Practice Oral #2 Flashcards

1
Q

A forward GC affects?

A

Flare capability, excessive tail down force required to stop nose from pitching forward.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does and aft CG affect?

A

Center of lift moves forward of CG as AoA increases = Instability. Faster cruise & less drag; better climb rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Why do we experience a longer takeoff run at high elevation airports?

A

The engines produce less power in less dense air. Cold air is more dense.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

As pressure increases with no temp change, what happens to density altitude?

A

Density altitude increases. Density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for temp, Higher OAT means higher pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is AoA?

A

The angle of the chord line of the wing and relative wind.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is ground effect?

A

Downwash.. results in a decrease in induced drag. Induced drag is caused by lift. Drag acts opposite to the direction of flight & is parallel to relative wind. The aircraft has a tendency to float along the runway at a high = to 1/2 wing length tip to tip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is standard SLP (Sea Level Pressure)

A

1013.2mb = 29.92 inches HG @ 59F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does the pitot probe measure?

A

The difference between dynamic & static pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is true altitude?

A

Height above sea level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is absolute altitude?

A

Height above ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the definition of service ceiling?

A

The altitude at which Rate of Climb = 100 fpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the different categories of aircraft?

A

Transport, Normal, Utility, Aerobatic, Standard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is load factor?

A

The ratio of specific load to total weight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What controls bank?

A

Ailerons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

For Altitude, rate of climb and decent, what is primary?

A

Power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Elevators are primary for…

A

Airspeed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

All winds in print are True or Magnetic?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the definition of night?

A

1hr after sunset to 1hr before sunrise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is pilotage and Dead Reckoning?

A

Pilotage - flight with reference to visual landmarks
Dead reckoning - Flight with reference to wind computations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is Coriolis effect?

A

Rotation of the earth causes wind deflection to the right in the northern hemisphere.
Centrifugal force + coriolis = gradient force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What causes advection fog? Where is it commonly found?

A

Warmer air moving over colder ground. San Francisco. Warm currents of the coast in winter flowing on show over colder ground.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Define Dewpoint and Humidity

A

Dewpoint - Temperature at which the air reaches water vapor saturation and precipitates
Humidity - Moisture in the air at a given temp in ration to the greatest possible saturation point reference “100%”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Three of the 6 basic flight instruments controlled by gyros are

A

Attitude indicator, heading indicator and turn indicator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Any rotating body exhibits gyroscopic properties according the laws of motion described by:

A

Newton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe gyroscopic inertia (Laws of Motion)

A

A body at rest will remain at rest; or if in motion in a straight line, it will continue in a straight line unless acted upon by an outside force

26
Q

What are the names of the high altitude clouds?

A

Cirrus, Cirro-cumulus, cirro-stratus starting at approx FL 200 and up

27
Q

Name the middle altitude clouds between 6,500 - FL 200

A

Alto- cumulus, alto-stratus-nimbo-stratus

28
Q

What do we call the low altitude clouds from the surface up to about 6,500ft?

A

Stratus (Stable)

29
Q

One NM is equal to _ SM

A

1.15 SM

30
Q

What is katabatic wind?

A

Any downslope wind. Santa Ana winds

31
Q

What is another word for Diurnal?

A

Daily. Diurnal variation is the change in temps from day to night due to rotation of the earth

32
Q

What are the standard reception distances for terminal, low and high altitude VORs?

A

Terminal VOR good to 12,000ft and 25mi
Low VOR good to FL 180 and 40mi
High VOR good to FL450 and 130mi

33
Q

What are the timeframes associated with MELs?

A

Cat A - cannot be extended, must fix now
Cat B - 3 consecutive days from discovery
Cat C - 10 consecutive days from discovery
Cat D - 120 consecutive days from discovery
Cat E - Maintenance

34
Q

An item is found inoperative while at gate. Which document is controlling?

A

Consult the MEL/CDL (Pilots will call MX control via Dispatch

35
Q

We are authorized to conduct what type of Part 121 operations?

A

Domestic, flag, supplemental. A001

36
Q

What is the ASAP program?

A

Aviation Safety Action Program

37
Q

Who can exercise emergency authority?

A

Pilots, dispatchers, company management, ATC

38
Q

High mins captains are those with how many hours in the left seat?

A

100 hours

39
Q

High mins captains must raise their minimums by how much at destinations and alternates?

A

Destination - min raised 100ft & 1/2 SM (2400 RVR)
Alternate - never less than 300 & 1SM

40
Q

What is SLP in the METAR remarks?

A

Sea Level Pressure - does not pertain to aviation. It is an average of the last 12 hours

41
Q

What is RNAV 1?

A

Aircraft must remain within +-1 NM of course centerline 95% of the time
RNAV 2 = 2 NM (Q Routes)
RNAV 3 = 3 NM
RNAV 4 = 4 NM (J Routes)

42
Q

What does your signature represent on the dispatch release?

A

Allows for legal (& safe) dispatch pending the signature of the captain.

43
Q

What are the 3 functions or responsibilities of the dispatchers?

A

Preflight planning, delays and dispatch.

44
Q

Which Part 121 operation(s) requires dispatchers?

A

Domestic & Flag

45
Q

How familiar must a dispatcher be with reported and forecast weather affecting his flights?

A

Thoroughly

46
Q

Which does your dispatcher certificate expire?

A

Never

47
Q

How long is a TAF valid for?

A

Issued 4x a day for 24 or 30hr periods

48
Q

What are the 3 types of AIRMETs?

A

Sierra (mountain obscured)
Tango (Turbulence)
Zulu (Icing)

49
Q

What is an example of Precision approach, list several non-precision approaches.

A

An ILS is a precision approach
Non-precision = NDB, VOR, SDF, LOC

50
Q

Can the B737-300 refuel in flight?

A

No

51
Q

What is the difference between DA an DH?

A

DA is based on sea level
DH is based on ground level

52
Q

What is a provisional airport?

A

One which is used in Iieu of the primary airport on a temp basis

53
Q

If the strobe associated with the approach lights is not working, are the approach minimums raised?

A

No

54
Q

At which point does an amendment become office enroute?

A

Which the dispatcher gives the PIC the time and his initials.

55
Q

How many hours can a dispatcher legally work in a 24hr period?

A

16

56
Q

What are the 4 fundamental risk elements in Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM)?

A

Pilot, aircraft, environment, mission.

57
Q

Do you dispatch to an airport or a runway?

A

To an airport

58
Q

When are sever weather watch bulletins issued?

A

They are unscheduled, issues as required

59
Q

When a fax replacement for a FAA certificate is received, how long is it valid?

A

60 days

60
Q

In what conditions would you not release an aircraft?

A

Lighting or thunderstorms at the airport, high crosswinds; MEL/CDL restrictions