Practice Questions 1 Flashcards
1
Q
A decrease of ___ causes an increase in radiographic density?
A
Source-film distance
2
Q
Each of the following is an electromagnetic radiation except one.. which one?
Radar X-rays Alpha rays Gamma rays Visible light
A
Alpha rays
3
Q
What are the physical symptoms in the eyes in a severe CNS oxygen deprived patient?
A
Dilated pupils with an absence of light reflex
4
Q
What is the major route of excretion of penicillin V? F
A
Secretion not metabolized in the urine
5
Q
What space management treatment should be planned for a child age 4, missing both primary mandibular first molars with no primate space present? Why?
A
Bilateral band and loops
The mandibular permanent incisors are not present
6
Q
Each of the following characterizes an IMPENDING insulin shock except one. Which one?
Weakness
Convulsions
Mental confusion
Cold perspiration
A
Convulsions
7
Q
Why is ethyl alcohol a good antidote for methanol poisoning?
A
It inhibits methanol metabolism
It competes successfully with methanol for alcohol dehydrogenase
It prevents formation of formaldehyde
It prevents damage to the optic nerve
8
Q
Each of the following nonsedating antihistamines would be contraindicated in an individual taking cimetidine for heartburn except one. Which one?
Astemizole (hismanal) Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) Fexofenadine (Allegra) Hydroxyzine (vistaril) Terfenadine (seldane)
A
Fexofenadine (Allegra)
9
Q
Which of the following is a LOCAL contraindication for the surgical removal of an impacted tooth?
A nonvital tooth Fever of unknown origin A history of bleeding disorder An undiagnosed ulcer in the oral cavity Pale gingiva with hx of anemia
A
An undiagnosed ulcer in the oral cavity
10
Q
What property increases when the intermediate chain of a local anesthetic drug is lengthened?
A
Potency
11
Q
Alveoplasty following closed extraction is usually performed with ___
A
Fingers
12
Q
True or false… periosteal elevators can be used to luxate teeth
A
False
13
Q
The fenestration technique for mandibular vestibuloplasty is based on the premise that the mucosal attachment will…
A
Not cross a fibrous scar band
14
Q
What is a constitutional symptom?
A
Constitutional symptoms refers to a group of symptoms that can affect many different systems of the body. Examples include weight loss, fevers, chills, headache, fevers of unknown origin,
15
Q
What is the most commonly used surgical procedure to correct maxillary retrognathia?
A
Le Fort 1 osteotomy
16
Q
In the preauricular approach to the TMJ, which anatomic structure, if damaged, presents the potential for the greatest morbidity?
A
Facial nerve
17
Q
How does the growth of the cranial base generally relate in time to the growth of the jaws?
A
It precedes it
18
Q
Which flap design allows the best surgical access to the apical aspect of a tooth root with the least reflection of soft tissue?
A
Semilunar
19
Q
Principles for managing a localized alveolar osteitis after extraction of a mandibular first molar include each of the following besides one. Which one?
Flushing out debris with normal saline solution
Curetting the honey wall to promote bleeding
Placing a sedative dressing in the socket to protect exposed bone
Administring mild analgesic drugs as an adjunct to local treatment
A
Curetting the bony wall to promote bleeding
20
Q
Define “temporomandibular Disorders”
A
A collective term for a hetorgenous group of musculoskeletal disorders varying etiologies that present with similar signs and symptoms
21
Q
Describe the proper preprosthetic surgical procedure of moderate-sized mandibular lingual tori removal.
A
The tori should be removed by grooving teh superior surface then shearing the torus off with a mono-beveled chisel. The area is then smoothed with a bone file
22
Q
True or false… xenografts are frequently used n mandibular reconstruction
A
False
23
Q
When a patient bites on a hard object on the left mandibular molar, the inter articular pressure of the right TMJ is ___
A
Decreased
24
Q
True or false.. when administering inhalation sedation, the patient should remove contact lenses. The initial flow rate of oxygen should be at least 6L/min. As the flow of nitrous oxide through the mixing dial style unit is increased, the flow rate of oxygen is reduced so the correct percentage of each is delivered at a constant flow rate.
A
True
25
Each of the following is a common cause of postsurgical atelectasis (decreased expansion of the alveoli) except one. Which is the exception?
Shallow inspirations
Pain-limiting movement
Inactivity after surgery
Preoperative respiratory infection
Narcotic analgesic that depresses the respiratory drive
Inactivity after surgery
26
Which of the following antibiotics has been implicated in the vast majority of cases of oral contraceptive failure during antibiotic use?
```
Penicillin
Rifampin
Keflex
Erythromycin
Tetracycline
```
Rifampin
27
What is the main function of the liner used in a casting ring?
Allow uniform and uninhibited setting expansion of the investment
28
True or false... rubber dams in endodontic treatment can not be used if the patient is informed and consents.
False. A rubber dam is always an essential component of endodontics
29
What is an acronym for a marketing strategy to use for reluctant patients?
OPTIMEM
```
Objectives
Patients
Tools
Incurred Costs
Message
Everyone
Monitoring
```
30
Spontaneous gingival hemorrhage or acute stomatitis, observedin a pediatric patient under treatment for absence seizures, indicates withdrawal of the anticonvulsant ___.
Valproic acid
31
Back pressure porosity is evidenced by...
Often evidenced by rounded margins on the casting
32
What is the main metabolite of ingested isopropyl alcohol?
Acetone
33
Larger condensers and laterally applied condensation forces are recommended to ensure complete condensation of which type of amalgam? F
Spherical
34
Compressing the acrylic resin in a rubbery stage will probably result in...
Incomplete filling of the model details
35
Why are properly designed rests on the lingual surface of a canine preferred to a properly designed rest on the incisal surface?
Less leverage is exerted against the tooth by the lingual rest
36
What is the main metabolite of ingested isopropyl alcohol?
Acetone
37
What is the main disadvantage of glass ionomer cement?
Moisture sensitivity during initial set
38
The base of the incision in the gingivectomy technique is located [above/below] the mucogingival junction
Above
39
The most important anticoagulant effect of heparin is to interfere with the conversion of __ to ___
Fibrinogen to fibrin
40
When determine the appropriate does of systemic fluoride supplements for a child, it is most important for the density to consider what?
The child’s age and the fluoride content of the drinking water
41
What is the drug of choice to treat overdosage with tricyclic antidepressants?
Phystostigmine
42
Drug interaction resulting in serious adverse cardiovascular events, including death, might occur between erythromycin and what antihistamine drug?
Terfenadine
43
What is the proper way to clean up a mercury spill in the lab or office?
Aspirating the mercury into a wash bottle trap, then dusting the spill area with sulfur powder
44
Name the 4 parts of a prescription
Superscription
Inscription
Subscription
Transcription
(Note that conscription is not)
45
Inhalation of amyl nitrate can result in each of the following except one. Which one?
Tachycardia
Coronary artery dilation
Peripheral arterial dilation
A decrease in arterial blood pressure
Increased motility of the small bowel
Increased motility of the small bowel
46
Prolonged use of amyl nitrite may result in...
Methemoglobinemia
47
True or false... organophosphates are readily absorbed through the skin
True
48
When high gold content alloys are compared to base metal alloys, the base metal alloys exhibit [higher/lower] melting point, [increased/decreased] specific gravity, and generally [higher/lower] yield strength and hardness
Higher
Decreased
Higher
49
The central skeletal muscle relaxation produced by depressing the polysynatpic reflex arcs is brought about by all of the following drugs except...
Diazepam
Lorazepam
Meprobamate
D-tubocurarine
D-tubocurarine
50
The cardiac glycosides will reduce the concentration of which ion in an active heart muscle cells?
Potassium
51
Which of the following drugs is excreted primarily by renal tubular secretion?
Benzylpenicillin
Streptomycin
Tetracycline
Bacitracin
Benzylpenicillin
52
How many days before dental surgery do you need to stop aspirin?
7-10 days
53
Infection of the ___ space causes severe trismus WITHOUT any obvious clinical swelling
Pterygomandibular
54
What is the drug used to treat overdose of meperidine?
Naloxone
55
What is the function of a hex in an implant?
Anti rotational device
56
What is the mechanism of sulphonylureas?
Directly stimulate the pancreas to secrete insulin
57
What are the primary bacterial invaders that cause pulpal infections?
Facultative aerobes
58
Which bacterial type is found in causing severe spreading abscesses?
Bacteroides?
59
Which malocclusion is most difficult to take a centric relation record?
Class 3 malocclusion
60
Acidulated phosphate fluoride solutions must be stored in __ containers.
Polyethelene
61
True or false... Tachycardia is a side effect of nitrous oxide
True
62
What is the major reason for polishing amalgam?
Reduce potential for plaque accumulation
63
What is the max % of N2O for a child?
50%
64
Accepted technique or the reduced pocket depth includes osseous surgery. True or false.
False?
65
What does the W on the rubber dam clamp stand for?
Wingless
66
What is the LEAST common congenitally missing tooth?
Canine
67
Define dehisense
The loss of buccal or lingual bone overlying a tooth root
68
Define collimation
The accurate adjustment of the line of sight of a telescope
control of size and shape of X-ray beam
69
After periodontal surgery what type of healing occurs most of the time?
Repair
70
What is the biggest risk in performing a BSSO (bilateral split sagital osteotomy)
Paresthesia
71
What is the best treatment for a tooth with an existing RCT and a class 3 furcation?
Split in two as two premolars (hemisection)
72
True or false... GTR is a favorable treatment in class 3 furcations
False. It is not an option
73
True or false... diazepam is contraindicated in pregnancy
True
74
What tissue type is least sensitive to xrays?
Muscle
75
What syndrome is characterized by rapid loss of teeth and hyperkeratosis of hands and feet?
Papillon Lefevre Syndrome
76
What is an intrabony defect?
Same as infrabony, vertical bone loss
77
What are the purposes of bleeding spots in the gingivectomy procedure?
Outline the incision line
78
What tissues are involved in periodontal regeneration?
Cementum
PDL
Bone
79
True or false... with successful RCT,some dentin regeneration is expected.
False. Not dentin is regenerated. Bone may be regenerated though
80
Of the following, which is not considered as increased risk of oral cancer?
HPV
HIV
Alcohol
Tobacco
HIV
81
If bone is kept at ___ degrees for over 1 minute it can cause necrosis.
55C
82
True or false... demineralized, freeze dried bone has BMP in it
True (BMP = bone morphogenic proteins)
83
What syndrome is characterized by lysosome storage disease, abdominal hernias, ear infections, colds, prominent forehead, enlarged tongue, mental retardation?
Hunter Syndrome
84
True or false.. children with autism frequently display repetitive behavior
True
85
What odontogenic tumor/cyst has the largest incidence of recurrence?
OKC
86
What is the mechanism of most drugs that treat arrhythmias?
Decreases repolarization rate, prolongs refractory period
87
If a patient is taking saw palmetto, what drug should you avoid?
Aspirin
88
If a patient is taking ginseng what drug should you avoid?
Warfarin
89
What portion of the curette should be in contact at the line angle?
Lower 1/3 edge
90
True or false... sodium hypochlorite is not a chelating agent
True
91
true or false... after a drug goes through the liver it becomes more water soluble and less lipid soluble
True
92
At which point should you restore a carious lesion?
halfway through enamel
Cavitated
To CEJ
Can see radiographically
Cavitated
93
Which pemphigoid like lesion is most often seen in infants?
Pemphigus vulgaris
94
True or false... nasiolabial cysts cannot be seen radiographically
True they cannot
95
Which primary tooth is more important the primary first or second molar
Second
96
Who do you report potential cross reactions of drugs to?
The FDA
97
What form of mercury is the worst for humans?
Methylmercury (organic mercury)
98
Which location is the most successful spot for dental implants?
Anterior mandible (posterior mandible has insufficient blood flow)
99
What is the absolute maximum amount of NO that should be given to an adult patient?
70%
100
What is neuropraxia?
Transient episode of motor paralysis with little or no sensory or autonomic dysfunction. Neurapraxia describe nerve damage in which there is no disruption of the nerve or its sheath
101
What is first pass metabolism?
A process in which a drug adminstered orally is absorbed from the GI tract and transported via portal vein to the liver where it is metabolized. As a result, only a small amount of the active drug reaches systemic circulation.
102
How can first pass metabolism be avoided?
If the drug is administered sublingually
103
Phenothiazine bloods __ receptors
Dopamine D2
104
Which is more abrasive, amalgam, composite, or enamel?
Amalgam
105
You have a pt with a composite filling that complains of pain to cold on chewing. You ditch out the fillin with a bur and now the patient is out of pain. What was the cause of pain?
Polymerization shrinkage
106
Silver turns porcelain what color?
Green
107
A child that has cleft lip and cleft palate most likely has what class of malocclusion?
Class 3
108
What connects the major connector to occlusal rests?
Minor connectors
109
What is the most important in selecting a shade?
Value (light-darkness)
110
What is the most common medical emergency in the dental office?
Syncope
111
What are the symptoms of Ludwig’s angina?
Swelling, pain, and raising of the tongue. Swelling of the neck and the tissues of the submandibular and sublingual spaces, malaise, fever, dysphagia, and in severe cases, stridor (difficultly breathing)
Trismus is not a symptom
112
What type of malocclusion is most prone to breaking their anterior teeth?
Class 2 division 1 (incisors flared forward)
113
True or false... disinfection successfully destroys the majority of microorganisms including bacterial spores
False.. although they do destroy the majority of microorganisms, they do not destroy bacterial spores
114
ANUG usually occurs in individuals between ages __ and ___. It is also called ____ and ___. It results in punched out papilla, fetid odor, pseduomembrane, and is caused by what bacteira?
Prevotella intermedia
115
True or false... AIDS pts are protected under the american with disabilities act
True
116
____ is a genetic disorder that results in the buildup of mucopolysaccharides due to a deficiency of alpha-L iduronidase, and enzyme responsible for the degeneration of mucopolysaccaries in lysosomes. Without this enzyme, a build up of heparin sulfate and dermatan sulfate occurs in the body
Hurlers syndrome
117
Define specificity. What is the difference between specificity and sensitivity?
Proportion of truly non diseased persons who are so identified by a screening test (measures how good a test is at correctly identifying non diseased persons). Sensitivity tests identify diseased persons.
118
# Define the following.
Beneficence
Pt autonomy
Nonmaleficence
Justice
Veracity
Jurisprudence
Do good
Self governance
“Do no harm”. Dentists are to keep skills and knowledge up-to-date and practice within their limits in order to protect the pt from harm
Fairness
Truthfulness
The therapy and philosophy of law
119
Why do pregnant patients need to lie on their left side?
Pregnant lying on back will constrict the inferior vena cava
120
In radiology, blocking material is made of ___ while filtration material is made of ___
Lead
Aluminum
121
What will increasing trituration time do?
Working time decreases
Setting contraction increases
Compressive strength increases with lathecut. It decreases with spherical.
Creep increases
122
What is the BULL rule?
Selective grinding
Buccal of uppers and lingual of lowers should be adjusted
Selective grinding should occur before final restorations
123
What does longer spatulation time of gypsum do?
Greater expansion and shorter working/setting time
124
True or false... prevotella intermedia is a spirochete
False. It is a rod
125
How long should you wait after indirect pulp capping to re-evaluate?
6-8 weeks
126
What is the number one reason for implant failure?
Surgical technique
127
True or false... an HMO insurance policy is a capitation plan
True
A capitated contract is a healthcare plan that allows payment of a flat fee for each patient it covers. Under a capitated contract, an HMO or managed care organization pays a fixed amount of money for its members to the health care provider.
128
What is the main reason why we want the proximal clearances both facially and lingually in class 2 amalgam prep?
For better access for cleaning
129
The strength of zinc oxide eugenol can be increased by adding ____
PolyMethylmethacrylate
130
Which type of impression material is the most difficult to remove from the oral cavity?
Polyether
131
What is chlorpeniramine and what is it used to treat?
Antihistamine - Treats dermatological manifestions of allergic reactions.
132
What is chlorpromazine?
Antipsychotic
Inhibits dopaminergic receptor, same group as phenothiazine and haloperidol
133
True or false... diazepam has no effect on respiration’s as opposed to other benzodiazepines
True
134
What is hydroxyzine used to treat?
Antihistamine that is used as a Antianxiety in children. Can be used in the with general anesthesia before medical procedures. Fast clearance with low side effects
135
What tooth has the most consistent root canal shape?
Maxillary canine
136
A pt needs to get renal dialysis. When should oral surgery be performed on this patient?
The day AFTER renal dialysis
137
What drug class is nifedipine?
Calcium channel blocker (causes gingival hyperplasia)
138
True or false... amantadine is an antiviral agent
True
139
What is the mechanism of antihistamines?
Competitively block histamine receptors
140
What type of periodontal incision is used for gingivectomy procedures with excess gingiva ONLY?
External bevel
141
What is another name for Steven Johnson’s syndrome?
Erythema multiform Major
Often due to a reaction to medications and/or infections
142
With asthma do you hear wheezing upon inhalation or exhale?
Exhalation
143
Implants should be placed at least ___mm apart from each other
3mm
144
What is a normal, healthy T cell count?
500-1500units/ml
145
Pt’s viral load was 100,000 units/ml and T cell count was 50. The T cell count is too [high/low]
Low
146
A pt has a hypocalcified permanent maxillary central incisor. When did this occur?
6months - 3 years
147
A pt recently had parotid surgery and has problems on one side of their face when they eat. They have ___ syndrome.
Frey’s syndrome
148
A pt is in mixed dentition is end to end. What type of occlusion will this result in permanent dentition?
Class 1
149
What material is in reinforced IRM that gives it strength?
Poly methyl methacrylate
150
A pt has an implant. How do the connective tissue and epithelial attachment compare to a normal tooth?
Epithelium is the same but the connective tissue connection is different
151
True or false... BOP is less reliable of indication in an implant than in a natural tooth
True
Bleeding is unrelated to the amount of inflammation in the peri implant site
152
What are the differences between a tooth and an implant in regards to the epithelial and CT attachment?
CT attachement in natural tooth is perpendicular and inserts to the cementum. In an implant the collagen is parallel to the implant.
Epithelial attachment in natural tooth JE is from REE. It is from adjacent oral epithelial in an implant.
153
What is a sign that a pt is having a laryngeal spasm?
Stridor
154
Pt is taking dicumoral. What are they being treated for?
Myocardial infarction
155
Which of the following is most likely to develop from a dentigerous cyst?
AOT
Ameloblastoma
Ameloblastic fibroma
Ameloblastoma
156
Which antibiotic does NOT inhibit cell wall synthesis?
Amoxicillin
Vancomycin
Azithromycin
Azithromycin
157
Where is a maxillary 3rd molar most likely to be displaced?
Infratemporal fossa
Maxillary sinus
Maxillary sinus
Infratemporal fossa is possible yet rare
158
Pt has veneers from 6-11, which fluoride should be used so you do not stain their teeth?
Standouts fluoride
Sodium fluoride
Acid fluoride
Sodium fluoride
159
____ is a pathology found at the floor of mouth and is doughy in consistancy
Dermoid cyst
160
Describe the action of clotrimazole
Alters teh enzyme for synthesis of ergosterol which in turn alters the cell membrane permeability
161
What is the mechanism of action of zafirlukast?
Nonsteroidal for prevention and treatment of asthma
162
An outlier has the greatest effect on which statistical component?
Mode
Mean
Median
Standard error
Standard error
163
What is the most common tooth associated with cracked tooth syndrome?
Mandibular second molars > mandibular first molars > maxillary premolars
164
What is the purpose of oil in the X-ray tube?
Cools off the anode
165
What is the best way to prevent speech problems in complete dentures?
Keep teeth in the same position as before
166
Which teeth should you perform pulp evaluation on?
Tooth in question, neighboring teeth, contralateral tooth
167
Which one is a schedule 2 drugs?
Percocet
Darvon 4
Vicodin 3
Ultram
Tylenol 3
Percocet
168
Which of the following is affected by imbibition and syneresis the most?
Reversible hydrocolloid
Impression compound
Polysulfide
Silicone
Reversible hydrocolloid
169
What is the best local anesthetic to use without vasoconstrictor?
Mepivicaine (carbocaine)
170
When uprighting molars with lingual arch with omega loops, you should be careful not to ___
Flare Mandibular incisors
171
A pt with localized aggressive periodontitis should rinse with ___
Chlorhexidine
and take systemic antibiotics***
172
What is the most common nonodontogenic cyst?
Nasopalatine duct cyst
173
All of the following are associated with perio problems except...
Steven-Johnson syndrome
Pap-lefeve syndrome
Down syndrome
Hypophosphatasia
Hypophosphatasia
174
What is ethosuximide used to treat?
Petit mal seizures
175
____ is a lesion that resembles SCC, then after ~16 weeks disappears..
Papilloma
Keratoacanthoma
Papillary hyperplasia
Keratoacanthoma
176
A maxillary 2nd premolar has no apical pathossis, final RCT is performed and was 1mm away from apex. 1 year recall shows 5m radiolucency. What do you do?
Retreat?
177
What is the purpose of inorganic pyrophosphates in toothpaste?
Acts as a tartar control agent, serving to remove calcium and magnesium from saliva and thus preventing them from being deposited on teeth
178
True or false... immunofluorescne is used for the diagnosis of pemphigus
True
179
What is cicatricial pemphigoid?
Another name for mucous membrane pemphigoid
180
What is the most common reason for porcelain fracture? (Due to lab error)
Contaminant metal before opaque layer
181
What causes a “crowing” sound?
Laryngeal spasms
182
At which step of denture process should you check phonetics?
Wax try in
183
Describe the mechanism of action of benzodiazepines.
Facilitates GABA receptor binding by increasing the frequency of chloride channel opening
184
When does a permanent 1st molar complete calcification?
30-36 months
185
What is the phone number for memorizing tooth eruption for maxilla?
781 - 0062
186
What is the phone number for memorizing the eruption pattern for mandible?
679 - 0161
187
When do the permanent central incisors start calcification?
~16 weeks
188
Why isn’t sulfonylureas prescribed to type 1 diabetic patients?
They dont have beta cells for insulin production
189
What are the landmarks for the fox plane?
Lower alla to upper Travis = campers plane
Interpupular line
190
In a radiograph, what aspect of caries are visible?
Demineralization
191
What is the greatest cause for implant failure?
Smoking?
192
What causes most vertical root fractures?
Condensation of gutta percha
193
Describe each type of amelogensis imperfecta
Hypoplastic - pitting enamel
Hypomature - brown molding, snow capped mountains
Hypocalcified - soft, flakes off, normal looking
194
What is the main disadvantage to CT graft?
Two surgical sites
195
What type of flap do you use for crown lengthening?
Apically repositioned flap
196
Name some physical characteristics of Down syndrome
Small maxilla
Large tongue
Crowding
Small teeth, short roots
Heart problems (mitral valve)
Cleft lip/palate
197
What causes pink tooth mummery?
Internal resorption
198
Nuchal rigidity is a third sign used to diagnose ____
Meningitis
199
Which permanent tooth has the most prominent cervical bulge?
Mandibular molar
200
Why use nonrigid fixed retainers in a bridge?
Pier-pier-pier
Correct path of insertion
201
What is isorbide used for?
Angina pectoris/congestive heart failure
202
What is probantine?
Antisialoguge
203
What three things are associated with Pierre robin syndrome?
Micrognathia
Cleft palate
Glossoptosis
204
True or false... regional odontodysplasia is nonheriditary
True it is not
205
____ is associated with ghost teeth and affects one quadrant at a time
Odontoregional dysplasia (regional odontodysplasia)
206
When suturing, do you suture from movable to fixed, or fixed to movable tissue?
Movable to fixed.
207
Where is the most likely area to perforate a maxillary central in RCT?
Facial
208
Where is the most likely surface to perforate in RCT of maxillary 1st premolar?
Mesial
209
Implants should be placed with [high/low] torque and [high/low] speed
High
Low
210
True or false... radiation therapy can cause dyguesia
True (alteration to sense of taste (probably in part to hyposalivation))
211
What is the most common malocclusion?
Class 2 division 1
212
When extracting upper molars, should you extract from third molar to first or first to third? Why?
Third molar moving anterior
To decrease chance of tuberosity fracture
213
In ___ disease, you have “teeth floating in air”
Langerhans cell disease
214
What is the best way to avoid root caries?
Maintaining perio attachment
215
What causes contraction of amalgam?
Tin
216
What causes delay of expansion of amalgam? Creep
Zinc
217
What two syndromes are characterized by multiple supernumerary teeth?
Gardner syndrome (and odontomas)
Cleidocranial dysplasia
218
The bull lesion or target iris is seen in ____
Erythema multiforme
219
Why are filters used in radiology?
Remove low energy photons
220
What is the purpose of intensifying screens in readiology?
To reduce pt dose
