Preventative and Therapeutic Strategies Flashcards by Natalie Bubenheim

start of PT01

would you give antimicrobials for a subsolar abscess?

no, drainage alone is usually curative

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would you give antimicrobials to a horse with diarrhoea?

(not usually)

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name 5 practical considerations when choosing an antimicrobial

route of admin
frequency of admin
duration of therapy
potential complications
licensing

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name a potential complication that can develop in horses with any antimicrobial

antimicrobial associated diarrhoea (AAD)

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name the antimicrobial

bactericidal and time dependent;
++ for gram neg and pos, useless for anaerobic;
first line abx choice for horses, esp good for resp and urinary

Trimethoprim-sulphonamides (TMPS)

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what is the main consideration/downside of TMPS

inactivated in purulent/necrotic tissue

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what is the main complication of TMPS

fatal cardiac arrhythmias

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name the only licensed oral antibiotic in horses

TMPS
(Equibactin, Trimadiazine)

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name the antimicrobial

bactericidal, time dependent;
++ for gram pos, + for gram neg (NOT rods), ++ for most anaerobes;
injectable only;
often used in combo with Gentamicin for broad spectrum cover in hospital setting

penicillin (beta lactam)

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name 3 possible complications of penicillin (beta lactam) in horses

inadvertant IV injection (ataxia/seizure)
hypersensitivity
rapid IV admin (colic, loose faeces)

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name the type of penicillin that should NOT be used in horses because it fails to reach MIC

Benthazine penicillin G
(Norocillin LA)

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name the antimicrobial

bactericidal, concentration dependent;
+++ for gram neg;
injectable only;
commonly used in combo with penicillin for broad spectrum cover in hospital setting

Aminoglycosides
(Gentamicin)

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what is the possible complication of aminoglycosides (Gentamicin) in horses

nephrotoxicity
(esp when dehydrated and used with NSAIDs)

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name the antimicrobial

bactericidal, time dependent;
++ for gram neg, gram pos and anaerobes;
injectable only,
used for septic foals or following C&S;
NOT first-line usually, protected

cephalosporins
(Ceftiofur)

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what is the possible complication of cephalosporins in horses

hypersensitivity
(urticaria, angioedema)

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name the antimicrobial

bacteriostatic (cidal at high conc), both time and concentration dependent;
++ for gram neg and pos, + for anaerobes;
first line for intracellular oragnanisms: erlichial, rickettsial organisms, lawsonia, anaplasma

tetracyclines
(Oxytet, Doxy)

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name 4 possible complications of tetracyclines in horses

rapid IV injection (hypotension, collapse)
oral ulceration
nephrotoxicity (oxytet)
incr risk of AAD

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name the antimicrobial

bactericidal, concentration dependent;
+++ for gram neg, + for gram pos, no anaerobe;
protected, no licensed products;
used for renal disease and some pyogenic infections or for organisms resistant to other abx

fluoroquinolones
(Enrofloxacin)

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name 2 possible complications of fluoroquinolones in horses

oral ulceration
arthropathy (foals)

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name the antimicrobial

bacteriostatic (cidal at high conc), both conc and time dependent;
+++ for gram pos, + for gram neg and anaerobes;
not licensed for use in horses, canNOT be used in adult horses;
used in combo with Rifampin for treatment of Rhodococcus equi

Macrolides
(Azithromycin)

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what is the complication of Macrolides in horses

fatal colitis if used in adults

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name the antimicrobial

bactericidal and conc dependent;
+++ for gram pos, ++ for anaerobes, + for gram neg;
must be used in combo with other abx due to rapid development of resistances;
not licensed

Rifampin/Rifampicin

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name the antimicrobial

bactericidal and conc dependent;
+++ for anaerobes, not for gram pos or neg;
not licensed in horses and NOT for food producing animals;
often used in combo with other abx if anaerobic coverage required (peritonitis)

Metronidazole

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what is the potential complication of metronidazole in horses

anorexia

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# name the antimicrobial bactericidal and conc dependent; +++ for gram pos and neg and anaerobes; not licensed, not for use in food producing animals, can cause aplastic anaemia in humans; most common first line ocular choice for conjunctivitis

Chloramphenicol

what age must every horse have a passport and microchip by?

by 6 months or by 31 Dec

what is the most important part of a horse passport

section IX, for human consumption or not | (impacts drugs able to be used)

# start of PT02 - name the type of vaccination induces an antigen specific immune response: dead antigen, live antigen, DNA expressing protein antigen

active vaccination

name 6 active vaccinations for horses

1. equine influenza 2. tetanus 3. equine herpes virus 4. equine viral arteritis 5. strangles 6. lawsonia

# name the type of vaccination administer pre-formed antibodies; ex: tetanus antitoxin, plasma transfusion

passive vaccination

name the 3 UK brands of Equine Influenza vaccines

1. Prequenza 2. Equip 3. Proteq

when should the 3 doses of equine influenza vaccines be given to horses

1. from 5-6 months old 2. 4-6 weeks 3. 5 months

what is the booster interval for equine influenza vaccines?

1 year

# name the tetanus vaccine for horses two vaccines 1 month apart; booster 2 years; booster 6 weeks prior to parturition

tetanus toxoid

# name the tetanus vaccine for horses passive immunisation; foals and unvaccinated horses; remote site to vaccination

tetanus antitoxin

name the combined flu/tetanus vaccine for horses

Equilis Prequenza TE

# name the disease horses should be vaccinated against type 1: respiratory, abortion and neurological; type 4: respiratory and occasionally abortion; general protection for respiratory disease/racehorses: initial course 4 weeks apart, booster q6months; breeding mares: vaccinate at 5,7 & 9 months to reduce abortion risk

Equine Herpes Virus

# name the disease horses should be vaccinated against initially 2 vaccines, 4wks apart; booster every 2 months (3-6mo off-license); reduces clinical signs/shedding; serological ELISA test negative

Streptococcus equi subsp. equi

# name the disease horses should be vaccinated against 2 doses 3-6wks apart from age of 9mo; establishment of negative status of stallions prior to vax is important; mostly used in competitions stallions traveling to endemic areas

Equine Viral Arteritis (EVA)

# name the disease horses should be vaccinated against live pig vaccine; two doses (30mL) per rectum a month apart; aim to complete a full course before risk period

Lawsonia

# name the equine parasite most pathogenic equine nematode; encysted larvae in large colon over winter can lead to 'en masse' emergence late winter/early spring; commonly affects horses <5years old and geriatric horses; common cause of colic, diarrhoea, and weight loss

Cyathostomes

name 3 available diagnostic tests for parasites in horses

1. faecal worm egg count (FWEC) 2. Cyathostome ELISA (blood) 3. tapeworm ELISA (saliva or blood)

# name the anthelmintic regime for horses encourages resistance; not recommended now

interval dosing

# name the anthelmintic regime for horses anthelmintic dosing at specific times of year ex: when first turned out, mid-season, autumn

strategic dosing

# name the anthelmintic regime for horses for adults only; FWEC every 10-12wks during grazing season (spring to autumn), no Tx if less than 250epg, worm if more than 250 epg (ivermectin or pyrantel), FECRT if more than 1000epg ; treat for encysted redworm (moxidectin) +/- tapeworm (praziquantel) in december, tapeworm saliva test 1-2 times yearly

targeted strategic

name 5 aspects of pasture management that can help reduce worm burden in horses

1. minimum twice weekly removal of faeces from pasture 2. avoid high stocking density/overgrazing 3. avoid horses with high FECs 4. avoid presence of young horses 5. co-graze/alternate with other species

name 4 factors in anthelmentic resistance

1. suboptimal dosing 2. over-worming using interval programme 3. use of only one drug class 4. leaving no pasture refugia

when should routine worming be started in foals?

from 4-6wks of age (single dose fenbendazole OR pyrantel)

# name the wormer macrocytic lactone; commonly used to treat horses with high FWEC during summer; resistance common in ascarids - avoid in youngstock

Ivermectin

# name the wormer macrocytic lactone; often used yearly as part of targeted strategic worming programme +/- praziquantel; reserve for encysted cyathostomes where possible (i.e. NOT in summer, save for winter)

Moxidectin

# name the wormer pyrimidine; commonly used to treat horses with high FWEC during summer; double dose for tapeworm

Pyrantel

# name the wormer benzimidazole; 5-day course licensed to treat encysted redworm (rarely used in adults now due to resistance); useful in foals and for pinworm

Fenbendazole (Panacur)

# name the wormer Pyrazinosiquinoline; tapeworm only; no OTC products available, off-license vet product only

Praziquantel

this is a disease that has appeared in a population for the first time, or that might have existed previously but is rapidly increasing in incidence or geographic range

emerging disease

# name the notifiable disease genus Orbivirus (morphologically similar to Bluetongue virus) - 9 serotypes; biologically transmitted by Culicoides spp; zebras shown to be a reservoir in South Africa;

Africal Horse Sickness (African Horse Sickness virus)

# name the form of African Horse Sickness severe pyrexia 1-2d (40-41 C); acute onset dyspnoea, coughing; death within a few hours; 95% mortality; fully susceptible animals (in UK)

per-acute / pulmonary form

# name the form of African Horse Sickness pyrexia 3-4d (39-41C); subcutaneous oedema of head/neck; resultant dyspnoea, dysphagia; petechiation; colic signs; mortality 50%

acute / cardiac form

# name the form of African Horse Sickness combination of pulmonary and cardiac forms; majority of cases; 70% mortality

mixed form

# name the form of African Horse Sickness donkeys, zebras, immune horses; pyrexia (up to 40 C); loss of appetite, mild dyspnoea, tachycardia, congested conjunctivae (but often subclinical)

horse sickness fever

name 6 differential diagnoses for African Horse Sickness

1. anthrax 2. equine infectious anaemia 3. equine viral arteritis 4. equine encephalosis 5. piroplasmosis 6. purpura haemorrhagica

# name the notifiable disease genus Flavivirus; humans and horses are dead-end hosts; spread by mosquitos; travels to LNs then blood and causes brief low grade viraemia associated with transient fever; other CS: ataxia, weakness, recumbency, muscle fasiculations, pyrexia, impaired vision; dying birds often precede equine outbreaks

West Nile Fever (West Nile virus)

name 7 differential diagnoses for West NIle Fever

1. EEE 2. WEE 3. rabies 4. EPM 5. EHV-1 6. verminous meningoencephalomyelitis 7. hepatoencephalopathy

how to diagnose West Nile Fever

IgM ELISA on serology

name 3 treatments for West Nile Fever

1. hyperimmune plasma 2. supportive veterinary care 3. euthanasia

name 4 risks to the UK for West Nile Fever

1. migrating birds from WNV regions 2. mosquito vectors within UK 3. susceptible native birds 4. 'jet-setting' mosquitoes

# name the notifiable disease lentivirus; mechanical transmission by infected blood or blood products & vertical transmission; pyrexia, inappetance, weight loss, signs of depression, anaemia, thrombocytopaenia, dependent oedema; can be fatal; all become carriers

Equine Infectious Anaemia (EIA) ("Swamp Fever")

name 2 ways to diagnose Equine Infectious Anaemia ("Swamp Fever")

1. Coggins test 2. ELISA

# name the toxic plant alkaloids (taxines) block Na+ movement and depress myocardium; causes collapse and sudden death; possibly preceded by tremors and weakness

Yew

# name the toxic plants cardiac glycocide containing plants; inhibit Na/K ATPase transport system (alter cardiac construction); hyperkalaemia; arrhythmias, sudden death

1. Fox-glove (Digitalis purpurea) 2. Oleander

# name the toxic plant tannins and their metabolites; colic, haemorrhagic diarrhoea, haemoglobinuria, tachypnoea, tachycardia, sudden death; treatment with fluid therapy and supplement electrolytes

acorns

# name the toxic plants chronic over-supplementation; oxidative stress to RBCs causing Heinz body anaemia; potential secondary haemoglobin-induced nephropathy; fluid and electrolyte therapy

onion and garlic

# name the toxin mycotoxins produced by Aspergillus spp; form in carbohydrates (grains) in field and storage; cause liver disease, colic and haemorrhagic faeces; can be fatal

aflatoxin

this disease is caused by toxin produced by endophyte (fungus) Neotyphodium lolii; clinical signs of diffuse vestibulocerebellar disease (hypometria, ataxia, wide-based stance, intention-tremor, muscle tremors); remove from pasture, provide new hay source

perenial ryegrass staggers

name 2 treatments for lead poisoning

1. chelation therapy with calcium disodium EDTA 2. Ca supplementation decr further GIT absorption

# name the toxin 1st generation (warfarin) and 2nd generation (brodifacoum); competitively inhibit vitamin K (required for clotting factors II, VII, IX, X); haemorrhagic diathesis; treatment with vitamin K1

coumarin derivatives

# name the toxin ionophore abx - transport ions across cell membranes, used as growth promoter and coccidiostat in cattle and poultry feed; extremely toxic to horses, interferes with Na/K transport across cell membranes; heart is main target; signs vary from mild inappetance to sudden death (hypovolaemic shock)

monensin

Preventative and Therapeutic Strategies Flashcards

PT01-03 (76 cards)