Practice Oral #1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the qualifications to become a dispatcher

A

FAR Part 65.53 - Eligibility Requirements: General
65.55 - Knowledge Requirements
65.57 - Experience or Training Requirements
65.59 - Skill Requirements

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1
Q

What part of the FARs discusses the certification of dispatchers?

A

Part 65

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2
Q

What causes the weather?

A

The sun

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3
Q

What 3 things are required for radiation fog to form?

A

Clear Skies, little to no wind, small temp/dewpoint spread

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4
Q

Is low pressure an area of convergence or divergence? Do winds flow towards the center of the low or away from it? Describe wind movement around a low.

A

Convergence; flowing inward; counter-clockwise

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5
Q

What type of clouds will you notice along a warm front?

A

Stratiform (stable) clouds with the possibility of embedded thunderstorms

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6
Q

What does the ceiling do as a warm front approaches?

A

Gradually becomes lower

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7
Q

Name a few characteristics of a warm front

A

Stratus cloud; extensive geographical coverage; slow-moving, rime ice; continuous precipitation

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8
Q

What are the stages of a thunderstorm?

A

Cumulus, mature, dissipating

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9
Q

What approach category is the B737?

A

Cat C (121-140kts)

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10
Q

What is a dryline?

A

Moist warm air flowing north from the Gulf of Mexico abuts drier, cooler, denser air flowing eastward. Spawns squall lines and tornadoes in the eastern plains

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11
Q

What are squall lines

A

Unstable, narrow, non-frontal band of convective activity usually found in advance of a cold front, 25-150 miles advanced of the front

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12
Q

How often are surface analysis charts issued?

A

Every 3 hours

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13
Q

How often are constant pressure charts issues?

A

2x daily, 0000z and 1200z

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14
Q

How often are TAFs issued? What is their valid time?

A

4x daily, starting at 0000z

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15
Q

How often are weather depiction charts issued?

A

Every 3 hours

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16
Q

What does hatching represent on a constant pressure chart?

A

Winds of 70-100kts

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17
Q

Where are you likely to find CAT?

A

In an upper trough on the cold (Polar) low pressure side of the jet stream.

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18
Q

How far apart are the isobars depicted on surface analysis charts?

A

4 mb

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19
Q

what weather providers are you authorized to obtain weather from? Where do you find it?

A

NWS, WSI, FSS, Jeppesen. Ops Spec A010

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20
Q

How can you detect a potential for windshear in weather reports and forecasts?

A

Isobars close together on the charts; or reports of TS; PIREPs, TAFs, CWAs, SIGMETs, AIRMETs

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21
Q

What does the pneumatic system do? Describe how it works.

A

Compressed bleed air from the engines can be used to start engines; pressurize the cabin, hydraulics and water systems; Heat and cool the cabin; provide anti-ice protection

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22
Q

Do we have anti-ice or deice on the B737?

A

Anti-ice; hot bleed air (stages 5&9)

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23
Q

If we use anti-ice, is there a performance pentalty?

A

Yes, the correction is normally found on the bottom of airport analysis page, expression a subtraction of pounds of payload.

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24
Q

What is an MEL, CDL?

A

MEL - Minimum Equipment List - Authorized to be inop
CDL - Configuration Deviation List - Authorized to be missing

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25
Q

If maintenance advises that DME must be deferred, can we still fly above FL240?

A

Yes, because the MEL states that we have two and we can dispatch with just one.

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26
Q

If maintenance advises that the weather radar must be deferred, what would you do as a dispatcher, knowing that TS are present along the route of flight.

A
  1. reroute
  2. Swap aircraft to one with a functioning radar
  3. delay flight till MX can repair of replace inop radar
27
Q

What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind for a B737?

A

35kt dry, 15kt contaminated

28
Q

what is RVSM? What altitude strata does it include? What are requirements for flight in RVSM?

A

Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum, FL290-FL410. Aircraft separated by 1,000 FT, Crew must be qualified, aircraft and equipment must be certified to a higher standard of calibration, TCAS II equipped and FAA approval.

29
Q

What is ETOPS?

A

Extended operation over water or desolate terrain as far as 60, 75, 120, 180, 240 min from a suitable airport, based on ops spec approval.

30
Q

What is the operational service volume of a high VOR?

A

130 miles

31
Q

What are the 6 requirements for RVSM?

A
  1. Crew must be qualified via training program
  2. Approval in Ops Spec
  3. Two independent altitude measuring systems
  4. Encoding altimiter
  5. An altitude alerter
  6. An Autopilot
32
Q

WHAT is the ATCSCC? What do they do?

A

Air Traffic Control System Control Center. Responsible for monitoring and managing the flow of air traffic in the NAS

33
Q

What is the standard CAT II ILS landing minimum?

A

200ft ceiling and 1/2 SM (2400 RVR)
*VIS is the only legal requirement in Part 121

34
Q

What is the CAT II and CAT IIIa landing minima?

A

CAT II - 100ft and 1/4 SM (1200 RVR)
CAT IIIa - 700ft visibility

35
Q

Are we authorized to conduct contact approaches?

A

No, not allowed in part 121 Ops Spec

35
Q

Are we authorized for CAT II approaches?

A

No, not in Ops Spec

36
Q

If our alternate STL, was not VFR, what would be our alternate minimums?

A

Experienced CA - mins on bottom of approach chart
High min CA - never less than 300ft and 1SM

37
Q

How do you determine if a departure alternate or a destination alternate is required?

A

Departure - Min RVR for takeoff is 600ft in Ops Spec, if departure does not have landing mins, the departure alternate must be within 1hr on 1 engine.

Destination - 1,2,3 rule

38
Q

What are the fuel requirements for a domestic flight?

A

Fuel to the destination w/Missed Approach, plus fuel to fly to the most distant alternate if required, plus 45 min.

39
Q

What are international fuel reserves for a flag air carrier?

A

Fuel to destination plus 10%; plus fuel to the most distant alternate if required; plus 30 min reserve holding over destination or alternate at 1500ft.

40
Q

What must a dispatch release contain?

A

Aircraft ID, trip number, departure airport, intermediate stops, destination and any alternate airports, IFR or VFR, min fuel supply, weather reports and forecasts.

41
Q

In addition to the dispatch reports, what must you give PIC?

A

Reports on airport conditions and nav facilities, weather reports and forecasts.

42
Q

Who can declare and emergency?

A

Captain, dispatcher, ATC, company management.

43
Q

Who must submit a report after an emergency is declared? Within how many days?

A

The person declaring the emergency must do the paperwork, within 10 days.

44
Q

What is Operational Control? Who has it? Who exercises it?

A

With respect to the flight, the exercise of authority over initiating, conducting or terminating a flight. PIC and Dispatcher

45
Q

What are the 5 fundamentals of dispatch?

A
  1. Am I legal for takeoff - C056, C078, 121.651
  2. Do I need a takeoff alternate - 121.617
  3. Do I need a destination alternate - 1,2,3 rule -
    121.619 & 121.195
  4. Am I legal to dispatch - 121.613, 121.195
  5. What are my alternate airport minimums? C055,
    121.625
46
Q

What are the standard take off minimums for a 2-engine aircraft?

A

1 SM for 2 engines. for a 3 or 4 engine aircraft, 1/2 SM, then go to Ops Spec and depart with 600 RVR if the Jepp 10-9A page allows on that runway.

47
Q

What is a special airport? How can the crew qualify? What if they can’t meet those Requirements?

A

Airports with unusual characteristics, such as mountains, no radar, unusual weather patterns. Crew can qualify by 1) watching an approved video of the airport. 2) Viewing the Jepp color photos and description of the airport. 3) Briefing by an experienced pilot who has been to that airport; or 4) by taking a check airman along on the flight. Option - if arriving in day VFR the above requirements are waived.

48
Q

How often do you need to observe the flight deck? For how long? Is it reducible?

A

Once a year, 5 hours, reduceable by 2.5hrs by substitution of 1 take off and landing for an hour of flight

49
Q

The crew had to wait in line for take off and now have 200lbs less fuel than what is required for take off, what to do? What do you do as a dispatcher?

A

Crew must call dispatch and request Load Planning recomputed the numbers for takeoff if they do not have the contingency fuel on board in addition to that required, may have to taxi back for more fuel.

50
Q

If you become aware than an alternate airport on the release has gone below minimums while enroute, what must you do?

A

Call the crew and suggest a new alternate; then initiate an amendment.

51
Q

If you lose communication with an aircraft, what are some of the ways to regain contact?

A

SATCOM, ATC, ACARS, SELCAL, ARINC, Delta Radio, company Radio

52
Q

What is the difference between a precision and non-precision approach?

A

A precision approach is an ILS with minimums of 200 & 1/2 SM with GS and localizer. A non-precision approach does not have a GS = higher minimums (LOC, NDB, VOR, ect.)

53
Q

Are pilots required to notify dispatch of their departure and arrival times?

A

Yes, if ACARS is not installed.

54
Q

To whom would you declare an emergency?

A

Supervisor, ATC, PIC

55
Q

What is a SIGMET? What weather conditions would prompt the issuance?

A

Significant Meteorological Information. A weather advisory issued concerning weather significant to the safety of all aircraft involving extreme turbulence, severe icing, and widespread sand/dust storms reducing vis to less than 3 miles.

56
Q

What is EWINS? What does it allow you to do?

A

Enhanced Weather Information Service allowing FAA-approved dispatchers to issue weather forecasts.

57
Q

What is the tropopause? Why is it important? What characteristic in the atmosphere marks the trop?

A

The Trop is an arbitrary line between the troposphere and the stratosphere. It is the point at which the standard lapse rate of 2c/1000ft goes to zero. The jet stream is found just at or under the tropopause consisting of strong headwinds or tailwinds.

58
Q

What is the definition of V1, VR and V2 speed?

A

V1 - Takeoff decision speed
VR - Rotate
V2 - Takeoff safety speed

59
Q

Does a SID guarantee obstacle clearance?

A

No, Only a DP and ODP guarantee obstacle clearance on departure.

60
Q

What is the lowest RVR available to AGS students as stated in the Ops Specs?

A

600, 600, 600ft. C078

61
Q

What is another word for charters in Part 121?

A

Supplemental

62
Q

What is the antidote for a dispatcher with a macho attitude?

A

Taking chances is foolish.

63
Q

What are the two biggest expenses for an airline?

A

Fuel and employee salary