Pt Management/liability Flashcards

(66 cards)

1
Q

Which ethical principle requires clinicians to inform their patients about treatment risks and benefits and to protect their confidentiality?

A

Autonomy

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2
Q

Which ethical principle describes the ability of the patient to independently choose between different treatment plans?

A

Autonomy

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3
Q

How long should you keep the dental records of an employee who just terminated their employment?

A

30 years

The joint commission on national dental examinations recommends that all dental records should be kept as long as possible. They are patient property, and the police may require them for forensic identification.

The ADA recommends that records may be destroyed for inactive adult patients who have not been seen in 7 year or ath the expiration of the statute of limitation in contract and tort actions

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4
Q

When a dentist thinks he or she knows what is best for the patient and tries to control a patient’s behavior, it is referred to as ___. It infringes on the patients right to ___

A

Paternalism

Autonomy

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5
Q

Define autonomy

A

A patient’s right to self-governance

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6
Q

Define nonmaleficence

A

Doing no harm to the patient

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7
Q

Define beneficence

A

Doing good for the patient

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8
Q

Define justice

A

Treating the patient fairly

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9
Q

Define veracity

A

Communicating truthfully to the patient

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10
Q

___ is a practice in which dental patients receive care at specialized facilities from a limited group of clinicians on a prepayment basis

A

Closed panel

Dentists must accept any beneficiary of a closed panel as a patient

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11
Q

True or false… dental public health is considered an ADA officially recognized specialty

A

True

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12
Q

Health care professionals who provide emergency treatment at the scene of accidents are legally protected by the ____

A

Good Samaritan Act

It offers legal protection who provide “reasonable assistance” to individuals who are in an accident, i’ll, in danger, or incapacitated. Such laws are meant to reduce bystanders’ hesitation to help for the fear of being sued or prosecuted for unintentional injury or wrongful or accidental death.

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13
Q

which ethical principle requires clinicians to inform their patients about treatment risks and benefits and to protect their confidentiality?

A

Autonomy

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14
Q

A group of 100 dental students were followed for 10 years to determine whether their health was affected by exposure to mercury. What kind a study is this?

A

Longitudinal study

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15
Q

What are longitudinal studies? What are cohort studies?

A

A longitudinal study is an observational correlation research study that involves repeated observations of the same variables over long periods of time.

Cohort studies are a type of longitudinal study in which risk factors are analyzed for the group of people who do not have the disease and use correlations to determine the astute risk of subject contraction

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16
Q

What are cross sectional studies?

A

They examine two or more variables. For example, university of Iowa dental students were tested against university of michigan students

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17
Q

What are double blind studies?

A

Exposes a control group to an experimental variable and an experimental group to the control after a period of time to see whether there is a correlation

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18
Q

Define leading question.

A

A leading question that is designed to verify particular information by leading a person to a suggested answer.

“You’ve never had problems with needles before, have you?”

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19
Q

Define funneling questions

A

Provides questions that may ask information from a specific detail to more general information or vice versa

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20
Q

What are the differences between open and closed questions?

A

Open - can be answered in unlimited ways and manner and usually requires elaborative and long answers

Closed - questions answerable by a specific or particular word or phrase. Most common is “yes” or “no”.

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21
Q

True or false… MSDS are not required under OSHA’s bloodborne pathogen standard because they serve no purpose in dealing with bloodborne pathogens

A

True

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22
Q

What to MSDS’s contain?

A

Information about the products physical data, storage, toxicity, health effects, disposal, and other relevant data

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23
Q

What is the difference between prevelance and incidence?

A

Prevalence - describes the proportion of a population who have a condition. It is computed by comparing the total number of people affected with a condition against the overal number of people being studied. The result is usually written as a percentage, fraction, or by noting the number of known cases per 10,000 or 100,000 people

Incidence - describes the number of NEW cases that occurred in a given population within a certain TIME PERIOD

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24
Q

What is the EPA and what is their role in dentistry?

A

Environmental protection agency

They established maximum exposure levels for Hg vapor. They are intended to be highly protective at 0.1ug/kg body weight per day. The EPA also regulates transportation of dental waste from dental offices.

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25
Chlorhexidine gluconate elicits an antimicrobial effect that lasts for ___. It is a chemical antiseptic that has an effect against ___ bacteria. It has a bacteriostatic and bacteriocidal effect by _____.
12 hours Gram + and gram - Disrupting the bacterial membrane
26
_____ like benzalkonium chloride are believed to act by disruption the cell membrane and are lethal to a wide variety of organism except ___, ___, and ____. They are cationic detergents as well as disinfectants that need to be rinsed off and are not substantive due to the rinsing.
Quaternary ammonium compounds Endospores Mycobacterium tuberculosis Non-enveloped viruses.
27
What age group is child abuse/neglect most commonly found?
Ages 0-3 Approximately 70% of children that die from abuse are under the age of 4
28
About ___% of abused and neglected children will later abuse their own children which reinforces the ongoing cycle of abuse
30%
29
What is the proper way for cleaning spilled mercury?
Use a vacuum system to aspirate the liquid mercury into a trap, then dusting the area with sulfur powder. F
30
What are the 3 major effects of mercury exposure?
Weight loss GI disorders Exhaustion
31
True or false... most states prohibit the hand over mouth technique
True
32
True or false... pts suffering from mitral valve stenosis do NOT need to undergo prophylactic antibiotics prior to any dental surgery
True, they do not
33
When are prophylactic antibiotics indicated?
Artificial heart valves and heart repaired with prosthetic devices Cardiac transplant patients with a heart valve problem Congenital heart conditions and those treated but still have a residual defect Infective endocarditis history
34
What is the antibiotic regiment indicated for a 40 kg pediatric pt with a congenital heart defect requiring prophylaxis according to american heart association standards?
2g amoxicillin 30-60 minutes before the procedure
35
What is the recommended dose for pediatric prophylaxis of oral amoxicillin?
50mg/kg body weight
36
If the child is unable to take oral medication, what antibiotic should be used for prophylaxis when indicated?
Ampicillin, ceftriaxone or cefazolin - 50mg/kg body weight intramuscularly or intravenously
37
What are some other options of antibiotic prophylaxis for children who are allergic to penicillins?
Cephalexin 50mg/kg Clindamycin 20mg/kg Azithromycin or clarithromycin 15mg/kg
38
The oral microflora of [younger/older] people is usually more cariogenic due to the inclusion of sweets in their daily diet.
Younger
39
Which database contains current electronic dental literature?
Pubmed: MEDLINE
40
What is the best way to discern patient comfort during dental treatment?
Observing eyes/eyebrows Pts most likely squint their eyes or move their eyebrows when they are experiencing discomfort during dental treatments because moving the eyes or eyebrows won’t move the positioning of the mouth or body
41
The ___ valve type should be used on their handpieces and water spray hoses to prevent cross contamination from patient to patient.
Anti-retraction
42
What is the route of transition for hepatitis A?
Transmitted from individual to individual through ingestion or the oral route
43
What are the 4 routes of transmission of hepatitis B?
Direct blood-blood contact Prenatal transfer Percutaneous inoculation Sexual intercourse
44
What are occult lesions?
They are not easily detectable by clinical methods alone. They are problematic to distinguish because even with a direct observation the lesion would be difficult to visualize as it appears normal. Occult lesions most of the time are asymptomatic and do NOT show signs of disease progression Occult lesions are also difficult to find even with the use of conventional radiographs. It is best to evaluate such lesions histologically and through an MRI
45
The ADA seal of approval if it has what three things?
It must be tested in a randomized, cross-over, or parallel clinical trial It must have a documented antimicrobial effect that shows significant supragingival plaque reduction and reduction of gingivitis. Must be nontoxic It must have no negative effects to teeth and soft tissues and should not affect the balance of the normal oral flora
46
Following a surgical procedure, a dentist can be legally liable for patient contracting hepatitis is the dentist...
Uses cold sterilization exclusively for their surgical instruments It is required to sterilize via autoclave, dry heat, or chemical vapor in sterilizing critical and semi-critical instruments to ensure eradication of bacteria and viruses that can infect other patients.
47
What are semi-critical items?
Instruments that do not penetrate soft tissues or bone but are used inside the mouth and contact the mucosa. These instruments must be heat sterilized after every use or must undergo high-level disinfection if they are not heat stable
48
What 5 things do the blood borne pathogens standard of OSHA involve?
Management of sharps and disposal of regulated wastes Communication of hazards to employees Training and hepatitis B vaccination of employees Exposure incident plan Sterilization and storage of instruments
49
What is the best way to verify that an autoclave is working and can still sterilize instruments?
Run the autoclave with a biological monitor test.
50
The ___ method is the brushing technique that involves the angulation of the toothbrush bristles at a 45 degree angle apically, allowing the bristles to debride the gingival sulcus.
Bass
51
The bass brushing method allows the bristles to penetrate __-___mm into the sulcus to clean it.
2-3mm
52
What kind of study design would compare the caries relates of a city with fluoridated water to one with non-fluoridated water?
Cross-sectional study Cross-sectional studies examine two or more variables simultaneously (for example, roseman students vs university of utah students)
53
a ___ survey is an observational correlation research study that involves repeated observations of the same variables over long periods of time.
Longitudinal
54
____ studies are a type of longitudinal study in which risk factors are analyzed for the group of people who do not have the disease and use correlations to determine the absolute risk of subject contraction.
Cohort
55
A ___ study is one in which both the examiner and subject do not know which is the experimental group and which is the control group
Double-blind
56
What type of financial arrangement allows the dentist to charge the patient the difference between what the insurance plan agrees to pay and the dentist’s usually customary rebate?
Balance billing
57
What is prospective reimbursement?
Pays the dentist before the treatment is provided
58
How often should sterilizing units undergo quality control testing to ensure proper sterilizing of instruments?
Weekly
59
In addition to conducting routine biological monitoring of equipment users should perform biological monitoring at which 4times?
Whenever a new type of packaging material or tray is used After training new sterilization personnel After a a sterilizer has been repaired After any change in the sterilizer-leading procedures
60
Define incidence
The rate at which new disease cases occur. It gives the number of disease cases or people becoming i’ll during a given period in a specified population
61
Define prevalence
The percentage of the population that has the disease or condition. It gives a figure for a factor at a single point in time. Prevalence can tell only what is happening at a certain point.
62
Define attributable risk
The difference in rate of a condition between an exposed population and an unexposed population. Attributable risk is most commonly used in cohort studies to measure individuals that are assembled on exposure status and followed over a period of time
63
Define penetrance
Penetrance describes the extent to which a particular gene or set of genes is expressed in the phenotypes of individuals carrying it. It is measured by the proportion of carriers in showing the characteristic phenotype
64
What is the insurance policy in which there is an agreement between an insurance company and a group of dentists in which the dentists accept a discounted payment rate?
Preferred provider organization Arrange a discounted rate accepted by dental providers in exhange for a higher volume of patients.
65
What are health maintenance organizations?
In health maintenance organizations (HMOs), individual practice organizations combine the risk of capitation with fee-for-Service reimbursement. HMOs and other managed-care plans can contract with an insurance provider assocaiteion, which then contracts with independent physicians to treat members at discounted fees or on a capitation basis. HMOs usually limit coverage to care from doctors who work for (or contract with) the HMO. An HMO generally will not cover out-of-network care, except for an emergency
66
Define capitation.
Capitation is a payment method in which an entity pays the dentist a fixed amount irrespective of the services provided by the dentist