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Dispatch Oral > Practice Oral #4 > Flashcards

Practice Oral #4 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the worst weather to be avoided at all times?

A

Thunderstorms

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2
Q

How many basic types of frontal systems are there?

A
  1. Warm, cold, stationary and occluded
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3
Q

Describe the characteristics of a cold front.

A

Cumulonimbus clouds; clear icing; unstable; fast moving (up to 30kts); intermittent precip; covers a smaller geographical area than a warm front; may be proceeded by squall lines

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4
Q

What does the APU do?

A

Used for engine starts, pressurization, heading and cooling of the cabin in lieu of an engine

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5
Q

What is RVSM?

A

Reduced Vertical Separation Minimums, 1000ft from FL290 to FL410

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6
Q

How many hours of recurrent (Annual) training is required?

A

20hrs

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7
Q

What is vertical visibility as described in a METAR?

A

An indefinite ceiling preceded by VV & followed by 3 digits in hundreds of feet

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8
Q

What is a high mins captain

A

A junior captain with less than 100 hours in the left seat

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9
Q

What is an ATIS?

A

Automatic Terminal Information System - used to reduce frequency congestion

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10
Q

How many hours of initial training are required by the FAA at the arrival at your new job?

A

40hrs, reduceable to 32hrs with FAA approval

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11
Q

On a radar summary chart, what does NA and NE represent

A

NA - Not available
NE - No echoes

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12
Q

What weather phenomena do we find just below the tropopause?

A

The jet stream

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13
Q

What is the definition of a ceiling?

A

The height about the ground of the lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena reported as broken or overcast covering more than half the sky

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14
Q

What is indicated by a narrow temperature/dewpoint spread?

A

Fog is possible when the difference is less than 5 degrees F

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15
Q

Which MEL cat cannot be extended?

A

Cat A

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16
Q

If an item is found to be broken or inop at the gate or while taxiing, which document is consulted?

A

The MEL

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17
Q

The tower is closed, it is late at night. Can the pilots land?

A

Yes, if they have official weather

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18
Q

High mins captains at the destination must raise their minimums by how much?

A

100ft and 1/2SM (2400RVR)

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19
Q

What type of FPD are used on jets?

A

1, 2 and 4

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20
Q

When is an alternate required for supplemental flight?

A

At all times

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21
Q

If a departure alternate is required, within what time frame must it be within?

A

1 hour of the departure airport

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22
Q

Define the term “Marginal”

A

Applies to alternate airports, Airline defines the term. some use 3/4sm (4000 RVR) and some use the NWS term “LIFR” meaning 500ft and 1sm visibility. If the weather is at or below the designated value(s) an addition alternate must be selected.

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23
Q

Where do you find takeoff minimums for a specific runway?

A

Jepp 10-9A chart

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24
Q

The pilots report an engine failure in flight to you, As a dispatcher what are you responsibilities?

A

Suggest the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made, if the pilots have not already made that decision and diverted. You must contact the diversion airport and arrange a gate, possibly hotel rooms for crew and passengers, and or coordinate a company aircraft to that airport to pick up the passengers if it is a remote airport, contact MX control and advise the situation and inform your supervisor

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25
Q

Do we have authority in the AGS to fly to Canada, Mexico, Bahamas, or Alaska as a domestic flight?

A

No, we do not have ops specs A012

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26
Q

A landing requirement on a dry runway must be completed within 60% of the runway length. What is the wet runway penalty?

A

An additional 15% is added to the 60% requirement, it may be necessary to reduce the allowable landing weight

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27
Q

Pilots and dispatchers are responsible for:

A

Preflight, delay and dispatch release

28
Q

What is ORH?

A

Quick Reference Handbook, for use by the pilots in the cockpit for problems in flight.

29
Q

Where do we find the dispatch and flight release rules?

A

Part 121, subpart U

30
Q

In preflight planning for an alternate, the airport has only one straight-in ILS approach. What safety factor do you add to the approach minimums?

A

200ft to ceiling and 1/2 SM to visibility = 400 & 1
Ops Spec C055, GOM 8.4.6

31
Q

Where do we find a list of airports that we are approved to provide service?

A

Ops Spec C070

32
Q

How many parts to the Ops Specs and to what do they pertain?

A

3 sections: Part A General; Part B Enroute; Part C Terminal

33
Q

What is the fuel requirement for a domestic flight?

A

Fuel for the trip plus missed approach, fuel to the most distant alternate if required, plus fuel for 45 minutes

34
Q

Can the aircraft depart in moderate or heavy freezing rain?

A

No, but it can take off in light freezing rain

35
Q

Is mist (BR) considered to be a wet runway?

A

No, it is only a restriction to visibility. Fog is a wet runway condition, if the observer can see only up to 5/8 SM, then the condition is called fog. More than 5/8 SM up to 6 SM is considered mist.

36
Q

Which Part 121 operations do not require a dispatcher?

A

Supplemental and Commercial Operators.

37
Q

What information must you provide the pilots?

A

All available current reports on airport conditions & irregularities of VNAVAIDS that affect safety. Also all available weather reports/forecasts on the route and the airports to be used. During flight, updates on weather and airport conditions.

38
Q

Which regulation governs dispatcher schools and their training programs?

A

Part 65

39
Q

What are the Part 121 requirements for you to operate as a dispatcher at an air carrier?

A

Part 121.422 - Initial & Ground Training ( 40hrs)
Part 121.427 - Recurrent Training (20hrs/year)
Part 121.463 - Dispatcher Qualifications

40
Q

When does your dispatcher certificate expire?

A

Never

41
Q

What are the characteristics of a high pressure system

A

A center of pressure surrounded on all sides by lower pressure, rotating clockwise and decending

42
Q

How does fog form?

A
  1. by cooling air to its dewpoint
  2. by adding moisture to the air near the ground
43
Q

How long is a METAR valid?

A

It is only valid at the time of the report & normally updated every hour.

44
Q

How long is a TAF valid?

A

Issued 4x a day for 24 or 30 hours depending on airport

45
Q

What is the CCFP?

A

Collaborative Convective Forecast Product - Issued 2, 4 or 6 hours with polygons showing convective activity and a forecast where thunderstorms will be in the next 1-2 hours

46
Q

How many types of satellite imagery are available?

A

3, Visible, infrared, and water vapor

47
Q

How does a turbine engine work?

A

Suck, Squeeze, Bang, Blow

48
Q

How does the aircraft obtain AC and DC electrical power?

A

Primary power from 2 AC engine-driven generators & the APU, DC power comes from batteries and transformers which convert 115 AC to 28v DC

49
Q

What emergency equipment is on board the aircraft?

A

Life rafts, life preservers, megaphones, crash ax, first aid kits, slides, floor & internal general lighting, exit signs, flares, ELT, oxygen masks, fire extinguishers, fire detectors, instruction cards

50
Q

Describe Method I vs Method II drift down.

A

1 method requires rerouting the aircraft around high terrain & high MEAs, the other method allows reduced payloads on high MEAs over mountains. The concern is the loss of an engine.

51
Q

What is Class I and Class II navigation?

A

Class I allows for operation within the service volume of land-based NAVAIDS, you can fly up to one hour beyond that range as long as you can fix your position in one hour with a land-based NAVAID. Class II is operation of the aircraft beyond the service volume of land-based NAVAIDS. You can operate GPS in Class I airspace but you must always have 2 VORs ON as back up. Ops Spec A002

52
Q

Besides a comp check upon initial or recurrent training, what other requirement must be met?

A

Familiarization ride is required with 90 days for a total of 5 hours observing cockpit operations.

53
Q

Can the pilots accept a LAHSO clearance?

A

No, it is not allowed in our ops spec

54
Q

Can we operate in Class G airspace to or from an airport?

A

Yes, if we meet 4 conditions.
1. The airport has instrument approach
2. An official source of weather
3. Traffic advisories and status of services and facilities
is available
4. Facilities and services exist to safely conduct IFR
operations

55
Q

With 3 transmissometers (RVRs), which one is controlling?

A

TDZ is controlling, Mid and roll-out are advisory

56
Q

What requirement must be met for a PIC to conduct and instrument approach with RVR of less than 400?

A

Minimum of 100hrs in left seat, he is qualified for jet lower minimums less than 4000 RVR (3/4SM) if:
a) the runway has precision instrument (all weather)
runway markings or centerline lights
b) performance data is based on a wet runway

57
Q

When a significant delay, reroute, or change of cruise altitude occurs (not in the original release), the PIC must notify the dispatcher. Define “Significant”

A
  1. Delay of more than 15 min from ETA
  2. More than 100 NM off course
  3. More than 4000 ft from planned cruise altitude
58
Q

Who can initiate an amendment?

A

Captain and dispatcher

59
Q

A domestic flight stops at an enroute airport and is delayed with a MX issue. When does the release expire?

A

60 min after landing

60
Q

A MX issue is discovered on preflight and a mechanic is called to the aircraft which requires a logbook entry. The mechanic can only do 2 things

A

1: repair the item in question
2: defer the item (DMI) for later MX per the MEL

61
Q

Prior to departure the destination was forecast to be VFR. Upon arrival the runways are wet. Can the crew land?

A

Yes, they must add 15% to the actual landing distance

62
Q

What significant weather must be recorded in the aircraft logbook?

A

Sever or extreme turbulence and lightning strikes. MX will inspect the aircraft to determine airworthiness

63
Q

Can a landing be made when in receipt of a “nil’ breaking action report for the runway in use?

A

No, if from a reliable source (another airline pilot or airport manager)

64
Q

What is the ARFF index?

A

Airport Rescue Fire-Fighting equipment requirements for an air carrier airport

65
Q

How long does an unissued departure clearance remain active in the FAA computer before being automatically deleted by ATC?

A

1 hour. The pilot or dispatcher must ask ATC to keep it open before the “dead drop” time.

Dispatch Oral (5 decks)

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