prevmed 2 test review Flashcards

1
Q

define distillation

A

process of distilling plant forms including evaporation and condensation

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2
Q

what is FAC

A

Free Available Chlorine

Chlorine available in the form of hypochlorous acid and hypochlorite ions

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3
Q

which is the test to detect coliform and e. coli in potable water
**EPA approved **

A

colilert and colisure

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4
Q

harmless bacteria that live in soil, water as well as guts of animals

A

total coliform

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5
Q

fecal coliform found in the intestines in animals and humans

A

e coli

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6
Q

who is responsible for the shipboard potable water system including treatment facilities and process to assure safe drinking water is available

Design, construct, maintain

A

NAVSEASYSCOM

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7
Q

who promulgates instructions for ship to shore potable water connections and for providing potable water from approved source when ship is at a naval facility

A

NAVFACENGCOM

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8
Q

what is the CO responsibilities for potable water surveillance

A

water sanitation bill

procedures for receipt, transfer, treatment, storage, distribution and surveillance

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9
Q

how many gallons per man per day for new ship construction

A

50 gal per man per day

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10
Q

what are water hours per man per day

A

no less than 2 gal per man per day

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11
Q

what type of water does marine sanitation devices use

A

sea water

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12
Q

types of water distillation

A

steam
waste heat
vapor compression

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13
Q

type of distillation uses electrical energy

A

vapor compression

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14
Q

type of distillation uses diesel engine jacket water

A

waste heat

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15
Q

types of reverse osmosis (RO) and what additional testing is required per pass

A

single- additional disinfection (chlorination or brominating)
Triple- none. better than distilled

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16
Q

what standard must potable water tank coating meet

A

NSF and ANSI

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17
Q

what do vents and over flow lines do

A

reduce accidental contamination

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18
Q

how must sounding tubes be labeled

A

“POTABLE WATER USE ONLY”

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19
Q

what color coded are filling lines and specifications

A

dark blue
18inch from deck
turned facing downward
screw caps w/ keeper chains

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20
Q

potable water hose lockers must be

A

vermin proof
locked
18 in off deck
printed step by step instructions for disinfection of hoses and risers

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21
Q

how are potable water hoses marked and labeled

A

“POTABLE WATER ONLY” 1inch high letters every 10 feet

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22
Q

what color are valves or valve handles

A

dark blue

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23
Q

potable water connections between shore and ship must be made or supervised by whom

A

authorized shore station personnel or properly trained ship personnel/ engineers

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24
Q

what’s the minimum halogen residual requirement when water from doubtful quality

A

2.0ppm

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25
why is bacteriological testing conducted
ensure fitness for human consumption | to asses adequacy of disinfection process
26
what the frequency of monitoring for microbiological quality
weekly
27
when collecting WATER samples what are the required locations #S
400 or less-=4 400-800= 8 800 or more= 12 1/4 ice machines and ships potable water tanks (25% DUMBY)
28
halogen testing what is tested under DPD1 and DPD 4
DPD1 -FAC and TBR | DPD 4- chloramines
29
what is used to measure halogen testing? accuracy %?
color comparator =or - 10% | portable spectophotometer= + or - 2%
30
what are the sources of contamination
``` cross connections leaks in bulk heads leaks non-potable piping Improper disposal of chemical liquid potable water hoses used for non potable liquids excessive storage in water tanks contaminated raw water source inadequate disinfection transfer of water from shore barges and many more ```
31
what is the least desirable method of water disinfection and which is the disinfection of choice
``` least= Manual chloride disinfection (batch method) choice= calcium hypochlorite (HTH) ```
32
what are the halogen residual minimum measurements from an approved source? unapproved source?
Approved= 0.2ppm FAC/TBR after 30 min unapproved= 2.0 ppm FAC/TBR after 30 min
33
during chlorine dose calculation one ounce of HTH per 5000 gallons of water equals how many ppm FAC
1.0ppm FAC
34
if brominator can not achieve a TBR of 2.0 ppm water must be chlorinated by what method
batch method
35
explain disinfection method 1
``` fill tank to over flow level add chlorine to achieve 10ppm FAC hold for 24 hours drain tank refill tank w/ potable water bacteriological test neg use water ```
36
explain disinfection method 2
spray applied directly 200ppm FAC to all tank surfaces flush pipes with 10ppm FAC disinfected surface should remain in contact w/ chlorine solution for 30 minutes refill tank w/ potable water bacteriological test neg use water
37
describe "method 3" of disinfecting potable water tanks
FILL 5% TANK VOLUME W/ 50PPM FAC SOLUTION hold solution for 6 hours add potable water to chlorine solution to fill tank; hold for 24 hours drain tank refill tank w/ potable water w/ required halogen residual level bacteriological test negative use water
38
what are the 2 methods for controlling and identifying the source of taste and odor issues if problem cannot be identified first?
chlorination and steam methods
39
describe chlorination method for taste/odor issues
chlorinate to 5ppm FAC | distribute @ 2 ppm FAC
40
describe the steam method for taste/odor issues
requires NAVSEASYSCOM approval boil sample water for 1 minute to ensure proper effect if resolved then steam may be feasible not resolved then steam wont work
41
What is the strength % of HTH? How many ounce bottles? Where and how is it stored?
65-70% 6 ounce bottles Metal box w/ 3 ¼ inch holes drilled in box to release chlorine No more than 48 bottles Labeled “Hazardous material, calcium hypochlorite”
42
Water sanitation bill should consist of what?
Connection procedures (ship to shore) (ship to ship) Potable water hoses Storage tanks Disinfection procedures Halogen residual, bacteriological , temperature, pH, and salinity testing Disinfection of tanks and distribution system Distribution system Records
43
How long with the MDR maintain a potable water log?
2 years
44
MDR responsibilities for prevention of wastewater hazards
conduct visual inspections of marine sanitation devices quarterly indoctrination and periodic training concerning potential health hazards associated with human waste on-site advice when requested in event of major sewages leaks or spills must be present during clean-ups and disinfection operations involving food service spaces, living spaces, and medical spaces
45
what does CHT stand for
collection hold and transfer system
46
what are the there modes of CHT systems
restricted waters at sea in port
47
what is the most common marine sanitation device?
Type II B marine sanitation device
48
what poses the greatest danger to ship and personnel regarding CHT and wastewater
Hydrogen Sulfate (H2S) which can become explosive if not aerated must be aerated when held in tanks larger than 2000 gallons must be aerated
49
define EEBD. how long are EEBDs good for and where should they be kept
Emergency Escape breathing Device 10 minutes pump rooms must have them
50
what are gases associated with CHT
hydrogen sulfide - rotten egg smell methane ammonia carbon dioxide
51
requirements that must be strictly adhered to for CHT workers to prevent transmission of disease
personal hygiene and PPE
52
medical, food service, and berthing spaces must be disinfected with what EPA approved disinfectants? what are the 2 types?
Germicides such as phenolic type and iodine type
53
color coding for ships internal? external CHT systems?
Internal valve handles and operating levers: gold external: deck discharge same as surrounding structure
54
Waste water disposal procedures: 1. within US waters is? 2. sewage and gray water at sea? 3. in port? 4. restricted waters?
1. prohibited within 3 nautical miles 2. diverted and discharged overboard 3. CHT and discarded using SHIP WASTE OFF LOAD BARGES (SWOB) 4. sewage in CHT, gray water discarded overboard via diverter valves
55
procedures for all ship tp shore transfer facilities of CHT is under what instruction?
NAVFAC PUB 340
56
engineer officer responsibilities for ground forces water
provides sufficient potable water quantities selection water sources construct, operate and maintain
57
MDR responsibilities for ground forces water
advice CO assist Engineer Officer test Halogen and Bacteriological levels
58
what are three influences on water choice
quality quantity accessibility
59
lakes , streams , river , pond, sea ocean more accessible. Quality may be problem. More contaminated that other sources. Capable of supplying adequate quantities. Screen intakes carefully
types of surface water
60
wells and springs usually less contaminated than surface water. Difficult to determine quantities available. Located at least 30 yards upgradient from known contamination
ground water sources
61
drinking water that is sealed in bottles, packages, or other containers by commercial interest which may or may not have been treated. Must be tested and determined to be potable.
Commercial bottled water
62
4 methods of water treatment in the field
ROWPU MC lightweight medium tactical lightweight water purification tactical water purification system
63
produces 3000 gal water only used in treating fresh water non-reverse osmosis water treatment unit
MC lightweight medium tactical
64
125 gal/hour | used to purify for small units
lightweight water purifier
65
1500 gal/hour International Organization Standardization (ISO) compatible replacing Reverse Osmosis Water Purification Unit
tactical water purification system
66
different types of potable water disinfectants for ground forces? Include strength and most common.
Calcium Hypochlorite (HTH) 65-70% (most common, granular form) Sodium hypochlorite 5 or 10% (unscented bleach) Chlorine dioxide Chlorine gas Bromine Chloramines ozone UV radiation
67
Treatment for disinfection natural surface and well water
5ppm FAC after 30 minute contact time
68
The 3000 gallon tank primary means of receiving and storing what?
bulk drinking water
69
Semitrailor mounted fabric tank (SMFT) has collapsible ____ and holds how many gallons?
Rubberized tanks. 3000 or 5000 gallons
70
What are the three modules for Water Distribution and waste management System (WDWMS)? Primary means Receipt and storage of what?
Water distribution set, hpspitals, deployable medical system (DEPMEDS) bulk potable water and for wastewater management for DEPMEDS hospital under tactical conditions
71
Will replace the M107, M149 and M1112 series water trailor and sits on an M1095 trailer which allows for better transportability on and off the road than its predecessors using the family of medium tactical vehicles truck
800 gallon unit water pod system (Camel)
72
disinfecting method 1 key points for potable water containers in the field
``` chlorinate to 100ppm FAC run solution through valves keep all interior surfaces wet w/ solution for at least 60min drain into sewer rinse twice ```
73
disinfecting method 2 key points for potable water containers in the field
**water or chemical are in short supply** prepare 5 gallon of water w/ 100ppm chlorine swap ever 10 min or as necessary to keep walls wet for 1 hours run solution through valves drain rinse twice
74
alternate disinfecting method for potable water containers in the field
chlorinate to 100ppmFAC hold for 24 hours drain rinse twice
75
Denotes the number of personnel to be permanently supported in a given ship by habitability spaces, systems, fixtures, and equipment is the definition of
Accommodations
76
Refers to personnel embark aboard ship for short duration during special operations or exercises and mobilizations
Surge
77
Refers to personnel embarked for short duration who do not contribute to host ship operational capability
Transients
78
7 Habitability factors
Floor area, ventilation, heating, sanitary fixtures, water supply, lighting, color
79
berthing and medical shall be air conditioned to maintain a maximum temp of
80*F dry bulb
80
berthing, messing, normal working spaces and medical shall be maintained at a minimum of
65*F Dry bulb
81
Ventilation requirements for habitability
Designed to minimize humidity and odors. 15 per hour
82
what type of bedding is prohibited? and mattresses required to be? Can you hot bunk?
polyurethane bedding low smoke mattress. Hot bunking is prohibited
83
who will make routine sanitation inspections of toilets, lavatories, and berthing spaces?
XO, MDR, OOD, JOOD, Chief MA, DIVO, DIV CPO
84
How often must all surfaces of water closets, showers, lavatories, urinals, berthing spaces, common rooms be cleaned and disinfected?
Daily
85
Shower curtains and mats are sanitized to prevent what?
Mildew, odor, and soap accumulations
86
MDR will conduct habitability inspections and why? Report to?
At least quarterly to identify problems that may affect the health of personnel, identify discrepancies, recommend corrective action, and preform onsite training. Report to CO
87
Barber shop employee screening, sanitation and location requirements include? Prohibited items?
Medically screened for communicable diseases, were clean smock Must have hot and cold running water Use FDA/EPA approved cosmetics, tonics, lotions, bleaches, dyes, disinfectants Prohibited from treating pimples, removing ingrown hairs, common brushes, dusters, shaving mugs, shaving cannot be located in food service or berthing areas
88
Barbers should remove hair from decks by
A dustless method
89
Barbers should use compressed air which does not exceed how much psi?
15 psi
90
All instruments that come in direct contact with patrons must be cleaned and disinfected when? Not using? How often is solution changed
After each patron. Prohibit from formaldehyde cabinets and UV light. Changed weekly or visibly soiled
91
When do laundry employees who are exposed to solvents receive exams? By who? Hygiene requirements that must be adhered to? e
Pre-employment and periodically by MO or higher. | Handwashing after toilet/soiled linen and good personal hygiene
92
What are 4 major sanitary requirements for laundry facilities?
Floors cleaned at least daily by dustless method | Lint removed s necessary from bulkheads, overheads, structural supports
93
hearing protection must be worn over what dBs
84 dBs
94
What must be provided in laundry facilities for emergency use?
First aid kits
95
2 major requirements for making laundry hygienically safe when washed without bleach?
120-140*F water and using hot air dryers
96
Soiled laundry must be in what type of bags? Sorted where? What must be removed?
Impervious laundry bags. Sorting room Sharp objects
97
Contaminated laundry requirements?
Impervious double sealed bags Red outer bag and labeled “Biohazard” with universal symbol Inner bag must be hot water soluble DO NOT SORT
98
Intended to prevent the introduction and dissemination, domestically or internationally of diseases affecting humans, plants, animals
Quarantine regulations
99
QUARANTINABLE diseases
``` Plague Infectious Tuberculosis Small Pox SARS Yellow fever Diphtheria Influenza caused by novel or reemergent influenza viruses Cholera Viral Hemorrhagic Fevers ```
100
what is Cholera? bacteria that causes it? how do you get it?
acute, diarrheal illness caused by infection of the intestine by Vibrio cholerae 1/20 people get profuse watery diarrhea, vomiting and leg cramps drinking or eating contaminated w/ cholera bacterium source of contamination is usually the feces of an infected person or raw shellfish, brackish rivers or coastal waters
101
what are control methods of Cholera
active immunization w/ oral vaccines provide high levels of protection for several months case report universally required by WHO and Medical Event Report (MER) Isolation w/ enteric precautions of severely ill, HANDWASHING AND FLY CONTROL concurrent disinfection
102
Disease of animals and humans caused by bacterium, Yersinia petis bitten by a rodent flea
plague
103
forms of plaque
bubonic and pneumonic
104
form of plague in which lymphadenitis develops where flea bite fever is usually present
bubonic
105
form of plague that has extensive involvement of lungs and respiratory outbreaks
pneumonic
106
6 methods of controlling plague
education rat proofing storage and disposal of food and garbage patient isolation and concurrent disinfection clothing repellants case report universally required by WHO and MER
107
vaccination must be met prior to entering a country method of control: insect repellant, protective clothing, mosquito netting live virus vaccine transmitted by Aedes Egypti single dose over 9 months =immunity last 10+years only administered at designated clinics
Yellow fever
108
when was last naturally occurring case of small pox? | when was it globally eradicated?
october 1977 in somalia | 1979
109
Systemic viral disease generally presenting with a characteristic skin eruption within 2-4 days Usually occurred in respiratory tract or skin inoculation
Small pox
110
Quarantine Regulations of the Navy instruction
OPNAVINST 6210.2
111
Navy Entomology and pest control technology
NAVMED P 5010-8
112
Ship Sanitation Certificate Program
BUMEDINST 6210.4
113
NAVMED 6210/1, /2 /3
1. US Navy ship sanitation Control Exemption 2. notification of 30 day extension 3. US Declaration of Health Certificate
114
Quarantine requirements for US ports
Last 15 days prior to arrival has any passenger: 100*F temp or greater w/ rash, glandular swelling, jaundice or has persisted more than 48hrs Diarrhea (3+ episodes in 24hrs period Death due to illness If 1 or more conditions exist CO must notify higher authority between 12-72 hours prior to entering port
115
list the elements of TB Control Program
``` TB screening Preventive Therapy Tuberculosis Case Identification TB patient management Contact investigation ```
116
Tuberculin Skin Test method
Mantoux method
117
what are the tuberculin PPD products? which is preferred
Tubersol- preferred | Aplisol
118
bacteria that causes latent and active TB
mycobacterium tuberculosis
119
illness in which TB bacteria are multiplying and attacking a part of the body, usually the lungs
active TB disease
120
TB bacteria are alive but inactive in the body | no symptoms and don't feels like, cant spread
latent TB infection
121
vaccine for TB named after French scientist Calmette and Guerin that is rarely used in US but infants and small children in other countries where TB is common receive it
BCG
122
treatment for LATENT TB INFECTION
regimen of choice= Isoniazid (INH) and Rifapentine (RPT) weekly oral dose of INH 15mg/kg (900 max) and RPT BASED OFF WEIGHT 10-14kg; 300mg, 14-25kg(450mg), 25-32kg(600mg), 32-49kg (750mg), >50kg (900mg max) for 3 months or Rifampin (RIF) daily oral 10mg/kg max 600mg for 4 months or INH and RIF oral daily INH 5mg/kg(300mg max) and RIF 10mg/kg (600mg max) for 3 months
123
when and where should Latent TB screening be documented?
PHA and on NAVMED 6224/8
124
*** don’t know how to make this a question or wtf it is***pg 720***CIVMARS
During periodic physical exams | Individuals deemed to be at risk of acquiring TB
125
Additional screening and subsequent testing for TB may be done: as directed by combatant commander
Part of contact or outbreak investigation Clinically indicated During operational screenings As recommended by cognizant NEPMU
126
when should a chest x-ray be performed during Tb screening
if clinically indicated | rule out active TB or fiberotic changes
127
a positive TST reaction to BCG immunized individuals should be regarded as what?
Indicative of TB infection
128
``` initial isoniazid (INH) preventative therapy evaluation TB high risk classification ```
induration 5mm or greater - RECENT CLOSE CONTACT - FIBEROTIC OR CHANGES IN CHEST X-RAY CONSISTENT WITH PRIOR TB - SUSPECT ACTIVE TB
129
``` initial isoniazid (INH) preventative therapy evaluation TB medium risk classification ```
10mm induration IMMIGRATION WITHIN 5 YEARS FROM HIGH TB COUNTRIES RISK OF OCCUPATIONAL EXPOSURE TO TB CLINICAL CONDITIONS THAT PLACE AT INCREASED RISK
130
``` initial isoniazid (INH) preventative therapy evaluation TB Low risk classification ```
15mm or greater induration NO TB RISK FACTORS
131
How to administer dose for PPD Mantoux method?
``` 0.1 mL intradermal injection site clean and dry bevel up, 5-15* angle pale wheal 6-10mm appears on skin no wheal administer again ```
132
when and how to read and where to record PPD?
48-72 hours measure induration in the nearest whole mm at widest diameter NAVMED 6230/4 or DD form 2766 enter into AHLTA, MRRS or SAMS
133
prior to INH treatment what baseline test must be conducted for liver function?
SGOT/SGPT and bilirubin
134
what does SGOT mean
Serum Glutamic Oxaloacetic Transaminase
135
what does SGPT mean
Serum Glutamic-Pyruvic Transaminase
136
Monthly evaluation for INH therapy must include
``` Physical assessment (check for active TB) Adverse drug reaction counseling When to discontinue meds When to report meds Document NAVMED 6224/9 ```
137
What steps should be taken for non-compliance extended doses of INH therapy
Consult NEPMU Direct observation therapy used for patients on INH regimens given twice weekly and those having difficulty w/ treatment adherence
138
Who should people enrolled in contact investigation but separating from service be identified to and follow up with for meds?
Id: local public health department for follow-up testing Meds: VA
139
How to treat ACTIVE TB?
Chemotherapy is extremely effective and usually curative INTENSIVE PHASE: (INH,RIF,EMB) 7d/wk for 56 doses or 5d/wk for 40 doses CONTINUATION phase: (INH,RIF,EMB) 7d/wk for 126 doses or 5d/wk for 90 doses
140
instruction governing Medical Surveillance and Medical Event Reporting Technical Manual
NMCPHC-TM 6220.12 series
141
what are the primary objectives of Medical event reports
enables Navy Public Health experts to be aware of: when important medical events occur prevent and control actions taken or being considered potential impact to population proactive and offer assist to local level medical staff
142
who are medical events and disease reported to
cognizant Navy Environmental and Preventive Medicine Unit (NEPMU)
143
urgent and routine MER's must be submitted within what time frame
urgent- 24 hours | routine- 7 calendar days after identification
144
when internet access is available this is mandatory for Medical Event Reporting (MER)
Disease Reporting System internet (DRSi) no internet available routine reports submitted to NEPMU by mail urgent reports by phone, encrypted email, priority naval message
145
what COMMUNICABLE DISEASES are required to be reported wtihin 24 hours
``` Smallpox Hemorrhagic fever Influenza A, novel Plague Poliomyelitis ``` ``` Botulism Outbreak or disease cluster Anthrax Rabies, human Diphtheria Severe acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS) ``` ``` Malaria (all) Measles (Rubeola) Meningococcal Disease Tuberculosis, pulmonary Tularemia ```
146
a diagnosis, case or medical event becomes reportable once it has been classified as:
suspected probable confirmed
147
who is required to submit a Medical event report for communicable diseases?
Staff responsible for treatment of patient
148
who sets the policy for implementation plans for anthrax vaccine
DOD or US Coast Guard
149
Medical Services Immunizations and Chemoprophylaxis instruction
BUMEDINST 6230.15
150
anthrax vaccine | dose, route, booster
D: 5 shots over 18 MO (0, 4wks, 6MO, 12MO, 18MO, annual booster R: IM B: based on if needed for deployment
151
Hepatitis A | Havrix and Vaqta dose, route and consult
D: 6mo-18yrs old (0.5mL x2) 19yrs+ (1.0mL x2 @ 0 and 6mo interval) R: IM (delt) C: NEPMU for guidance concerning interchangeability if dose 2 delayed just administer, dont repeat dose 2
152
what population will be administered Hepatitis B
``` occupational exposure to blood products all healthcare workers HM and Dental schoolers contact with STD high risk area ```