Practice Questions 2 Flashcards
1
Q
What term is used to describe HIV gingivitis?
A
Linear gingival erythema
2
Q
What is a Stephan plot?
A
Measures the PH changes on tooth enamel surface
3
Q
True or false… Paget’s disease is a premalignant precursor for osteosarcoma
A
True
4
Q
Actinic chelitis is a premalignant precursor for ___
A
SCC
5
Q
Which type of basal cell nevus is premalignant?
A
Junctional type
6
Q
Multiple osteomas in the skull is likely due to ___ syndrome
A
Gardner’s
7
Q
Positive nikolsky sign is indicative of ___
A
Phemphigus vulgaris
8
Q
Dentists who work with HEMA can have what kind of complication?
A
Contact dermatitis
9
Q
Which of the following is an endocrine involvements that is related to jaw deformity?
Acromegaly
Paget’s disease
Cherubim
Albrite’s
A
Acromegaly
10
Q
What is the cause of verrucs xanthoma?
A
Human papilloma virus
11
Q
What is the drug of choic for pulpal invovlentn?
A
Pen v
12
Q
Name one potassium sparring chlorothiazide.
A
Spirolacton
13
Q
What groups of muscles influence the lingual border of the final impression for an edentulous patient?
A
Superior constrictor
Mylohyoid
Genioglossus
14
Q
When pt closes and there is only 1mm between retromolar pad and tuberosity, what should you do for the denture?
A
Refer pt for tuberosity reduction
15
Q
Define adjunctive orthodontic tx.
A
Ortho Tx to enhance restorative and perio rehabilitation
16
Q
Pts with natural dentitions generate the greates amount of occlusal force during ___
A
Parafunctional movement
17
Q
A dentist notices an increase of diseases, this is an increase in [incidence/prevalence].
A
Incidence
18
Q
How do you treat a nasopalatine duct cyst?
A
Palatal flap approach
19
Q
How does caries detecting dye differentiate between infected and affected dentin?
A
It bonds to denatured collagen
20
Q
Cri-du-chat syndrome is loss part of chromosome __ and results in j___
A
5
Cleft palate
21
Q
What is the Johnston Tanaka space analysis?
A
Predicts size of unerupted canines and premolars
You take 1/2 the width of the 4 mandibular incisors and add 10.5 to be mandibular canine and premolars in one quadrant. If you add 11 you get the maxillary canine and pm’s in 1 quad
22
Q
List most common impacted teeth to least common.
A
Mandibular 3rd molars
Maxillary 3rd molars
Maxillary canine
Mandibular canine
23
Q
What disease is associated with bence jones proteins?
A
Multiple myeloma
24
Q
True or false… Rogain (for hair loss) is a category C (for birth defects)
A
True
25
What is the ideal percentage of the alar of the nose to the face?
20%
It is split into 5ths
26
What does hypnosis affect?
Voluntary muscle
Involuntary muscle
Both voluntary and involuntary muscle
Organs and glands
Glands only
Voluntary and involuntary
27
Pt is taking INH. They have ___
TB
INH = isoniazid
28
What is the etiology of Stillman’s cleft?
Traumatic occlusion
29
Why are sealants most likely to come off?
Not placing correctly (no isolation)
30
What is the purpose of paining material on the die for a crown?
To allow room for the cement
31
What should you do with an infected stensons’s duct?
Take a sialogram
32
How does the RINN kit system help get better radiographs?
More parallel and perpendicular
33
What is a median palatal cyst and what is the treatment?
On the palate distal to the incisive foramen. Rare
Treat with surgical excision or marsupealzation
34
What is the best cement to use when placing a PFM crown?
RMGI
35
What is the main advantage of a Maryland bridge? Main disadvantage?
Advantage = conserves tooth structure
Disadvantage = debonding
36
A patient had a needle stick and tested by ELISA for HIV. What are they looking for?
Antibody to HIV
37
Which antibiotic has very serious side effects if used with alcohol?
Metronidazole
38
How does the DEA schedule drugs?
Based upon abuse potential
39
Name two antiplatelet drugs.
Aspirin
Plavix (clopidogrel)
40
what is Frey’s syndrome?
Sweating and flushing of a patch of skin near the ear that occurs when someone is eating.
Frey's syndrome is a rare complication of surgery or an injury of the salivary (parotid) gland in the cheek.
41
What is the daily % of calories from fat per day?
30%
42
The mandible usually stops remodeling at
8 years of age
12 years of age
18 years of age
None of the above
None of the above
43
At birth, which dimension of the face is greatest?
Width
44
Deposition of dye in animal bone growth studies is known as ___
Vital staining
45
After a tooth has been moved from one position to another, the resulting bone is termed ___
Transitional bone
46
What is the most stable point in a growing skull from a cephalometric standpoint?
Sella turcica, the center of the the pituitary fossa in the cranial base
47
What is a good method for determining the location of growth sites in the growing monkey skull?
By injecting alizarin red dye and sacrificing the animal later
48
At birth, which of the following structures is farthest from the size it will eventually be in adulthood?
Cranium
Nasal capsule
Middle face
Mandible
Mandible
49
Additional space for the eruption of succeeding maxillary molars is made by... (multiple answers)
Continuous expansion of dental arch
Downward and forward displacement of the maxillary complex
Interstitial bone growth
Appositional growth at the maxillary tuberosity
Increase in palatal vault height
Downward and forward displacement of the maxillary complex
Appositional growth at the maxillary tuberosity
50
Growth sites can be best determined in the laboratory animal by means of ___
Vital staining
51
Patients who have ectodermal dysplasia have had prostheses constructed during active growth to replace missing teeth. It has been observed that the dentures...
Restricted lateral bone growth
Restricted jaw development
Did not restrict growth
We’re not tolerated due to diminished salivary glow
Did not restrict growth
52
Cartilage can grow by which of the following methods
Interstitial growth only
Appositional growth only
Both types of growth
Degenerative changes in bones
Both types of growth
53
True or false... in a patient with anodontia, between ages 6 and 17 with dental prosthetic treatment will need several different dentures because the retromolar areas and palatal vault will continue to cause the denture to become i’ll-fitting
True
54
Most class 2 malocclusions can be prevented by...
No known techniques
55
The “v” principle of growth is illustrated by the ___
Mandibular condyle
56
The greatest period of cranial growth occurs between ___ and __ of age
Birth and 5 years
57
At birth, which of the following structures is nearest the size it will eventually attain in adulthood?
Cranium
58
The downward and forward direction of facial growth results form displacement of the maxilla in which direction?
Upward and backward remodeling of the maxillary sutures
59
True or false... a needle fragment embedded in the anterior border of the ramus of the mandible of a 6 year old child will soon become free in the soft tissue as anterior border of the ramus resorbs and uncovers it
True
60
What is the chief factor in the formation of the alveolar process?
Eruption of teeth
61
At age 6, the greatest increase in size of the mandible occurs ___
Distal to the first molars
62
The downward and forward direction of facial growth results from ___
Upward and backward growth of the maxillary sutures and the mandibular condyle
63
The condyle of the mandible grows by ___
Proliferation of cartilage
64
Dental arch form is ultimately determined by....
Interaction of environmental influences on the genetic pattern
65
Which of the following are sites of cartilaginous growth postnatally? (Multiple answers)
```
Spheno-occipital synchondrosis
Mandibular condyle
Frontomaxillary suture
Nasal septum
Alveolar process
```
A, B, d
66
Interstitial growth is observed at which of the following sites? (Multiple answers)
```
Spheno-occipital synchndorisis
Maxillary tuberosity
Mandibular condyle
Zygomaticomaxillary suture
Apex o erupting premolar
```
A and C
67
Which of the following is the least accurate in determining the site of new bone deposition in laboratory animals?
```
Implants
Radiographs
Alizarin stains
Tetracycline stains
Histochemical stains
```
Radiographs
68
True or false... there is more adolescent growth spurt of the maxilla than of the mandibular
True
69
In determining a pts skeletal growth pattern, the most important factor is ___
Hereditary
70
Following the growth rate curve typical for lymphoid tissue, tonsillar and adenoid tissue masses can be expected to show [decrease/increase] in size beggining in the circumpubertal period
Decrease
71
Cartilage differs from bone in that cartilage can increase in size by ___
Interstitial growth
72
True or false... lymph tissues regress in size as genital tissues develop
True
73
True or false... the formation of the philtrum of the upper lip occurs around 6-8 weeks in utero by fusion of the mesial nasal processes
False. There is only one medial nasal process
74
The masseter muscle develops embrylogicaly from which branchial arch? (Pharyngeal)
First
75
True or false...
Cartilage tissue is pressure-tolerant and able to provide flexible support because it is avascular and contains an intracellular matrix of proteoglycans
True
76
A priority plan exists during prenatal growth and development of the face and the body in general. Which of the following organ systems would have the highest priority?
Nervous system
77
Biochemical remodeling of bone refers to...
The exchange of minerals and other ions between the blood and bone
78
True or false... at birth, the premaxilla is fused to the maxilla and at birth the right and left sides of the maxilla are not fused
True
79
While you are infiltrating the palatal root of the upper first molar in a six year old, you accidentally break off the tip of the needle and it imbeds in the bone of the hard palate acting as a metallic implant. Ten years later, where would you find this metal fragment?
In the floor of the nose
80
The functional matrix theory holds that... (3 things)
Soft tissue is primary
Bone is responsive to soft tissue
Deflutition (mandibular function) influences mandibular growth
81
True or false...
Cortical drift occurs by a combination of periosteal deposition and endosteal resorption because deposition and resorption always occur together in equal and opposite amounts
The first statement is true
The second is false
82
An osseointergrated titanium dental implant will behave biologically most similar to...
An ankylosed tooth
83
True or false... the “switch” that turns facial growth on and off is not known at this time
True
84
The sutural theory of facial growth holds that the cells lining the sutures push the bone apart and create displacement of the bones. This theory has been rejected by modern craniofacial biologists because...
Bones cannot push on other bones
85
The TMJ disk is made up of ___cartialge
Fibrocartilage
86
In the anatomical normal TMJ, the superior joint compartement provides [rotational/translational]movement
Translational
87
The ___ hypothesis holds that the soft tissues of the brain expand thus pacing growth of the flat bones of the skull
Functional matrix
88
Growth occurring in palatine bones results in relative changes in the position of the maxillae. This is an example of ___
Secondary displacement
89
As a general principle, the glenoid fossa becomes [deeper/shallower]and [more/less]antomically defines with increasing age
Deeper
More
90
The point of the chin is part of the
Condyle
Corpus
Ramus
Alveolar process
Corpus
91
True or false... in the rapidly growing human, deposition and resorption usually occur in equal and opposite amounts
False
92
_____ is a remodeling process. It is one of the reasons a 6 year old may not have room for permanent second molars until they are 12 years of age
Area relocation
93
Facial clefts can commonly occur in each of the following except...
```
Primary palate
Lip
Secondary palate
Nasolacrimal duct
Zygomatic arch
```
Zygomatic arch
94
The enamel organ (enamel epithelia, enamel reticulum, ameloblasts, and enamel prisms) are derived from the ___
Dental lamina
95
True or false... the cutting and filling cone is a basic histologic structure assocaited with remodeling of bone. They consist of what three things?
True
Osteoclasts
Osteoblasts
Blood vessels
96
Embyologic development of the upper lip is the result of...
Fusion of the medial and lateral nasal processes
Merging of the medial nasal processes
97
True or false... the primary palate in the embryo became the hard palate in the adult
False... it become part of the upper lip
98
Which cranial nerve is assocaited with the first branchial arch (pharyngeal)?
Trigeminal (V3)
99
True or false... an osseointergrated dental implant was used to replace a missing upper central incisor in a six year old boy. The implant will be relatively higher within the face
The implants will be integrated with the same bone cells within the maxilla at age 12
True
100
Why is a leptoprosopic face type?
Long and narrow
101
True or false... exophtalmic appearance of the eyeballs is considered a feature of the female face
True
102
A class 2 malocclusion typically relates to...
A euryprosopic face (short+wide)
Anterior inclined middle cranial fossa
A forward rotation of the mandible
Vertically short nasomaxillary complex
Anteriorily inclined middle cranial fossa
103
Mandibular recursion tens to be a characteristic of the [female/male] [dolichocephalic/brachocephalic]
Male
Doliocephalic
104
An aquiline nose (Roman nose) is sometimes a feature of the ____ face
Male doliochocephalic
| Roman nose = large nasal bone, looks like bird beak
105
Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis is most likely to occur in which age group?
1-5 years
106
Which of the following is the most important factor in affecting pulpal response?
Heat
Depth to which dentinal tubules are cut
Desiccation
Invasion of bacteira
Depth to which dentinal tubules are cut
107
Each of the following osseous defects are considered infrabony except one. Which one?
Trough
Dehiscence
Hemiseptum
Interdental crater
Dehiscence
108
Allowing the ultrasonic tip to remain on the tooth surface too long will result in...
Damage to the tooth surface
Irreversible pulpitis
Damage to tooth surface
109
True or false for each statement....
OSHA is concerned with regulated waste within the office
OSHA regulates the transportation of waste from the office
True
False
110
One can accelerate the setting time of ZOE impression pastes by adding ___
Water
111
___% of the US population does not have dental insurance
65-70%
112
What is the drug of choic to treat overdosage with TCAs?
Physostigmine
113
How many hours per day should a cervical pull headgear be worn to achieve the MOST effective results?
14 hours a day (minimum is 12 hours a day)
114
The concentration of which ion determines the binding affinity of agonists and antagonists to the opioid receptor?
Sodium
115
Which of the following cannot be used to calculate the dosage of a drug for a child?
Clark’s rule
Vital signs
Body surface area
Body weigth
Vital signs
116
Which of the following symptoms is the most distinct characteristic of morphine poisoning?
Comatose sleep
Pin-point pupils
Depressed respiration
Deep, rapid respiration
Widely dilated, non-responsive pupils
Pin-point pupils
117
In addition to the treatment of epilepsy, phenytoin may be indicated for the treatment of ___
Arrhythmias
118
The mechanism of action of the muscle relaxation by diazepam most clearly resembles that produced by...
D-tubucurarine
Meprobamate
Succinylcholine
Decamethonium
Gallamine
Meprobamate
119
What is the percent of blood alcohol level that is likely to produce a lethal effect in 50% of the population?
0.5%
120
Digitalis should be given to patients with atrial fibrillation who require quinidine to avoid ____
Ventricular fibrillation
121
Having had a complete readiographic survey made 12 months ago, an asymptomatic adult patient presents for a recall appointment. There is no clinical evidence of caries or perio disease. The USFDA would recommend...
No radiographs
122
When high gold content alloys are compared to base metal alloys, the base metal alloys exhibit...
A higher melting point, decreased specific gravity, and generally higher yield strength and hardness
123
The central skeletal muscle relaxation produced by depressing the polysnaptic reflex arch is brought about by all of the following except...
Diazepam
Lorazepam
Meprobamate
D-tubocurarine
D-tubocurarine
124
The “s” in DMFS stands for ___
Surfaces
125
Which of the following antihypertensive agents acts directly on arterial smooth muscle to cause vasodilation?
Methyldopa
Clonidine
Guanethidine
Metoprolol
Hydralazine
Hydralazine
126
True or false... treatment with sulfonamides is less likely to be accompanied by crystalluria if a mixture of sulfonamides is used
True (sulfa cocktail method)
127
Loss of a primary right molar in a 3 year old requires what space maintainer?
None - pt is too young
128
When 50mg of chlorpromazine is adminsited to a pt, on standing the pt might experience a fall in BP due to...
Alpha-adrenergic blockade
129
Metabolism of a drug will usually result in conversion to each of the following except....
Inactive form
More active compound
Less active compound
More water-soluble compound
Less ionized compound
Less ionized compound
130
Which of the following agents is the least effective in producing topical anesthesia?
Tetracycline
Butacaine
Procaine
Lidocaine
Benzocaine
Procaine
131
Which of the following sedatives is most likely to cause a dry mouth?
Buspirone
Hydroxyzine
Chloral hydrate
Phenobarbital
Hydroxyzine (anti-histamine)
132
Each of the following is a characteristic of tramadol (ultram) except for which one?
Centrally acting analgesic
Structurally similar to morphine
Binds to the Mu receptor
Biotransforemd into a more active metabolite
Inhibits uptake of NE and serotonin
Structurally similar to morphine
133
Which of the following analgesics can be given either orally or by intramuscular injection?
Aspirin
Acetaminophen
Ibuprofen
Ketorlac
Naproxen
Ketorlac
134
Each of the following statements is true concerning impacted teeth #17 and #32 except one, which one?
Alveolar osteitis in the removal of bony impactions might occur (5-20%)
Horizontally impacted teeth are considered the most difficult mandibular impactions
Asymptomatic bony impactions are not recommended for extraction in pts over 35 years of age
Horizontally impacted teeth are considered the most difficult mandibular impactions
135
True or false... if a diabetic pt is to have local anesthetic with sedation, the pt should be instructed to reduce the usual dose of insulin and do not eat
Without sedation, the pt should be instructed to take usual dose of insulin and eat a normal diet
True
136
True or false... even if the pt is going to have a removable partial denture, still bridge the teeth you can
True
137
the ____ often appears as a diffuse radiolucency apical to the Mandibular incisors and is part of normal anatomy
Mental fossa
