Reproductive System Flashcards
REP01-06
1
Q
start of REP01
what is the normal duration of equine pregnancy
A
342d
(321-385d)
2
Q
name 3 ways to monitor pregnancy
A
- clinical exam
- transrectal or transabdominal scanning
- biochem/haematology (SAA/hormonal assays)
3
Q
name 5 signs of pregnancy complications
A
- vaginal discharge
- colic
- ventral abdominal swelling
- premature mammary gland development/lactation
- systemic illness
4
Q
death of embryo before this day is called early embryonic death (EED)
A
< 42d
5
Q
name 3 ways to prevent early embryonic death (EED)
A
- reduction in causal factors
- good breeding management (caslicks)
- Buserelin (shown to increase preg rates)
6
Q
name 3 risk factors for prepubic tendon rupture/abdominal hernia in the pregnant mare
A
- twins
- trauma
- hydrops
7
Q
name the 5 parts of management for a pregnant mare with prepubic tendon rupture/abdominal hernia
A
- box rest
- support
- analgesia
- reduce haemorrhage
- monitor to return
8
Q
name the 2 types of hydrops that can occur in prengnant mare
A
- hydrops allantois
- hydrops amnion
9
Q
name 4 clinical signs of hydrops in pregnant mare
A
- enlarged abdomen
- colic
- premature mammary development
- anorexia
10
Q
what is the treatment for hydrops in the pregnant mare
A
gradual transcervical fluid drainage
11
Q
how to diagnose uterine torsion in pregnant mare
A
rectal palpation
12
Q
name 3 treatments for uterine torsion in pregnant mare
A
- rolling under GA
- laparotomy
- standing flank laparotomy
13
Q
the failure of foetus between these days is considered an abortion
A
between 40-300d
14
Q
name 3 infectious causes of abortion
A
- Equine Herpes Virus 1
- Equine Viral Arteritis
- Placentitis
15
Q
name the cause of infectious abortion
sporadic outbreaks ‘abortion storms’;
spread through resp disease in young adults and reactivation of latent carriers;
usually in last 3rd of gestation;
fresh foetus or weak viraemic foals born
A
Equine Herpes Virus 1
16
Q
name the cause of infectious abortion
severe illness in dam followed by abortion in 7-10d;
CS: fever, lethargy, depression, conjunctivitis, nasal discharge;
spread via mating, teasing, AI, aborted foetal material and via resp route;
stallions can silently shed disease - major source of infection;
NOTIFIABLE disease
A
Equine Viral Arteritis
17
Q
name the cause of infectious abortion
ascending bacterial infection most common;
haematogenous, focal mucoid (nocardioform) and multifocal also occur;
Strep equi subsp. zooepidemicus, E. coli, Klebsiella pneumonia, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa
A
placentitis
18
Q
name 3 risk factors for placentitis
A
- poor perineal conformation or cervical defects
- older multiparous mares
- previous abortion or placentitis
19
Q
name 4 ways to diagnose placentitis
A
- transrectal u/s (CTUP and dluid appearance)
- inflammatory markers
- hormone assays
- milk electrolytes
20
Q
name 3 treatments for placentitis
A
- broad-spectrum abx (TMPS or Pen/Gen)
- Altrenogest (Regumate)
- NSAIDs (fibrocoxib or phenylbutazone)
21
Q
name 4 non-infectious causes of abortion
A
- placental insufficiency
- twinning
- cord abnormalities
- poor health of dam
22
Q
if twinning is undetected, when will most abortions occur
(either without warning or premature lactation)
A
8-10mo
23
Q
how are 95% of twins managed?
A
manual crushing
(before day 30)
24
Q
name 4 ways of managing twins after day 30 of gestation
A
- termination
- transvaginal u/s guided aspiration
- thoracic compression
- cranio-cervical dislocation
25
when does transvaginal u/s guided aspiration have the best success rates for twin management
before day 40
26
when does thoracic compression have the best success rates for twin management
(compression of foetus against pelvis)
between days 55-75
27
what days can cranio-cervical dislocation be performed transrectally for management of twins
60-70d
28
what days can cranio-cervical dislocation be performed surgically for management of twins
70-150 d
29
how to induce abortion between 5-35 days of gestation?
single prostaglandin (PG) injection
30
how to induce abortion between 35-70 days of gestation?
daily PG injections for 3 days
31
how to induce abortion after 300 days of gestation?
oxytocin, PG, dexamethasone
(or combo)
32
between what days of gestation is there no reliable method of inducing abortion via drugs
70-300
33
# start of REP06
when do most foalings occur
at night
34
when does mammary development occur in relation to parturition
2-6wks before
35
when does relaxation of perineal ligaments and muscles occur in relation to parturition
1-3wks prior
36
when does waxing of teats occur in relation to parturition
48-72h prior
37
when does milk leakage occur in relation to parturition
12-24h
38
when does vulva relaxation occur in relation to parturition
0-24h prior
39
describe the changes in calcium, K+, and Na+ levels seen prior to parturition
1. Ca in milk increases
2. K+ increases
3. Na+ decreases
40
when should Caslick be opened to prevent severe perineal tears
4wks prior to parturition
41
why should parturition NOT be induced
HPA axis matures in final 3d of pregnany
(foal will be dysmature)
42
what does stage 1 of parturition terminate with?
rupture of chorioallantoic membrane and release of allantoic fluid
43
most foals are delivered how long after chorioallantoic membrane ruptures
20-30min
44
what is the most common cause of dystocia in mares
abnormal foetal posture
45
name 4 indications for intervention during foaling
1. no progress toward delivery after 15-20min after chorioallantois rupture
2. evidence of 'red bag'
3. progress toward delivery abruptly stops
4. mare becomes acutely painful or exhibits signs of shock
46
name 3 ways to stop mare contracting for internal examinations for assisted parturition
1. clenbuterol
2. epidural
3. place NG tube
47
name 4 options for managing dystocia
1. assisted vaginal delivery
2. controlled vaginal delivery (under GA)
3. C-section
4. foetotomy
48
# name the management option for dystocia
attempted with mare awake and either standing or recumbent;
foetus lined up or oriented normally in birth canal or in posterior position with both hind limbs extended
assisted vaginal delivery (AVD)
49
# name the management option for dystocia
GA used to facilitate repositioning of foetus into correct orientation to allow for vaginal delivery;
elevation of anaesthetised mare's hindquarters may be beneficial to make it easier to reposition foetus;
liberal application of obstetrical lube along side of foetus and within uterine cavity will help repositioning and extraction of foetus
controlled vaginal delivery (CVD)
50
what does a 'redbag' delivery indicate in the foaling mare
premature placental separation
| (foal is suffocating!)
51
how many days post-foaling oes uterine involution occur?
6-10 days
52
when is the first oestrus post-foaling?
6-7d post-foaling
| (ovulation by day 9-11)
53
how long does it usually take for the chorioallantois to be passed following foaling
within 3h
54
name 4 risk factors for retained foetal membranes
1. abnormal foaling - abortion, dystocia, placentitis
2. previous history of RFM
3. Fresian mares
4. mares >15y
55
what is the initial treatment for retained foetal membranes
tie up the placenta
low dose oxytocin every hour
56
# name the technique for treating retained foetal membranes
instilling large volumes of fluid directly into the allantoic cavity
Burns Technique
57
# name the technique for treating retained foetal membranes
instilling water directly into umbilical cord vessels
Dutch Method
58
name 4 things that should be done/given following removal of retained foetal membranes
1. large volume uterine lavage
2. broad spectrum abx
3. NSAIDs
4. tetanus prophylaxis
59
foetal membranes retained longer than this is associated with increased risk of metritis which can lead to endotoxaemia, laminitis and death
greater than 6h
60
what is the most common cause of peri-partum haemorrhage?
| (often fatal)
uterine artery rupture
61
name 5 clinical signs of peri-partum haemorrhage
1. colic
2. tachycardia with weak pulse
3. pale mucous membranes
4. laboured breathing
5. evidence of circulatory collapse
62
name 4 ways to diagnose peri-partum haemorrhage
1. clinical presentation
2. abdominocentesis
3. haematology
4. rectal palpation (broad ligament haematoma palpable)
63
# name the degree of perineal laceration
involves mucosa, submucosa and skin of dorsal aspect of vestibule
first degree
64
# name the degree of perineal laceration
extends through musculature of constrictor vulvae muscle and perineal body, compromising ability of these muscles to constrict vestibule ;
causes perineum to sink cranially and ventrally, predisposing to pneumovagina and urine pooling
second degree
65
what is the treatment for second degree perineal lacerations
vestibuloplasty
66
# name the degree of perineal laceration
rectovestibular laceration;
tearing of vestibular and sometimes vaginal wall and disruption of perineal body, anal sphincter and rectal wall;
results in common opening between rectum and vestibule;
usually allows faecal contamination of vagina
third degree
67
what is the surgical treatment for third degree perineal lacerations
reconstruction of rectovaginal shelf
(need to wait 4-6wks bc tissues inflamed and oedematous)
68
this is when the tissue between the rectum and vestibule is perforated but perineal body remains intact
rectovestibular fistula
69
when is the best time to examine for cervical lacerations?
during dioestrus
70
name 3 causes of agalactia/dysgalactia
1. idiopathic
2. ergot alkaloid induced toxicity
3. systemic illness
71
name 3 treatments for agalactia/dysgalactia
| (supplement foals with colostrum and milk)
1. oxytocin
2. domperidone
3. sulpiride
72
# start of REP01
name the 4 paired accessory sex glands
1. ampullae
2. seminal vesicles
3. prostate
4. bulbourethral glands
73
# name the accessory sex gland
nourishes, activates, cleanses sperm
ampullae
74
# name the accessory sex gland
produce gel portion
seminal vesicle
75
# name the accessory sex gland
secretions 'clean' urethra
prostate
76
# name the accessory sex gland
cleans, lubricates, improve longevity of spermatozoa
bulbourethral gland
77
name the 7 parts of a breeding soundness exam in a stallion
1. identification
2. history
3. general clinical exam
4. exam of external genitalia
5. exam per rectum
6. evaluation of libido and mating ability
7. evaluation of semen quality
78
# name the pre-breeding test
use minitip swab, in Amies charcoal medium, check expiry date, send to authorised lab for PCR;
swab urethral orifice, fossa, prepuce and (ideally) pre-ejaculatory fluid if safe to do so
contagious equine metritis (CEM)
79
name 3 causes of small testes
1. hypoplasia
2. degeneration
3. retained testicle
80
name 3 causes of large testes
1. testicular torsion
2. orchitis
3. neoplasia
81
name 3 testicular tumours of gram cells
1. teratoma
2. seminoma
3. carcinoma
82
name 2 testicular tumours of sex-cord stromal cells
1. Leydig cell tumours
2. sertoli cell tumours
83
what is the most common, 'classic' testicular tumour
teratoma
84
this is the term for a horse with no testicles apparent but exhibits stallion-like behaviour
rig
85
what hormone can be tested to diagnose a 'rig'
(no testicles apparent but exhibits stallion-like behaviour)
anti-mullerian hormone
86
# name the penile abnormality
persistent ejaculation;
usually after phenothiazine use
priapism
87
# name the penile abnormality
failure to withdraw non-erect penis;
after preputial trauma;
or caused by chronic grass sickness/botulism
penile prolapse
88
# name the penile abnormality
the penis swells and is constricted by the prepuce;
impaired venous/lymphatic drainage:
oedema > cellulitis > necrosis > gangrene ;
treatment: hydrotherapy, NSAIDs, diuretics, penile support, surgery
paraphimosis
89
# name the penile abnormality
inflammation of the glans penis and prepuce;
consider EHV-3, CEM, or other bacteria or fungi
balanoposthitis
90
name the 4 common neoplasias of the penis
1. squamous cell carcinomas
2. melanomas
3. viral papillomas
4. sarcoids
91
name 4 treatments for penile neoplasia
1. topical 5-fluorouracil
2. cryotherapy
3. CO2 laser resection
4. surgical resection
92
name 10 causes of lack of libido in male horses
1. genetics
2. BCS
3. age
4. systemic disease
5. psychic factors
6. musculoskeletal disease
7. inappropriate mount mare
8. management factors
9. overuse
10. low LH levels
93
what should the total progressive motility of sperm be?
greater than 60%
94
what stain should be used for morphological evaluation of semen
eosin-nigrosin stain
95
name 4 causes of haemospermia
(likely to afect fertility)
1. infection of the tract
2. trauma
3. neoplasia
4. cystic calculi in bladder (uncommon)
96
name 4 primary abnormalities (spermatogenesis) of sperm
1. head/acrosome defects
2. bent mid-pieces
3. proximal cytoplasmic droplets
4. tail stump defects
97
name 2 secondary abnormalities (in duct system) of sperm
1. distal cytoplasmic droplets
2. kinked tails
98
name 2 tertiary abnormalities (in vitro) of sperm
1. detached heads
2. kinked tails
99
# start of REP02
name 3 reasons to castrate a horse
1. behavioural modification
2. prevent breeding
3. pathology
100
when should a horse be castrated?
1-2y
101
why is vaccination status important prior to castrating a horse
tetanus prophylaxis
102
what should be given to a horse that has not been previously immunised with tetanus toxoid prior to castration?
tetanus antitoxin and tetanus toxoid
103
what is the best time of year to castrate a horse
spring and autumn
(less flies and weather is better)
104
what pre-op drugs should be given before a castration
1. NSAIDs (phenylbutazone, flunixin meglumine)
2. abx (penicillin)
105
what sedation should be used for a standing castration
1. alpha-2 agonist (detomidine or romifidine)
2. + an opioid (butorphanol)
106
name 4 types of patients that are NOT good candidates for standing castration
1. mules
2. donkeys
3. small ponies/horses
4. stallions with temperamental behaviour during pre-op testicular palpation
107
# name the castration equipment
used to achieve haemostasis and simultaneously excise testis;
apply perpendicular to spermatic cord and placed 'nut-to-nut' so cutting side is closer to the testicle
emasculators
108
name the 3 types of emasculators
1. Serra
2. Reimer
3. Henderson drill
109
# name the type of emasculator
haemostasis achieved by compression, stretching and tearing of tissues;
spermatic cord simultaneously crushed and transected by single closing movement of jaws
Serra Emasculators
110
# name the type of emasculator
haemostasis achieved by compression of tissues;
transection performed by operator at later stage using separate handle on device
Reimer Emasculator
111
# name the type of emasculator
forceps fit into a battery-powered drill;
forceps attach to spermatic cord proximal to testicle and spun until testicle is removed;
haemostasis is achieved by crushing and elastic recoil of arterial walls
Henderson Castration
112
name the 4 surgical options for castration
1. open castration
2. closed castration
3. semi-closed castration
4. cryptorchid castration
113
name the 2 benefits of open castration
1. fast and technically easy
2. ideal for standing castrations
114
name 2 drawbacks of open castration
1. no ligatures (incr risk of post-op haemorrhage and eventration)
2. parietic tunic not removed (incr risk of hydrocoele formation)
115
name 2 benefits of closed castration
1. parietal tunic not entered before ligation (reduced risk of peritoneal contamination)
2. placement of ligature ensures better haemostasis and reduces chances of eventration
116
name 2 drawbacks of closed castration
1. only performed under GA
2. ligature acts as foreign body, incr risk of local infection
117
how long should emasculators be left in place?
varies!
at least 1min per year of horse's age
118
what type of castration should be used for donkeys
closed or semi-closed under GA
119
name 7 possibe castration complications
1. haemorrhage
2. oedema
3. infection
4. evisceration
5. inadvertent penile damage
6. hydrocele
7. persistent masculine behaviour
120
name 5 sources of haemorrhage as a castration complication
1. testicular artery (most common)
2. pampiniform plexus
3. small capillaries in skin and subcutaneous tissue
4. cremaster muscle
5. pudendal vessel
121
how to treat haemorrhage as a castration complication
application of forceps or emasculator to spermatic cord
(until following day)
122
name 4 treatments for oedema as a castration complication
1. open sealed wounds
2. rigorous exercise
3. NSAIDs
4. hydrotherapy (cold-hosing)
123
# name the castration complication
infection of spermatic cord remnant;
aka 'scirrhous cord';
may have variety of CS including: fever, scrotal swelling, lameness, incisional discharge, and/or granulation tissue protruding from incision
septic funiculitis
124
how to treat septic funiculitis as a castration complication
re-establish drainage and abx;
surgical removal of infected portion of spermatic cord if unresponsive
125
how to treat omental evisceration (escape of omentum through scrotum) as a castration complication
emasculation of prolapsed omentum as far as proximally possible
126
# name the castration complication
accumulation of fluid in vaginal tunic due to inadequate resection of parietal tunic or predisposed by open castration
hydrocele
127
# Start of REP03
what percent of the vulva should be below the level of ischium
at least 80%
128
name 5 things to check the vagina for with a speculum
1. external os of cervix
2. varicose veins
3. urovagina
4. perineal tears
5. hymen remnants
129
name the 3 main categories of fertility problems in the mare
1. failure to show signs of oestrus
2. persistent oestrus
3. failure to conceive
130
name 5 possible causes of atrophied ovaries leading to failure to show signs of oestrus
1. age
2. emaciation
3. parasitism
4. disease
5. stress
131
name 5 reasons for failure to show signs of oestrus in mares with normal-sized ovaries
1. siletn heat
2. pregnancy
3. early embryonic loss
4. failure of luteal regression
5. dioestrus ovulation
132
what is the most common type of tumour found on equine ovaries;
often produce testosterone and lead to mare exhibiting stallion-like behaviour
granulosa (thecal) cell tumours
133
what hormone do granulosa (thecal) cell tumours of the mare ovaries test positive to?
Anti-Mullerian Hormone
134
what is the standard treatment of granulosa (thecal) cell tumours of mare ovary
surgical removal
135
# name the repro condition of mares
degeneration of the uterus;
incidence incr with age;
may not support a pregnancy;
detected on biopsy;
no effective treatment
endometrosis
136
name 4 histopathological features of endometrosis
1. lymphatic distension and lacunae
2. cystic glandular distension
3. periglandular fibrosis
4. chronic inflammatory changes
137
# name the type of uterine cyst
protruding into lumen
lymphatic
138
# name the type of uterine cyst
within wall
endometrial
139
how to treat uterine cysts
laser, electrocautery or surgical excision
140
name 3 causes of endometritis
1. venereal disease
2. chronic uterine infection (CUI)
3. persistent mating-induced endometritis (PMIE)
141
what is the organism causing contagious equine metritis (CEM)?
notifiable;
rare in UK
Taylorella equigenitalis
142
name the 3 'seals' that need to be functional to prevent chronic uterine infection
1. vulval lips
2. vestibulovaginal junction
3. cervix
143
what type of semen is most likely to cause persistent mating-induced endometritis
frozen
| (frozen > chilled > natural)
144
name 2 surgical options to correct pneumovagina to prevent endometritis
1. Caslick's procedure
2. perineo(vestibulo)plasty
145
name 3 surgical options to correct urovagina to prevent endometritis
1. urethral extension
2. caudal retraction of transverse fold
3. uteropexy
146
name 3 treatments for endometritis
1. flush with sterile saline/Hartmann's
2. oxytocin
3. abx infusion (penicillin or gentamycin)
147
# start of REP04
how long is oestrus in a horse
3-8d
148
how long is dioestrus in a horse
14-18d
149
what hormone is the CL lysed by?
released from endometrium at day 15 if no embryo detected
PGF2 alpha
150
name 6 options for oestrus suppression
1. altrenogest (synthetic progesterone)
2. GnRH vaccine
3. intra-uterine devices: marble, UPOD
4. plant oils by intrauterine infusion
5. ovariectomy
6. pregnancy
151
# name the option for oestrus suppression
synthetic progesterone - inhibits secretion of LH via neg feedback on HPA;
licensed for use during transitional period for short periods;
contraindicated in mares with uterine infection;
absorbed through skin so WEAR GLOVES
Regumate
(Altrenogest)
152
# name the option for oestrus suppression
removes stimulus of the pituitary to produces FSH and LH;
no follicle growth and no ovulation;
ovaries anoestrus-like;
may still get behavioural oestrus despite apparent ovarian inactivity;
2 injections, 4wks apart
anti-GnRH vaccination
153
# name the option for oestrus suppression
inserted and removed during oestrus;
mimic early pregnancy and prevent PGF2alpha;
efficacy moderate for up to 3mo;
removal recommended
marble
154
# name the option for oestrus suppression
self-assembling magnetic device;
easy to insert and remove during oestrus or dioestrus;
mechanism unknown;
efficacy good for 2-3mo;
removal recommended
Upod
155
name 2 ways to advance breeding season
1. put under lights for 16h a day for 2mo (reduces melatonin production)
2. provide blast of light for 2h approx. 9h after darkness falls
156
once in the transitional period, what drug can be used to advance the breeding season
progesterone (10d)
157
name 2 drugs that can be used for induction/synchronisation of oestrus
1. prostaglandin
2. altrenogest
158
name 2 drugs for the induction of ovulation
1. human chorionic gonadotrophin
2. synthetic gonadotrophin-releasing hormones (deslorelin, buserelin)
159
# name the drug for induction/synchronisation of oestrus
causes lysis of the CL;
oestrus returns 1-5d later;
not effective in oestrus or within 5d post-ovulation;
sweating, abdominal cramps common;
also causes abortion!
Prostaglandin
(cloprostenol)
160
# name the drug for induction/synchronisation of oestrus
give daily in feed for 10d then withdraw;
oestrus should follow 3-5d later;
may occasionally ovulate during Tx
Altrenogest
161
# name the drug for induction/synchronisation of oestrus
LH-like activity;
given IV or IM;
induces ovulation if follicle >35mm w/in 36-48h as long as mare fully in season;
'resistance' can develop;
most commonly used in chilled semen or natural service protocols
human chorionic gonadotrophin
162
# name the drug for induction/synchronisation of oestrus
synthetic gonadotrophin-releasing hormone;
IM when follicle >30mm as long as mare is in full standing oestrus;
ovulation occurs 38-42h;
most commonly used in frozen semen protocols
Deslorelin injection
163
# name the drug for induction/synchronisation of oestrus
synthetic gonadotrophin-releasing hormone;
IV when follicle >40mm and full standing oestrus;
ovulation should occur w/in 24h;
less commonly used
Buserelin
164
name 4 benefits of AI in horses
1. more stallion choice
2. lower risk of disease transmission
3. lower risk of injury to stallion/mare
4. no requirement for mare to travel
165
name 4 disadvantages of AI in horses
1. more expensive
2. more vet intervention needed
3. probably lower preg rates achieved
4. not permitted in TBs in UK
166
what is the longevity of sperm in natural service
48-72h
167
what is the longevity of sperm in chilled semen
12-48h
168
what is the longevity of sperm in frozen semen?
6-24h
169
what 3 things should be evaluated in the mare on each visit for chilled/frozen semen AI protocols
1. follicle development
2. endometrial oedema
3. cervical relaxation
170
name 3 ways to assess cervical tone
1. visual examination with speculum and torch
2. digital palpation
3. rectal palpation
171
the best pregnancy rates are achieved by inseminating the mare with chilled semen at what time in relation to ovulation?
24h prior
172
at what day is sexing of the foetus possible via u/s
day 60-70
173
what hormone should be present in the blood from day 45-95 to indicate pregnancy
(will persist even if pregnancy is lost)
eCG
(equine chorionic gonadotrophin)
174
what hormone is produced by foetal gonads and confirms the live foal is present after 120d
oestrone sulphate
