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Flashcards in Preflight Deck (60):
1

When is an instrument rating required?

1. Under IFR
2. In weather conditions less than the minimum for VFR flight
3. In class A airspace
4. Under special VFR within any controlled airspace during night.
5. When carrying passengers for hire on cross-country flights in excess of 50 nautical miles or at night.

2

What are the recency-of-experience requirements to be PIC of a flight under IFR?

1. A flight review
2. To carry passengers, 3 takeoffs and landing within the preceding 90 days in the same category, class and type of aircraft.
3. Within 6 calendar months, performed and logged (under actual or simulated conditions): 6 instrument approaches, holding procedures and tasks, and intercepting and tracking courses by use of electronic navigational systems. (6-6-HIT)

3

If a pilot allows his currency to expire, what can be done to become current again?

As soon as currency expires, there is a 6 month grace period where the pilot can complete the required 6 approaches, etc. with a safety pilot on board. If the 6 month grace period expires, the pilot must get an instrument proficiency check by an authorized person.

4

Explain the difference between "current" and "proficient".

Being "current" means that the pilot has accomplished the minimum FAA regulatory minimums in order to exercise the privileges of the certificate. It means that you are "legal" to fly, but doesn't always mean you're proficient or competent to safely fly. A "proficient" pilot is capable of conducting a flight with a high degree of competence, using a wide range of knowledge and skill. Being proficient is not about just being "legal", but is about being smart and safe in terms of pilot experience and competence.

5

What are the required qualifications for a person to act as a "safety pilot"?

The safety pilot must:
1. Possess at least a Private Pilot certificate with category and class ratings appropriate to the aircraft being flown.
2. Posses an appropriate medical certificate.
3. If the flight is to be conducted under IFR flight plan, the person acting as PIC of the flight must hold an instrument rating and be instrument current.

6

What conditions are necessary for a pilot to log instrument time?

A person may log instrument time only for that flight time when the person operates the aircraft solely by reference to instruments under actual or simulated instrument flight conditions.

7

When logging instrument time, what should be included in each logbook entry?

Each entry must include the location and type of each instrument approach accomplished and the name of the safety pilot, if required.

8

What is PAVE?

P : Pilot
I - Illness
M - Medication
S - Stress
A - Alcohol
F - Fatigue
E - Eating/Emotional
Currency/Proficiency
Personal Documents
A : Aircraft
Airworthiness
Aircraft equipped for flight
Inspections
V : Environment
Weather Hazards, type of terrain, airport/runways to be used, conditions
E : External Pressures
Meetings, people waiting at destination, desire to impress, desire to get there, etc.

9

What is WNKRAFT?

W - Weather
N - NOTAMs
K - Known ATC Delays
R - Runway Lengths
A - Alternates Available
F - Fuel Requirements
T - Takeoff/Landing Distances

10

What are the fuel requirements under IFR?

If NO alternate : Enough fuel to land at destination plus 45 minutes at cruise speed.
If alternate : Enough fuel to land at destination plus enough fuel to land at alternate plus 45 minutes at cruise speed.

11

What is RAIM?

Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring. It is an extra satellite that monitors the other satellites and makes sure that they are producing a normal signal. If signal is really weak or lost from one of the main satellites, the RAIM satellite will send a signal down to your GPS, telling you so that you can use another means of navigation.

12

What are the instruments/equipment required for IFR operations?

All of the VFR equipment required plus:
G - Generator/Alternator
R - Rate of Turn Indicator (Turn Coordinator)
A - Altimeter (Adjustable for barometric pressure)
B - Ball (Slip-Skid Indicator)
C - Clock (Hours/Minutes/Seconds/Must be installed as eq)
A - Attitude Indicator
R - Radio/Navigation Equipment (Two-Way Radio)
D - Directional Gyro (Heading Indicator)
D - DME or RNAV (If at or above FL 240)

13

What are the required inspections?

A - Annual (Every 12 calendar months)
V - VOR (Every 30 days)
1 - 100 Hour (If used for compensation or hire)
A - Altimeter (Every 24 calendar months)
T - Transponder (Every 24 calendar months)
E - ELT (Functionality/Battery Every 12 calendar months)
S - Static System (24 calendar months)

14

During the preflight in an aircraft without an MEL, you notice that an instrument item is inoperative. Describe how you will determine if the aircraft is still airworthy.

1. Is the inoperative equipment listed as as part of the VFR day type certification?
2. Is the inoperative equipment required on the aircraft equipment list?
3. Is the inoperative equipment required by 91.205?
4. Is the inoperative equipment required by an AD?
If not, then I must deactivate and placard the inoperative equipment.

15

What documents are required on board the aircraft?

A - Airworthiness Certificate
R - Registration (3 years)
R - Radio License (If operating outside US)
O : Operating Limitations (Found in POH)
W : Weight and Balance (Found in POH)

16

When must a pilot file an IFR flight plan?

Prior to departure from within or prior to entering controlled airspace, the pilot must submit a complete flight plan an receive clearance from ATC if weather conditions are below VFR minimums. The pilot should file the flight plan at least 30 minutes prior to ETD.

17

When will ATC delete from the system a departure flight plan that has not been activated?

Usually 2 hours after ETD.

18

When can you cancel your IFR flight plan?

Any time the flight is operating in VFR conditions outside Class A airspace.

19

What are alternate airport requirements?

If from 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, the weather is forecasted at least 2,000' ceilings and 3 SM visibility, you don't need an alternate. If less than 2,000' or 3SM, you must plan for an alternate. To plan your alternate, if your alternate has an IAP, the following criteria to be met is:
1. Precision approach procedure : at least 600' ceilings and 2 SM.
2. Non-Precision approach procedure : at least 800' ceilings and 2 SM.
If no IAP has been published, the ceiling and visibility minimums are those allowing descent from the MEA, approach, and landing under basic VFR.

20

What are preferred routes and where can they be found?

Preferred routes are those established between busier airports to increase system efficiency and capacity. Preferred routes are listed in the Chart Supplement U.S.

21

How does the airspeed indicator operate?

The airspeed indicator measures the difference between RAM pressure from the pitot head and atmospheric pressure from the static source.

22

What are the different types of aircraft speeds?

1. Indicated Airspeed (IAS) - Shown on the dial of the instrument, uncorrected for instrument or system errors.
2. Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) - IAS corrected for instrument and position errors during installation.
3. True Airspeed (TAS) - CAS corrected for non-standard pressure and temperature.

23

How does the vertical-speed indicator work?

The VSI is a rate-of-pressure-change instrument that gives an indication of any deviation from a constant pressure level. Inside the VSI instrument case is an aneroid. Both the inside of the aneroid and the inside of the instrument case are vented to the static system. The case is vented through calibrated orifice that causes the pressure inside the case to change more slowly than the pressure inside the aneroid. Changing pressures inside the case and the aneroid compress and expand the aneroid, moving the pointer upward or downward indicating a climb, a descent, or level flight.

24

What are the limitations of the VSI?

It only shows trend. It is not accurate until the aircraft is stabilized.

25

What instruments are affected when the pitot tube, ram air inlet, and drain hole freeze?

Only the airspeed indicator will be affected. It acts like an altimeter - it will read higher as the aircraft climbs and lower as the aircraft descends.

26

What instruments are affected when the static port freezes?

Airspeed Indicator - It will read high when you descend and low when you climb. If the air from a higher altitude is trapped in the static port, if you go lower there will be more air particles hitting the pitot tube, making the instrument think you are flying very fast through a less dense area.
Altimeter - Indicates the altitude at which the system is blocked.
VSI - Will indicate level flight.

27

What corrective action is needed if the pitot tube freezes? If the static port freezes?

Pitot Tube - Turn on pitot heat.
Static Port - Use alternate static air.

28

What instruments contain gyroscopes?

Attitude indicator, heading indicator and turn coordinator.

29

What powers the gyroscopic instruments?

Attitude Indicator/Heading Indicator - 2 engine driven vacuum pumps.
Turn Coordinator - Electrically driven motor.

30

What are two important characteristics of gyroscopes?

Rigidity - The characteristic of a gyro that prevents its axis of rotation tilting as the Earth rotates; attitude and heading instruments operate on this principle.
Precession - The characteristic of a gyro that causes an applied force to be felt, not at the point of application, but 90 degrees from that point in the direction of the rotation. Rate instruments such as the turn coordinator use this principle.

31

How does the turn coordinator operate?

The turn part of the instrument uses precession to indicate direction and approximate rate of turn. A gyro reacts by trying to move in reaction to the force applied, thus moving the miniature aircraft in proportion to the rate of turn. The inclinometer in the instrument is a black glass ball sealed inside a curved glass tube that is partially filled with a liquid. The ball measures the relative strength of the force of gravity and the force of inertia caused by a turn.

32

What information does the turn coordinator provide?

The miniature aircraft in the turn coordinator displays the rate of turn, rate of roll and direction of turn. The ball in the tube indicates the quality of turn (slip or skid).

33

How does the heading indicator work?

The operation of the heading indicator works on the principle of rigidity in space. The rotor turns in a vertical plane, and fixed to the rotor is a compass card. Since the rotor remains rigid in space, the points on the card hold the same position in space relative to the vertical plane.. As the instrument case and the airplane revolve around the vertical axis, the card provides clear and accurate heading information.

34

What type of error is the heading indicator subject to?

Because of precession (caused by friction), the heading indicator will creep or drift from the heading set to. The amount of drift depends upon the condition of the instrument (worn and dirty bearings and/or improperly lubricated bearings). Additionally, the gyro is oriented in space and the earth rotates in space at a rate of 15 degrees per hour; therefore, discounting precession caused by friction, the heading indicator may indicate as much as 15 degrees of error per every hour of operation.

35

How does the magnetic compass work?

Magnets mounted on the compass card align themselves parallel to the Earth's lines of magnetic force.

36

What limitations does the magnetic compass have?

18 degrees of bank.

37

What are some compass errors?

Deviation - Magnetic fields produced by electrical instruments and wiring affect the magnetic compass. Look at compass deviation card to fix this problem.
Variation - The difference between true North and magnetic North. Look at isogonic lines to fix this problem.
Magnetic Dip - The compass tends to dip towards the North magnetic pole in the Northern Hemisphere, causing Northerly/Southerly and Acceleration/Deceleration errors.
Oscillation - A combination of all the errors imposed on the magnetic compass.
Northerly/Southerly Turning Errors - Due to magnetic dip, the compass tends to lag behind when turning away from North and tends to lead ahead when turning away from South.
Acceleration/Deceleration Errors - Due to magnetic dip, when on an East or West heading, accelerating causes the compass to slightly indicate a turn to the North while decelerating causes the compass to slightly indicate a turn towards the South.

38

What rate does atmospheric pressure decrease with an increase in altitude?

Atmospheric pressure decreases approximately 1 inch of Mercury per 1,000'.

39

What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?

15 degrees Celsius and 29.92 inches of Mercury.

40

State the general characteristics in regard to the flow of air around high and low pressure systems in the Northern hemisphere.

Low Pressure - Air flows inward, upward, and counterclockwise.
High Pressure - Air flows downward, outward, and clockwise.

41

If your route of flight takes you toward a low-pressure system, what kind of weather in general can you expect?

A low-pressure system is characterized by rising air, which is conductive to cloudiness, precipitation and bad weather. A high-pressure system is an area of descending air which tends to favor dissipation of cloudiness and good weather.

42

Describe the different types of fronts.

Cold Front - Occurs when a mass of cold, dense, and stable air advances and replaces a body of warmer air.
Occluded Front - A frontal occlusion occurs when a fast-moving cold front catches up with a slow-moving warm front.
Warm Front - The boundary area formed when a warm air mass contacts and flows over a colder air mass.
Stationary Front - When the forces of two air masses are relatively equal, the boundary or front that separates them remains stationary and influences the local weather for days.

43

What causes the winds aloft to flow parallel to the isobars?

Coriolis Factor

44

What causes surface winds to flow across isobars at angles?

Surface Friction

45

What primary factor determines the type and vertical extent of clouds?

The stability of the atmosphere determines type and vertical extend of clouds.

46

What are the main types of icing an aircraft may encounter?

Structural, Induction System, and instrument icing.

47

Name the three types of structural ice that may occur in flight.

Clear Icing - Usually occurs in showery precipitation. The rain hits the aircraft and has enough time to spread out before freezing. It is clear and very hard to identify.
Rime Icing - Usually occurs in steady precipitation. The rain hits the aircraft and freezes upon impact, trapping the oxygen in the ice giving it a white color.
Mixed Icing - A mixture of rime ice and clear ice.

48

What is necessary for structural icing to occur?

The aircraft must be flying through visible water such as rain or cloud droplets; temperature must be at the point where moisture strikes the aircraft at 0 degrees Celsius or colder.

49

What are the icing intensity categories?

Trace - Ice becomes perceptible; rate of accumulation slightly greater than sublimation; deicing/anti-icing equipment is not used unless encountered for extended period of time (over 1 hour)
Light - Rate of accumulation may create a problem if flight is prolonged in this environment (over 1 hour). Occasional use of deicing/anti-icing equipment removes or prevents accumulation.
Moderate - The rate of accumulation is such that even short encounters becomes potentially hazardous; use of deicing/anti-icing equipment or diversion is necessary.
Severe - Rate of accumulation is such that deicing/anti-icing equipment fails to reduce or control the hazard; immediate diversion is necessary.

50

During preflight planning, what type of weather information should you be aware of?

Location of fronts, cloud layers, freezing levels, air temperature and pressure, precipitation, winds.

51

What is the definition of the term "freezing level" and how can you determine where that level is?

The freezing level is the lowest altitude in the atmosphere over a given location at which the air temperature reaches 0 degrees Celsius. It is possible to have multiple freezing layers when a temperature inversion occurs above the defined freezing level. Potential sources of icing information for determining its location are: Area forecasts, PIREPS, AIRMETs, SIGMETs, convective SIGMETs, low-level significant weather charts, surface analysis and winds and temperatures aloft.

52

What are the factors necessary for a thunderstorm to form and what are the three stages of thunderstorm development?

The air must have sufficient moisture, an unstable lapse rate, and a lifting action to start the process. The three stages are:
1. Cumulus - Characterized by a strong updraft
2. Mature - Precipitation beginning to fall from the cloud base signals that a downdraft has developed and a cell has entered the mature stage.
3. Dissipating - Downdrafts characterize the dissipating stage and the storm dies rapidly.

53

What are "squall line" thunderstorms?

A non-frontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms. Often it develops ahead of a cold front in moist, unstable air, but it may also develop in unstable air far removed from any front.

54

State two basic ways that fog can form.

1. By cooling air to the dew point.
2. By adding moisture to the air near the ground.

55

Name several types of fog.

1. Radiation Fog
2. Advection Fog
3. Upslope Fog
4. Frontal Fog
5. Steam Fog

56

How can a pilot get weather while en route?

FSS, ATIS, HIWAS, ATC.

57

What is a METAR?

A routinely reported surface observation at an airport covering a 5SM radius around the airport.

58

What is a PIREP?

A pilot report stating the weather, location, altitude and time the pilot observed it while en route.

59

What are the different types of AIRMETs?

AIRMET Tango - Moderate Turbulence/Surface winds greater than 30 knots.
AIRMET Zulu - Moderate Icing
AIRMET Sierra - IFR conditions/Mountain Obscuration

60

Describe VFR, MVFR, and IFR

VFR - Ceilings greater than 3,000' and 5SM visibility.
MVFR - Ceilings 1,000' - 3,000' and 3SM - 5SM visibility.
IFR - Ceilings less than 1,000' or less than 3SM visibility.