: Sound is generally perceived in the occipital lobe of the cerebral cortex.

A

F

73
Q

Which of the following best represents the motor areas of the cortex?
a. Primary somatosensory cortex; somatosensory association cortex; visual areas
b. Primary motor cortex; premotor cortex; Brodmann areas; gustatory cortex
c. Primary motor cortex; Broca’s area; frontal eye field
d. Broca’s area; Brodmann areas; auditory areas; visual areas

A

c. Primary motor cortex; Broca’s area; frontal eye field

74
Q

Disorders of the ______ result in either too much or too little movement, as exemplified by
Huntington’s disease and Parkinson’s disease.
a. Gray matter
b. White matter
c. Diencephalon
d. Basal nuclei

A

d. Basal nuclei

75
Q

Which of the following regions of the brain coordinates subconscious activities and provides for
the muscle coordination and agility needed for our daily living?
a. Midbrain
b. Pons
c. Medulla oblongata
d. Cerebellum

A

d. Cerebellum

76
Q

Which of the following is not a role of the basal nuclei?
a. Controlling starting and stopping movements
b. Inhibiting unnecessary or antagonistic movements
c. Initiating protective reflex action
d. Regulating attention and cognition

A

c. Initiating protective reflex action

77
Q

Two terms for the massive motor tracts serving voluntary movement are _______.
a. Pyramidal and corticopsinal
b. Segmental and nigrostriatal
c. Extrapyramidal and rubrospinal
d. Supplementary and cerebellar-pontine

A

a. Pyramidal and corticopsinal

78
Q

Important nuclei of the indirect (multineural) system that receive impulses from the equilibrium
apparatus of the inner ear and help maintain balance by varying muscle tone of postural muscle
are the ________.
a. Reticular nuclei
b. Superior colliculi
c. Vestibular nuclei
d. Red nuclei

A

c. Vestibular nuclei

79
Q

T/F: The corpora quadrigemina superior colliculi are visual reflex centres, whereas the inferior
colliculi are auditory reflex centres.

A

T

80
Q

T/F: A disturbance of posture, muscle tremors at rest, and uncontrolled muscle contraction are
all symptoms of damage to the basal nuclei.

A

T

81
Q

Spastic paralysis suggests involvement of the _____.
a. Spinal nerve roots
b. Upper motor neurons
c. Lower motor neurons
d. Neuromotor junction

A

b. Upper motor neurons

82
Q

T/F: Cell bodies of the somatic motor neurons of the spinal nerves are located in the ventral horn
of the spinal cord.

A

T

83
Q

The two types of receptors that bind acetylcholine are ______ and ______ receptors.
a. Nicotinic; caffeinic
b. Caffeinic; muscarinic
c. Alpha; beta
d. Nicotininc; muscarinic

A

d. Nicotininc; muscarinic

84
Q

Which division of the nervous system has short preganglionic neurons?
a. Motor
b. Somatic
c. Parasympathetic
d. Sympathetic

A

d. Sympathetic

85
Q

The secretions of the adrenal medulla act to supplement the effects of ______.
a. Sympathetic stimulation
b. Vagus nerve activity
c. Neurosecretory substances
d. Parasympathetic innervation

A

a. Sympathetic stimulation

86
Q

Cardiovascular effects of the sympathetic division include all except ______.
a. Dilation of the vessels serving the skeletal muscles
b. Increase of heart rate and force
c. Constriction of most blood vessels
d. Dilation of the blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera

A

d. Dilation of the blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera

87
Q

Over 90% of all parasympathetic fibres are derived from cranial nerve number _____.
a. XII
b. VII
c. V
d. X

A

d. X

88
Q

The route of major parasympathetic outflow from the head is via the _______.
a. Sympathetic trunk
b. Phrenic nerve
c. Sacral nerve
d. Vagus nerve

A

d. Vagus nerve

89
Q

Parasympathetic functions include _______.
a. A stimulation of heart rate and force of contraction
b. Lens accommodation for close vision
c. Mobilizing storage energy sources
d. Allowing the body to cope with an external threat

A

b. Lens accommodation for close vision

90
Q

Sweat glands are innervated by the ______ fibres alone.

A

a. Sympathetic

91
Q

T/F: The autonomic nervous system may cause activation or inhibition, depending on the
division that is active and the target that is affected.

A

T

92
Q

T/F: Most blood vessels are innervated by the sympathetic division alone.

A

T

93
Q

Patients who have lesions involving Broca’s area:
a. Do not understand written communications, but they can speak clearly and intelligibly
b. Cannot communication through writing, nor can they speak
c. Do not understand language
d. Can understand language, but have difficulty speaking

A

d. Can understand language, but have difficulty speaking

94
Q

The suprachiasmatic nucleus is found in the _______.
a. Medulla
b. Thalamus
c. Hypothalamus
d. Pons

A

c. Hypothalamus

95
Q

Broca’s area ______.
a. Is usually found in the right hemisphere
b. Serves the recognition of complex objects
c. Corresponds to Brodmann’s area 8
d. Is considered a motor speech area

A

d. Is considered a motor speech area

96
Q

The brain area that regulates activities that control the state of wakefulness or alertness of the
cerebral cortex is the ______.
a. Thalamus
b. Limbic system
c. Reticular formation
d. Pyramids

A

c. Reticular formation

97
Q

Brain wave amplitude ______.
a. Results from subtraction of delta waves from theta waves
b. Is the measure of activity of specific individual neurons
c. Is an average of about 1 V
d. Reflects the number of neurons firing synchronously

A

d. Reflects the number of neurons firing synchronously

98
Q

Declarative memory ________.
a. Is best remembered in the doing
b. Is hard to unlearn when learned once
c. Usually involves motor skills
d. Is the ability to learn specific information

A

d. Is the ability to learn specific information

99
Q

T/F: A flat EEG is a good indication of deep sleep.

A

F

100
Q

The blind spot of the eye is where ________.
 A) more rods than cones are found
 B) the macula lutea is located
 C) only cones occur
 D) the optic nerve leaves the eye

A

 D) the optic nerve leaves the eye

101
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of olfactory receptor cells?
 A) They are ciliated.
 B) They are unipolar neurons.
 C) They are chemoreceptors.
 D) They have a short life span of about 60 days.

A

 B) They are unipolar neurons.

102
Q

Light passes through the following structures in which order?
 A) vitreous humor, lens, aqueous humor, cornea
 B) cornea, aqueous humor, lens, vitreous humor
 C) cornea, vitreous humor, lens, aqueous humor
 D) aqueous humor, cornea, lens, vitreous humor

A

 B) cornea, aqueous humor, lens, vitreous humor

103
Q

Which of the following is not a possible cause of conduction deafness?
 A) impacted cerumen
 B) middle ear infection
 C) cochlear nerve degeneration
 D) otosclerosis

A

 C) cochlear nerve degeneration

104
Q

High frequency sounds are detected when the basilar membrane is displaced near the____.
a) Apical end
b) Base
c) Lateral edges
d) center

A

b) Base

105
Q

T/F: Hair cells in the spiral organ of the ear are never replaced.

A

T

106
Q

Movement is initiated in the ________ and regulated by the _________; both project to the
_____________
a. Basal ganglia, cerebellum, motor cortex
b. Cerebellum, basal ganglia, motor cortex
c. Basal ganglia, pons, motor cortex
d. Pons, cerebellum, sensory cortex
e. Cerebellum, pons, sensory cortex

A

a. Basal ganglia, cerebellum, motor cortex

107
Q

Which of the following is the motor speech area?
a. Wernicke’s area
b. Brocha’s area
c. Primary motor cortex
d. Premotor cortex

A

b. Brocha’s area

108
Q

Which of the following is/are true?
a. CN III, IV, and V innervate extraocular muscles
b. CN VII innervates muscles of facial expression
c. CN XII innervates muscles of the lips
d. A and B
e. All of the above

A

B

109
Q

Johnny has recently been paralyzed: his spinal neurons remain intact and his muscles are stimulated
irregularly. He has no voluntary control of his muscles. Which best describes Johnny’s paralysis?
a. Quadriplegia
b. Paraplegia
c. Spastic paralysis
d. Flaccid paralysis
e. None of the above

A

c. Spastic paralysis

110
Q

Choose the false statement.
a. Nicotinic receptors are found on motor end plates and the hormone producing cells of the
adrenal medulla
b. The effect of ACh binding to nicotinic receptors is always stimulatory
c. The effect of ACh binding to muscarinic receptors is inhibitory or excitatry
d. The sympathetic division can override the effects of parasympathetic tone during times of stress
e. The integration centre in the spinal cord is always a dorsal horn interneuron

A

e. The integration centre in the spinal cord is always a dorsal horn interneuron

111
Q

Which of the following is not true of consciousness?
a. It encompasses perception and sensation and capabilities of higher mental processing
b. Involves simultaneous activity of large areas of the prefrontal cortex (cerebral cortex)
c. Is superimposed on other types of neural activity
d. Is defined clinically based on a continuum that grades level for behaviour
e. Encompasses voluntary initiation and control of movement

A

b. Involves simultaneous activity of large areas of the prefrontal cortex (cerebral cortex)

112
Q

Which of the following is not one of the three columns along the length of the brain stem making up
the reticular formation?
a. Central (large cell) group
b. Medial group
c. Lateral group
d. Raphe nuclei

A

a. Central (large cell) group

113
Q

The ___________________ send impulses to the cerebral cortex to keep it conscious and alert, and
filters out repetitive and weak stimuli.
a. Reticular formation
b. Hypothalamus
c. Thalamus
d. Reticular Activating System
e. Hypothalamic-Hypophysal tract

A

d. Reticular Activating System

114
Q

T/F: absence seizures are mild seizures, generally seen in young children, where their facial
expression goes blank.

A

T

115
Q

Parkinson’s disease results from damage of:
a. caudate nucleus
b. subthalamic nucleus
c. globus pallidus
d. substantia nigra

A

d

116
Q

. Specific thalamic nuclei include all the following, except:
a. reticular nuclei
b. medial geniculate body
c. pulvinar
d. medial nuclei

A

a

117
Q

Maculae of vestibular apparatus are:-
a. stimulated by movement of endolymph over their surface
b. stimulated during standing upright but inhibited in the recumbent posture
c. alter the pattern of their discharge by head tilting
d. contain otoconia that press on hair cells to initiate resting basal discharge

A

c

118
Q

Hair cells of the cristae are stimulated by:
a. bending of their stereocilia toward any direction
b. movement of endolymph in any direction
c. bending of stereocilia toward kinocilium
d. bending of stereocilia away from kinocilium

A

c

119
Q

. Vestibular hair cells:
a. are provided with cilia all over their surface
b. are innervated by cochlear nerve fibers
c. are stimulated by a chemical transmitter released from the terminals of the innervating nerve fibers
d. are sensitive to mechanical stimuli

A

d

120
Q

crista ampullaris is sensitive to:
a. sound vibrations
b. force of gravity
c. linear acceleration
d. angular acceleration

A

d

121
Q

All the following are components of the vestibular apparatus, except:
a. crista ampullaris
b. vestibular hair cells
c. vestibular nucleus
d. saccule

A

c

122
Q

the primary motor area receives inputs arising from all the following centers, except:
a. basal ganglia
b. cerebellum
c. hypothalamus
d. thalamus

A

c

123
Q

Tectospinal tract:
a. originate mainly from the inferior colliculus
b. originate mainly from the medial geniculate body
c. mediate responses initiated by sudden changes of head position
d. terminate in the cervical segments of the cord

A

d

124
Q

. Vestibulospinal tracts:
a. adjust the discharge of vestibular receptors
b. adjust muscle tone
c. antagonize the effects of rubrospinal tract
d. terminate on the lateral motor neurons in the spinal cord

A

b

125
Q

reticulospinal tracts:
a. are inhibitory to muscle tone
b. are excitatory to muscle tone
c. are either excitatory or inhibitory to muscle tone
d. have effect on muscle tone

A

c

126
Q

The lateral motor system includes :
a. the lateral Reticulospinal tract
b. the lateral corticospinal tract
c. the lateral vestibulospinal tract
d. all the above tracts

A

b

127
Q

All of the following are descending motor tracts, except :
a. Rubrospinal tract
b. Spinotectal tract
c. Reticulospinal tract
d. Corticobulbar tract

A

b

128
Q

The role of gamma motor neurons in regulation of equilibrium is achieved by:
a. initiating contraction of spindle fibers which directly antagonize postural deviation
b. increasing spindle sensitivity to stretch
c. directly stimulating extrafusal muscle fibers to antagonize postural deviation
d. directly adjusting the discharge of α-motor neurons innervating the extrafusal muscle fibers to
antagonize postural deviation

A

b

129
Q

Gamma motor innervation of muscle spindles produces:
a. contraction of the central region of the spindle fibers
b. increased sensory discharge from the central region of the spindle fibers
c. decreased sensory discharge from the central region of the spindle fibers
d. relaxation of the peripheral regions of the spindle fibers

A

b

130
Q

. Muscle spindles :-
a. are found in all skeletal muscles
b. are found only in large skeletal muscles
c. consist of small numbers of extrafusal muscle fibers
d. consist of a large number of extrafusal muscle fibers

A

a

131
Q

flexor reflexes do not involve:-
a. flexor muscles
b. extensor muscles
c. reciprocal inhibition
d. reflex spasm of the involved muscles

A

d

132
Q

Higher motor commands originate in all the following centers, except: -
a. cerebral cortex
b. thalamus
c. caudate nucleus
d. cerebellum

A

b

133
Q

All the following transmitters are neuropeptides, except: -
a. neuropeptide Y
b. somatostatin
c. dopamine
d. enkephalin

A

c

134
Q

IPSP could result from: -
a. opening of K + channels
b. opening of ligand-gated cation channels
c. closure of Cl- channels
d. closure of potential-gated Ca ++ channels

A

a

135
Q

When EPSP and IPSP occur simultaneously the postsynaptic membrane: -
a. becomes depolarized
b. becomes hyperpolarized
c. initiates an action potential
d. shows potential changes that depend upon the summation of their effect

A

d

136
Q

IPSP differs from EPSP in: -
a. being of shorter duration
b. being unable to summate spatially
c. moving the membrane potential away from threshold
d. depending upon opening of voltage K + channels

A

c

137
Q

Opening of ligand-gated Cl- channels causes: -
a. inhibition of the postsynaptic neuron
b. depolarization of the postsynaptic neuron
c. initiation of an action potential
d. block of ligand-gated cation channel

A

a

138
Q

Transmitters in pain control system include all the following, except: -
a. serotonin
b. acetylcholine
c. enkephalin
d. norepinephrine

A

a

139
Q

Proprioceptive sensations are transmitted by all the following pathways, except: -
a. spinothalamic tracts
b. spinocerebellar tract
c. gracile tract
d. cuneocerebellar tract

A

a

140
Q

Proprioceptors include all the following types of receptors, except: -
a. muscle spindles
b. pressure receptors
c. vestibular receptors
d. joint receptors

A

c

141
Q

Proprioceptive sensations include all the following, except: -
a. position sense
b. equilibrium sense
c. movement sense
d. kinesthetic sense

A

b

142
Q

A more developed two-point tactile discrimination: -
a. indicates a greater threshold distance for feeling of two points of touch applied simultaneously
b. is seen in the proximal regions of the body compared with the distal regions
c. is inversely related to the size of the receptive fields of the stimulated sensory units
d. depends upon the type of the involved touch receptor

A

c

143
Q

. Rapidly adapting tactile receptors include all the following types, except: -
a. Merkel discs
b. Meissner corpuscles
c. Pacinian corpuscles
d. hair end organs

A

a

144
Q

Tactile receptors include all the following receptors, except: -
a. free nerve endings
b. hair follicle receptors
c. hair cell receptors
d. Ruffini nerve ending

A

c

145
Q

Rapidly adapting receptors are involved in: -
a. static reflex responses
b. detection of joint movements
c. regulation of heart rate
d. only ‘a’ and ‘b’ are correct

A

b

146
Q

slowly adapting receptors include all the following types, except: -
a. Golgi tendon organs
b. warmth receptors
c. free nerve endings
d. Meissner corpuscles

A

d

147
Q

A specific stimulus produces a receptor potential by: -
a. inhibiting Na + influx into receptor
b. inhibiting K + efflux from receptor
c. enhancing Na + influx into receptor
d. enhancing K + efflux from receptor

A

c

148
Q

Most sensory receptors: -
a. are stimulated by different types of stimuli
b. are stimulated only by specific stimuli
c. possess a high threshold for their specific stimuli
d. only ‘b’ and ‘c’ are correct

A

b

149
Q

The two-element sensory receptors differ from other types of receptors in being: -
a. more numerous
b. more widely spread in the body
c. more sensitive
d. composed of specialized cells at the sensory nerve terminals

A

d

150
Q

. The sensory system is involved in all the following, except :-
a. initiation of reflex movements
b. initiation of voluntary movements
c. learning processes
d. initiation of emotional responses

A

b

151
Q

When studying for your ANP 1106 final, you remember something you just learned because it reminds you of
a similar concept you learned last semester in ANP 1105. This transfer of ANP 1106 information from short
term memory to long term memory was done via:
a. Heightened emotional state
b. Rehearsal
c. Association
d. Automatic memory
e. Comparison

A

c

152
Q

. Identify the false statement concerning sleep patterns.
a. The brain is actively guided into sleep
b. The nuclei of the hypothalamus regulate the sleep cycle
c. A typical sleep pattern alternates between REM and NREM sleep
d. Slow-wave sleep is presumed to be the restorative stage
e. None of the above.

A

e

153
Q

. The __________ is the main integration centre of ANS activity; other controls come from the ______________,
_____________, and spinal cord.
a. Hypothalamus, cerebral cortex, limbic lobe
b. Anterior pituitary, cerebral cortex, limbic lobe
c. Hypothalamus, cerebral cortex, reticular formation
d. Cerebral cortex, reticular formation, limbic lobe
e. Cerebral cortex, hypothalamus, reticular formatio

A

c

154
Q

Choose the false statement.
a. Nicotinic receptors are found on motor end plates and the hormone producing cells of the adrenal
medulla
b. The effect of ACh binding to nicotinic receptors is always stimulatory
c. The effect of ACh binding to muscarinic receptors is inhibitory or excitatory
d. The sympathetic division can override the effects of parasympathetic tone during times of stress
e. The integration centre in the spinal cord is always a dorsal horn interneuron

A

e

155
Q

Which of the following is/are true?
a. CN III, IV, and V innervate extraocular muscles
b. CN VII innervates muscles of facial expression
c. CN XII innervates muscles of the lips
d. A and B
e. All of the above

A

b

156
Q

Which of the following is the motor speech area?
a. Wernicke’s area
b. Broca’s area
c. Primary motor cortex
d. Premotor cortex

A

b

157
Q

movement is initiated in the ________ and regulated by the _________; both project to the _____________.
a. Basal ganglia, cerebellum, motor cortex
b. Cerebellum, basal ganglia, motor cortex
c. Basal ganglia, pons, motor cortex
d. Pons, cerebellum, sensory cortex
e. Cerebellum, pons, sensory cortex

A

a

158
Q

What structure regulates the amount of light passing to the visual receptors of the eye?
a. aqueous humor
b. lens
c. cornea
d. Iris

A

d

159
Q

What is the main function of the rods in the eye?
a. depth perception
b. color vision
c. vision in dim light
d. accommodation for near vision

A

c

160
Q
  1. True or false, the optic disc is the location where the optic nerve leaves the eyeball.
    a. True
    b. False
A

t

161
Q

True or false, the mucous membrane that lines the eyelids and is reflected over the anterior surface of the
eyeball is the conjunctiva.
a. True
b. False

A

t

162
Q

Which of the following houses the spiral organ of Corti?
a. Cochlear Duct
b. Tympanic Membrane
c. Spiral Organ of Corti
d. Vestibule

A

a

163
Q

Hair cells receptive to changes in dynamic equilibrium are found in this structure.
a. Taste Buds
b. Crista Ampullaris
c. Macula
d. Olfactory Epithelium

A

b

164
Q

he slowest adapting receptors in our body are:
a. Mechanoreceptors
b. Merkel Disks
c. Pascinian Corpuscles
d. Nociceptors

A

c

165
Q

The fact that the initial response of a receptor decreases after a period of time is named __________?
a. Attenuation
b. Elucidation
c. Adaptation
d. “Getting used to”
e. Normalization

A

c

166
Q

True or false, a phasic receptor adapts faster than a tonic receptor?
a. True
b. False

A

t

167
Q

The correct order for stimulus reception and transduction is:
a. Stimulus, opening of ionic channels, receptor potential, action potential
b. Action potential, stimulus, receptor potential, opening of ionic channels
c. Generator potential, conformation change of receptor, axon hillock threshold reached, stimulus
potential
d. Depolarization, threshold potential, repolarization, hyperpolarization

A

a

168
Q

__________ is where the energy of the stimulus is transformed into electric activity.
a. Transformation
b. Conduction
c. Translation
d. Transduction
e. Transition

A

d

169
Q

. There are 3 ways to classify the sensory receptors used by our body. These are:
a. Stimulus Strength, Size and Time
b. Stimulus Location, Type, Complexity
c. Good Stimulus, Bad Stimulus and Neutral Stimulus
d. Externoreceptors, internoreceptors and proprioceptors

A

d

170
Q

John Madden is working in a football manufacturing factory and needs to remember specific sequence of
buttons to press for each football that goes through. The type of neuronal circuit he is using is most likely:
a. Rotating
b. Parallel-after discharge
c. Converging
d. Diverging
e. Reverberating

A

e

171
Q

if the ligand-gated channel of the postsynaptic receptor is selective to the flow and entry of ________ then we
get depolarization/excite the postsynaptic neuron producing an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP).
a. Potassium
b. Calcium
c. Magnesium
d. Sodium

A

d

172
Q

The most common excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS is:
a. Methoxymethyl Sulfate
b. Glutamate
c. GABA
d. Serotonin

A

b

173
Q
A

ANP1106 (11 decks)

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