Practice Oral #2

Question 1

A forward GC affects?

Answer 1

Flare capability, excessive tail down force required to stop nose from pitching forward.

Question 2

What does and aft CG affect?

Answer 2

Center of lift moves forward of CG as AoA increases = Instability. Faster cruise & less drag; better climb rate

Question 3

Why do we experience a longer takeoff run at high elevation airports?

Answer 3

The engines produce less power in less dense air. Cold air is more dense.

Question 4

As pressure increases with no temp change, what happens to density altitude?

Answer 4

Density altitude increases. Density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for temp, Higher OAT means higher pressure.

Question 5

What is AoA?

Answer 5

The angle of the chord line of the wing and relative wind.

Question 6

What is ground effect?

Answer 6

Downwash.. results in a decrease in induced drag. Induced drag is caused by lift. Drag acts opposite to the direction of flight & is parallel to relative wind. The aircraft has a tendency to float along the runway at a high = to 1/2 wing length tip to tip

Question 7

What is standard SLP (Sea Level Pressure)

Answer 7

1013.2mb = 29.92 inches HG @ 59F

Question 8

What does the pitot probe measure?

Answer 8

The difference between dynamic & static pressure.

Question 9

What is true altitude?

Answer 9

Height above sea level

Question 10

What is absolute altitude?

Answer 10

Height above ground

Question 11

What is the definition of service ceiling?

Answer 11

The altitude at which Rate of Climb = 100 fpm

Question 12

What are the different categories of aircraft?

Answer 12

Transport, Normal, Utility, Aerobatic, Standard

Question 13

What is load factor?

Answer 13

The ratio of specific load to total weight.

Question 14

What controls bank?

Answer 14

Ailerons

Question 15

For Altitude, rate of climb and decent, what is primary?

Answer 15

Power

Question 16

Elevators are primary for…

Answer 16

Airspeed

Question 17

All winds in print are True or Magnetic?

Answer 17

True

Question 18

What is the definition of night?

Answer 18

1hr after sunset to 1hr before sunrise

Question 19

What is pilotage and Dead Reckoning?

Answer 19

Pilotage - flight with reference to visual landmarks
Dead reckoning - Flight with reference to wind computations

Question 20

What is Coriolis effect?

Answer 20

Rotation of the earth causes wind deflection to the right in the northern hemisphere.
Centrifugal force + coriolis = gradient force

Question 21

What causes advection fog? Where is it commonly found?

Answer 21

Warmer air moving over colder ground. San Francisco. Warm currents of the coast in winter flowing on show over colder ground.

Question 22

Define Dewpoint and Humidity

Answer 22

Dewpoint - Temperature at which the air reaches water vapor saturation and precipitates
Humidity - Moisture in the air at a given temp in ration to the greatest possible saturation point reference “100%”

Question 23

Three of the 6 basic flight instruments controlled by gyros are

Answer 23

Attitude indicator, heading indicator and turn indicator

Question 24

Any rotating body exhibits gyroscopic properties according the laws of motion described by:

Answer 24

Newton

Question 25

Describe gyroscopic inertia (Laws of Motion)

Answer 25

A body at rest will remain at rest; or if in motion in a straight line, it will continue in a straight line unless acted upon by an outside force

Question 26

What are the names of the high altitude clouds?

Answer 26

Cirrus, Cirro-cumulus, cirro-stratus starting at approx FL 200 and up

Question 27

Name the middle altitude clouds between 6,500 - FL 200

Answer 27

Alto- cumulus, alto-stratus-nimbo-stratus

Question 28

What do we call the low altitude clouds from the surface up to about 6,500ft?

Answer 28

Stratus (Stable)

Question 29

One NM is equal to _ SM

Answer 29

1.15 SM

Question 30

What is katabatic wind?

Answer 30

Any downslope wind. Santa Ana winds

Question 31

What is another word for Diurnal?

Answer 31

Daily. Diurnal variation is the change in temps from day to night due to rotation of the earth

Question 32

What are the standard reception distances for terminal, low and high altitude VORs?

Answer 32

Terminal VOR good to 12,000ft and 25mi Low VOR good to FL 180 and 40mi High VOR good to FL450 and 130mi

Question 33

What are the timeframes associated with MELs?

Answer 33

Cat A - cannot be extended, must fix now Cat B - 3 consecutive days from discovery Cat C - 10 consecutive days from discovery Cat D - 120 consecutive days from discovery Cat E - Maintenance

Question 34

An item is found inoperative while at gate. Which document is controlling?

Answer 34

Consult the MEL/CDL (Pilots will call MX control via Dispatch

Question 35

We are authorized to conduct what type of Part 121 operations?

Answer 35

Domestic, flag, supplemental. A001

Question 36

What is the ASAP program?

Answer 36

Aviation Safety Action Program

Question 37

Who can exercise emergency authority?

Answer 37

Pilots, dispatchers, company management, ATC

Question 38

High mins captains are those with how many hours in the left seat?

Answer 38

100 hours

Question 39

High mins captains must raise their minimums by how much at destinations and alternates?

Answer 39

Destination - min raised 100ft & 1/2 SM (2400 RVR) Alternate - never less than 300 & 1SM

Question 40

What is SLP in the METAR remarks?

Answer 40

Sea Level Pressure - does not pertain to aviation. It is an average of the last 12 hours

Question 41

What is RNAV 1?

Answer 41

Aircraft must remain within +-1 NM of course centerline 95% of the time RNAV 2 = 2 NM (Q Routes) RNAV 3 = 3 NM RNAV 4 = 4 NM (J Routes)

Question 42

What does your signature represent on the dispatch release?

Answer 42

Allows for legal (& safe) dispatch pending the signature of the captain.

Question 43

What are the 3 functions or responsibilities of the dispatchers?

Answer 43

Preflight planning, delays and dispatch.

Question 44

Which Part 121 operation(s) requires dispatchers?

Answer 44

Domestic & Flag

Question 45

How familiar must a dispatcher be with reported and forecast weather affecting his flights?

Answer 45

Thoroughly

Question 46

Which does your dispatcher certificate expire?

Answer 46

Never

Question 47

How long is a TAF valid for?

Answer 47

Issued 4x a day for 24 or 30hr periods

Question 48

What are the 3 types of AIRMETs?

Answer 48

Sierra (mountain obscured) Tango (Turbulence) Zulu (Icing)

Question 49

What is an example of Precision approach, list several non-precision approaches.

Answer 49

An ILS is a precision approach Non-precision = NDB, VOR, SDF, LOC

Question 50

Can the B737-300 refuel in flight?

Answer 50

No

Question 51

What is the difference between DA an DH?

Answer 51

DA is based on sea level DH is based on ground level

Question 52

What is a provisional airport?

Answer 52

One which is used in Iieu of the primary airport on a temp basis

Question 53

If the strobe associated with the approach lights is not working, are the approach minimums raised?

Answer 53

No

Question 54

At which point does an amendment become office enroute?

Answer 54

Which the dispatcher gives the PIC the time and his initials.

Question 55

How many hours can a dispatcher legally work in a 24hr period?

Answer 55

16

Question 56

What are the 4 fundamental risk elements in Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM)?

Answer 56

Pilot, aircraft, environment, mission.

Question 57

Do you dispatch to an airport or a runway?

Answer 57

To an airport

Question 58

When are sever weather watch bulletins issued?

Answer 58

They are unscheduled, issues as required

Question 59

When a fax replacement for a FAA certificate is received, how long is it valid?

Answer 59

60 days

Question 60

In what conditions would you not release an aircraft?

Answer 60

Lighting or thunderstorms at the airport, high crosswinds; MEL/CDL restrictions