Primer - all sections Flashcards by Neenet Hairapetian

Chief cells of the stomach secrete…

Lipase
Pepsinogen
Intrinsic factor
Glycoproteins

Lipase

Pepsinogen

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Parietal cells of the stomach secrete….

Lipase
Pepsinogen
Intrinsic factor
Glycoproteins

Intrinsic factor

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Mucous cells of the stomach secrete…

Lipase
Pepsinogen
Intrinsic factor
Glycoproteins and bicarbonate

Glycoproteins and bicarbonate

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Roles of gastric acid

Destruction of microorgs
Activation of pepsinogen to pepsin
Activation of IF
Denaturation of macromolecules
Faciliation of breakdown of protein and polypeptides by pepsin

All of the above

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Roles of gastrin

Acts on chief and parietal cells to stimulate HCl and pepsinogen
Stimulates gastric peristalsis

Both

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Order of small intestine sections

Jejunum, short duodenum, ileum
Short duodenum, jejunum, ileum
Ileum, jejunum, short duodenum

Short duodenum, jejunum, ileum

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Cholecystokinin stimulates…

Pancreatic secretion of zymogens
Gallbladder contraction
HCl release
A and B

A and B

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Zymogens are

Active digestive enzymes
Inactive enzyme precursors / -ogens
Another name for bile

Inactive enzyme precursors

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All of the following are zymogens except

Trypsinogen
Proelastase
Chymotrypsinogen
Procolipase
Procarboxypeptidase A and B
None of the above - all are

All are

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What is the role of bicarbonate (pancreatic)?

Buffers HCl into strong base
Buffers HCl into weaker acid
Makes HCl into stronger acid

Buffers HCl into weaker acid

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Salivary amylase works best at what pH?

8-8.5
3-4.5
1.5-3.5
6.75-7

6.75-7

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Pepsin and lipase work best at what pH?

8-8.5
3-4.5
1.5-3.5
6.75-7

1.5-3.5

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What are micelles?

Sppherical clusters of bile salts
Collections of lipid soluble dietary subcomponents surrounded by water soluble bile salts

Both

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T/F: Most of the bile salts excreted into the intestine are reabsorbed in the ileum and the salts are transported back to the liver via enterohepatic circulation.

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Which mechanism of nutrient absorption uses the energy of diffusion through a semi permeable membrane from higher to lower osmotic pressure?

Passive diffusion (simple diffusion)
Facilitated diffusion (carrier-mediated transport)
Osmosis
Active transport (solute pumping)
Filtration

Osmosis

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Which mechanism of nutrient absorption uses hydrostatic pressure to drive the movement of solutes and water through a semipermeable membrane from higher to lower hydrostatic pressure?

Passive diffusion (simple diffusion)
Facilitated diffusion (carrier-mediated transport)
Osmosis
Active transport (solute pumping)
Filtration

Filtration

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Which mechanism of nutrient absorption uses the potential energy created by a difference in nutrient concentration across a membrane to move nutrients from an area of higher to lower concentration?

Passive diffusion (simple diffusion)
Facilitated diffusion (carrier-mediated transport)
Osmosis
Active transport (solute pumping)
Filtration

Passive diffusion

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Which mechanism of nutrient absorption uses the potential energy created by a difference in nutrient concentration across a membrane to move nutrients from an area of higher to lower concentration? Even if attached to a lipid soluble membrane carrier protein?

Passive diffusion (simple diffusion)
Facilitated diffusion (carrier-mediated transport)
Osmosis
Active transport (solute pumping)
Filtration

Facilitated diffusion

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In which mechanism of nutrient absorption does a nutrient move through mucosal cell membranes against a concentration gradient?

Passive diffusion (simple diffusion)
Facilitated diffusion (carrier-mediated transport)
Osmosis
Active transport (solute pumping)
Filtration

Active transport

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Most amino acids are absorbed via…

Passive diffusion (simple diffusion)
Facilitated diffusion (carrier-mediated transport)
Osmosis
Active transport (solute pumping)
Filtration

Active transport

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Most lipid soluble compounds are absorbed via…

Passive diffusion (simple diffusion)
Facilitated diffusion (carrier-mediated transport)
Osmosis
Active transport (solute pumping)
Filtration

Passive diffusion

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Most carbs are absorbed via…

Passive diffusion (simple diffusion)
Facilitated diffusion (carrier-mediated transport)
Osmosis
Active transport (solute pumping)
Filtration

Facilitated diffusion

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GALT accounts for how much of the total number of immune cells in the body?

10-20%
30-40%
50-60%
80-90%

50-60%

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GALT provides which immunity via secretion of IgA?

cell-mediated
humoral
both

both

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Cell mediated immunity is .... while humoral immunity is .... antibodies via plasma cells...T lymphocytes T lymphocytes...antibodies

T/F: Urinary excretion of high lactulose - with normal, hight, or low mannitol - indicates small intestinal permeability

Glutathione synthesis

Homocysteine -> cystathione -> cysteine // cysteine + glutamate -> y-glutamylcysteine // y-glutamylcysteine + glycine -> glutathione

What amino acid is the primary source of fuel for enterocytes? Glycine Glutathione Glutamine Glutamate

Glutamine

Which of the following does glutamine inadequacy not result in? Thinnig of villi and decreased digestive function Decreased absorptive function Loss of intestinal barrier integrity Increased translocation of antigens and pathogens from lumen into extracellular fluid and blood None of the above

None

Parts / order of the large intestine Ascending colon > transverse colon > descending colon > sigmoid colon descending colon > transverse colon > ascending colon > sigmoid colon Ascending colon > sigmoid colon > descending colon > transverse colon Ascending colon > descending colon > transverse colon > sigmoid colon

Ascending colon > transverse colon > descending colon > sigmoid colon

Which is NOT a major function of the large intestine? ``` Digest protein Reabsorb water from digesta Absorb vitamins produced by intestinal bacteria Ferment dietary fiber Elimination ```

Digest protein

T/F: the following are examples of SOLUBLE fiber: beta glucans, gums, mucilages, pectins, hemicellulose

T/F: the following are NOT examples of INSOLUBLE fiber: celluloses, lignins, hemicellulose

Non fermentable fiber includes which of the following oat hulls methylcellulose wood pulp cellulose mucilages

A, B, C

T/F: Lactobacilli comprise about 50% of all intestinal microflora and ferment dietary fiber carbs to SCFAs

F - Bifidobacteria

T/F: Bifidobacteria suppress growth of pathogenic species by maintaining a slightly acidic colonic pH

Lactobacilli ferment dietary fiber carbohydrates to ____ and SCFAs

Lactic acid

Saccharomyces boulardii is / does all except is antagonistic to candida albicans stimulates enterocyte secretion of brush border enzymes relieves constipation stimulates GALT production and sIgA

relieves constipation

Butyrate is metabolized to ... within colonocytes propionate acetate acetyl CoA SCFAs

acetyl CoA

Which SCFA is required for the formation and maintenance of tight junctions? acetate propionate butyrate

butyrate

In breastfed infants, over ___ of intestinal bacteria consist of Bifidobacterium infantis. 50% 65% 80% 90%

90%

Wheat, onion, asparagus, chicory, banana, and artichoke are common sources of prebiotic ____ fructans oligofructoses probiotics

fructans

T/F: Fructooligosaccharides (FOS) are specifically fermented to SCFAs by Lactobacilli and are converted to lactic acid

F - Bifidobacteria and are NOT converted to lactic acid

How does acetylcholine impact digestion? intestinal smooth muscle contraction squeezes food and fluids along the GI tract stimulates release of enzymes All

All

The ability to digest dietary starches and animal fats is minimal until about how old? 4 months 6 months 1 year 5 years

6 months

Most iron is transported in the blood via the plasma carrier: a. heme. b. erritin. c. transferrin. d. albumin.

transferrin

A required prerequisite to the digestion of proteins is the HCl-dependent process called: a. hydrolysis. b. evaporation. c. denaturation. d. distillation.

denaturation

The true digestibility of dietary fatty acids is: a. 65% to 75%. b. 75% to 85%. c. 85% to 95%. d. > 95%.

95%

An example of a digestive enzyme secreted from the brush border of microvilli to help with digestion is: a. sucrase b. protease c. amylase d. hydrochlaoric acid

sucrase

Insulin... acts to stimulate glucose uptake by GLUT4 transporter in monocytes and adipocytes acts to stimulate glycogenesis in hepatocytes and myocytes glycolysis adipocyte lipoprotein lipase activity (increases triglyceride storage in adipocytes) amino acid uptake and protein synthesis in the liver and muscle inhibits glylcogenolysis and gluconeogenesis (decreasing lipolysis of stored triglycerides)

ALL

Glucagon secreted when decreased plasma glucose concentration by a-cells acts to stimulate hepatic glycogenolysis stimulates gluconeogenesis from AAs

ALL

The formation of GLYCOGEN from GLUCOSE is... Glycolysis Glycogenesis Gluconeogenesis Glycogenolysis

Glycogenesis | when high amount of glucose and ATP present / storage in muscle and liver

The conversion of glycogen (from liver and muscles) is converted to Glucose-1-phosphate then into glucose-6-phosphate during low blood glucose or stress... Glycolysis Glycogenesis Gluconeogenesis Glycogenolysis

Glycogenolysis

The process of synthesizing glucose from non-carb sources with a starting point of pyruvic acid, lactic acid, etc. is called... Glycolysis Glycogenesis Gluconeogenesis Glycogenolysis

Gluconeogenesis

First step in breaking down glucose for energy for cellular metabolism... Glycolysis Glycogenesis Gluconeogenesis Glycogenolysis

Glycolysis

Ghrelin vs leptin

ghrelin stimulates food intake / leptin signals satiety inflammation can cause leptin resistance

Adiponectin ``` enhances insulin sensitivity reduces insulin sensitivity enhances glucose homeostasis reduces glucose homeostasis A and C B and D ```

A and C

T/F: Monosaccharides (in carbs) contain either 5 carbons or 6 carbons

Common disaccharides (two monos joined together) include all of the following except: lactose fructose maltose sucrose

fructose

Glycogen, starch, and fiber are examples of... Monosaccharides Disaccharides Polysaccharides Fructose

Polysaccharides

___ are composed of monosaccharide units joined together by glycosidic bonds while ____ are long chain oligosaccharides that contain 2+ monosaccharides linked together in a repeating pattern Polysaccharides, oligosaccharides Oligosaccharides, polysaccharides Disaccharides, polysaccharides Polysaccharides, disaccharides

Oligosaccharides, polysaccharides

With AAs, ___ structures are determined by cross-linking of some of the AAs within the proteins, while ___ structures are determined by physico-chemical interactions between the AAs and surrounding water that result in precise folding into characteristic 3d conformations Primary, secondary Primary, tertiary Secondary, tertiary Tertiary, secondary

Secondary, tertiary

All of the following are conditionally essential AAs except... ``` Arginine Lysine Cysteine Glutamine Tyrosine ```

Lysine

Essential AAs

``` Arginine Histidine Isoleucine Leucine Lysine Methionine Phenylalanine Threonine Tryptophan Valine ```

Non essential AAs

``` Alanine Asparagine Aspartic acid Cysteine Glutamic acid Glutamine Glycine Proline Serine Tyrosine ```

BCAAs

Isoleucine Leucine Valine

T/F: Saturated FA have two double bonds

F | no double bonds

The most important MUFA is stearic acid palmitic acid oleic acid linoleic acid

oleic acid

Sources of palmitic acid (saturated FA) include all but: coconut oil olive oil palm oil palm kernel oil

olive oil

Sources of ___ include olive, almond, avocado, peanut, fibert, canola, pecan, and macadamia nut oils MUFA SFA PUFA

MUFA

PUFAs contain ____ double bond(s) one more than one more than 3 zero

more than one

PUFAs include all but the following: linoleic acid linolenic acid oleic acid omega 3s - EPA and DHA

oleic acid

SCFAs contain ___ carbon atoms while MCFAs contain ___ and LCFA contain ____ <3; 5-10; >14 < 6; 7-12; >14 < 5; 6-14; >16 >6; 7-12; <14

< 6; 7-12; >14

T/F: FAs can be classified by the degree of saturation of their carbon atoms OR their chain length.

T | also conformation (cis FAs or trans FAs), structural criteria like triglycerides

T/F: Borage, evening primrose, and black current oils are great examples of arachidonic acid while meats and animal products are good examples of GLAs

Purines and pyrimidines are examples of ___-containing bases in nucleotides oxygen carbon hydrogen nitrogen

nitrogen

Ribonucleosides of RNA

adenosine, guanine, cytidine, uridine

Deoxyyribonucleosides of DNA

2-deoxyadenosine ...cytidine ...guanosine ...thymidine

Which is produced in the fermentation of carbs and starches and is an important component of beverages? acetaldehyde ethanol methanol xylitol

ethanol

What is the end product of glycolysis? acetate pyruvate butyrate b-hydroxybutyrate

pyruvate

T/F: acetate is a SCFA produced from pyruvatee and during beta-oxidation of FAs

___ is a dietary organic acid that binds calcium very tightly and is found in many veggies like spinach, beet, greens, parsley.

Oxalate

T/F: Lipophilic vitamins require facilitated transport through membranes

F - hydrophilic ones do

Decreased plasma glucose levels stimulate ______ secretion by pancreatic alpha cells. a. Insulin b. Glucagon c. Glucocorticoids d. Epinephrin

glucagon

The hormone that is synthesized in adipose tissue and signals satiety is: a. adiponectin b. glucagon c. leptin d. ghrelin

leptin

The C677T base substitution in the gene that synthesizes the enyzyme methyl- tetrahydrofolate reductase is a genetic abnormality called: a. a base substitution b. a genetic anomaly c. a single nucleotide polymorphism d. an epigenetic phenomena

SNP

The structures of linoleic acid and gamma-linolenic acid differ in their: a. chain lengths. b. double bond positions. c. numbers of double bonds. d. side chain moieties.

number of double bonds 18: 2ω6 - 18 carbon bonds, 2 double bonds, double bond in 6th position 20: 3ω6 - 20 carbon bonds, 3 double bonds, double bond in 6th position

``` In the polypeptide chain of a protein, the sequential order of the amino acids is called the: a. primary structure. b. secondary structure. c. tertiary structure. d. quaternary structure. ```

primary

Vitamin reserves can become depleted because all vitamins are: a. synthesized inefficiently. b. essential nutrients. c. metabolized quickly. d. excreted rapidly.

essential nutrients

___ like carrageenan, dextrin, lecithin, and xanthan gum are used as thickening agents while ____ are used to hold food constituents together and are especially important with dietary supplements and ___ are used to suspend oily material in water. Stabilizers, binders, emulsifiers Emulsifiers, binders, stabilizers Binders, stabilizers, emulsifiers Stabilizers, emulsifiers, binders

Stabilizers, binders, emulsifiers

Fortification vs nutrification vs enrichment

Fortification - addition of nutrients to foods without adding back nutrients lost during processing / nutrient may or may not be present in the original food and can be added in greater amounts than original Nutrification - makes a food more nutritious Enrichment - adding nutrients BACK into a food that were lost during processing

Difference between enzyme and coenzyme

Unlike an enzyme, a coenzyme participates in the reaction by either transferring to the reactants an electron, reduced proton, phosphate, hydroxyl or methyl group or by accepting such a substance from the reactants, and must be regenerated.

Difference between coenzyme and cofactor

Cofactor - nutrient required by enzyme for full activation of the enzyme. Unlike a coenzyme, a cofactor functions as part of the enzyme and is not consumed by the reaction.

Coenzyme A is derived from: a. Pantothenic acid b. Pyrodoxine c. Cobalamin d. Tetrahydrobiopterin

Pantothenic. acid

Glycolysis is considered a/an ___ process anaerobic aerobic

anaerobic because oxygen isn't involved

Glycolysis is energy producing or energy consuming?

Energy producing

Which cells lack mitochondria and can't metabolize pyruvate to CO2?

Erythrocytes | so pyruvate is converted to lactate

What is the TCA cycle?

Metabolic pathway that oxidizes acetate derived from the acatabolism. of FAs, AAs, and carbs to CO2

The TCA cycle is aerobic or anaerobic?

aerobic - requires ability to transfer excess electrons to oxygen molecules via mitochondrial cytochromes (ETC) to regenerate NAD+ and FAD

What is the pentose monophosphate shunt?

Alternate ppathway of glucose catabolism that is also involved in the biosynthesis of pentose sugars (like ribose) and NADPH2 through the production of ribulose 5P.

What is gluconeogenesis?

glucose synthesized de novo from lactate pyruvate or alanine in the liver (90%) and kidney (10%)

T/F: in general gluconeogenesis is the reverse of glycolysis

T However, 3 irreversible glycolytic enzymes (glucokinase, phosphofructokinase, and pyruvate kinase) must be bypassed via additional enzymatic pathways that operate only during gluconeogenesis in order to avoid futile cycling.

Pyruvate kinase catalyzes the irreversible conversion. of PEP to pyruvate and needs to be bypassed in two steps. Describe... HINT: pyruvate --> oxaloacetate --> phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP)

Pyruvate --> oxaloacetate (requires acetylCoA to activate pyruvate carboxylase enzyme (pyruvate carboxylase also requires biotin) oxaloacetate --> PEP (via PEP carboxylase requires 1 molecule of high energy GTP)

Phosophofructokinase catalyzes the irreversible conversion of fructose 6P to fructose 1,6-PP is bypassed by which enzyme?

fructose 1,6-biphosphatase

Glucokinaase catalyzes the irreversible formation of glucose. 6-P is bypassed by which enzyme?

glucose 6-phosphatase produces glucose and inorganic phosphate

Alanine cycle

pyruvate aminated to produce alanine alanine deaminated to reform pyruvate gluconeogenesis produces glucose from pyruvate and glucose circulated to muscle cells

Cori cycle

glucose metabolized to pyruvate and then lactate in muscles | lactate is converted back to pyruvate and then glucose (via gluconeogenesis)

Ketones result from the metabolismof: a. fatty acids. b. simple sugars. c. amino acids. d. complex carbohydrates.

fatty acids

Glycolysis is a metabolic process that involves: a. glycogen synthesis b. the conversion of glucose to glycogen c. the conversion of glucose to pyruvate. d. the conversion of fatty acids to ATP

c. the conversion of glucose to pyruvate.

T/F: the effects of nutrients are dose-dependent and unidirectional.

F... curvilinear. relationships between intake and. outcome (hormesis)

What is pharmacokinetics vs pharmacodynamic

Pharmacokinetics - absorption, distribution, biotransformation and excretion behavior of an ingested. substance Pharmacodynamics - describes the functions of a nutrient and the relationships between a nutrient's concentration in a body fluid or at a tissue site and the biological effects of the nutrient

Most nutrients exhibit ____ pharmacokinetics linear nonlinear

nonlinear - limiting the ability to predict potential beneficial or toxic effects of low or high intakes

Bioavailability

the extent to which an ingested nutrient reachs its site of physiological action net bioavail - balance of absorption efficiency, rate of delivery to the site of physiologic action, and relative rates of metaboism and excretion prior to arrival at the site of physiologic action

Distribution is...

dissemination via circulation into interstitial and intracellular fluids

About ___ of ingested non fiber carbs and ___ of absorbed. AAs are taken up and metabolized by hepatocyes, preventing deliver to general systemic circulation 10%; 50-80% 40%; 50-80% 80%; 20-40% 100%; 80-100%

40%; 50-80%

Biotransformation

To increase water solubility and facilitate excretion often called detoxification reactions, classified as phase 1 and 2 reactions

Thermal effect of food

INCREASE in energy expenditure that results from the metabolic cost of food digestion and the absorption and processing of ingestednutrients (7-10% of. the energy content of the food consumed)

Digestion of dietary protein and absorption of the products. of protein digestion releases ___ of the energy contained in proteins ...with carbs ...with fat

Protein - 15-30% Carbs - 6-8% Fat - 2-3%

Dietary protein requirement during first year of life 0. 8 g/kg body weight 1. 0 g/kg body weight 1. 4 g/kg body weight 1. 7 g/kg body weight 2. 0 g/kg body weight

1.7

Dietary protein requirement at 10 y/o 0. 8 g/kg body weight 1. 0 g/kg body weight 1. 4 g/kg body weight 1. 7 g/kg body weight 2. 0 g/kg body weight

1.0

Dietary protein requirement at 20 y/o 0. 8 g/kg body weight 1. 0 g/kg body weight 1. 4 g/kg body weight 1. 7 g/kg body weight 2. 0 g/kg body weight

0.8

Kwashiorkor is chronic ___ deficiency Fat Protein Vitamin C B6

Protein

Vitamin required for decarboxylation of alpha keto acids, transketolase reactions, and conversion of carbs to CO2 and energy ``` B1 B2 B3 B5 B6 ```

Thiaminase is...

enzyme found in raw seafood, decreasing thiamin content of foods

Thiamin deficiency is called

beriberi

Dry vs wet beriberi

dry affects nervous system; wet affects heart and circulation

Korsakoff syndrome

chronic thiamin deficiency plus alcoholism - mental confusion, memory loss, delusions, amnesia or Wernicke disease (apathy, delusion, delirium) Can appear concurrently as Wernicke-Korsakoff - alcoholic dementia

Riboflavin is a precursor for the synthesis of ___ and is required for the function of ETC and other reduction reactions, oxidation of AAs and FAs, among others ``` FAD FAD+ NAD NAD+ NADH ```

FAD

Chronic riboflavin deficiency produces all but the following ``` chelosis dermatitis dementia glossitis blurred vision light sensitivity eczema on face / genitalia ```

dementia

A small amount of niacin is synthesized from which AA? leucine valine tryptophan tyrosine

tryptophan

Niacin deficiency produces ____

pellagra

Intake greater than ___ of niacin inhibits VLDL production and may reduce serum total cholesterol

1 g

T/F: The bioavailability of folate is markedly increased when ingested as synthetic folic acid

Avidin is found in ___ and inhibits absorption of biotin

eggs

Dry scaly skin, nausea, anorexia, and seborrhea is found in chronic deficiency of what vitamin

biotin

Burning food syndrome is found with deficiency of what vitamin?

B5 / pantotheni acid

___ is essential after conversion (to PLP) for protein and AA metabolism, NT synthesis, immune function, hormone synthesis, heme synthesis, remethylation, etc.

Remethylation refers to ____ to _____ using B6

MTFH + homocysteine; THF + methionine

Inadequate production of ____ inhibits B12 absorption in the intestine HCl protease intrinsic factor biotin

Among the following foods, the nutrient density of vitamin D is greatest in: a. cheese. b. salmon. c. green leafy vegetables. d. beef.

salmon

Fat-soluble vitamins are absorbed and then distributed throughout the body to cells via: a. free fatty acids. b. lipases. c. lipoproteins. d. lymphatics

lipases

Alkoxyglycerols are found in... cod liver oil fish oil shark liver oil salmon

shark liver oil

Allicin vs allicic sulfides

Allicin reduces serum total cholesterol concentration and BP; garlic and onions allicic sulfides have antimutagenic and anticarcinogenic properties that confer some protection against immune and cardiovascular disease, activate liver detox, inhibit cholesterol synthesis, reduce BP, improve immune response, increase resistance to infection and parasites; found in garlic onions leeks challots and chives

Arabinogalactans...

long, densely-branched polysaccharides; plants (leeks, carrots, radish, pear, maize, wheat, red grape, tomato, ragweed, sorghum, bamboo grass, coconut, echinacea purpurea, curcuma) may inhibit tumorigenesis and metastasis

Beta-glucans are derived from various species of plants seeds mushrooms animals

mushrooms; stimulate phagocytosis and natural killer cell activity beta d glucans from oats act as soluble dietary fiber

Biochanin A

water insoluble isoflavone in red clover; weak estrogenic, antioxidant, anticarcinogenic, hypolipidemic properties; may inhibit bone resorption

Carotenoids - which form does not exhibit vitamin A activity alpha beta delta epsilon

delta

T/F: carrageenans are polysulfated straight-chain galactans derived from red seaweed that are absorbable by human enzymes; may be hypocholesterolemic

F - they resist digestion by human enzymes

Catechins, with antimicrobial/viral/chemoprotective properties, are found in greatest amounts in which of the two green tea and black tea green tea and grape leaves grape leaves and black tea seeds and green tea

green tea and grape leaves

About what percentage of curcuminoids ingested are absorbed? 30% 50% 80% 100%

50%

Bioflavonoids include... ``` Flavonoids Isoflavins Terpenes A and B B and C ```

A and B

Flavnoids include

Hesperidin, naringin, nobiletin, tageretin, quercitin, rutin, narirutin 1500 flavonoids inhibit estrogen synthesis; potent antioxidants; inhibit cell adhesion, growth factor activity, cell proliferation (atherosclerosis and cancer)

Glucomannan is a form of...

soluble fiber

Glucosinolates are...

Found in cruciferous veggies; ppowerful activators of liver and GI detox enzymes, regulate cytokine secretion, inhibit enzymes that pronote tumor growth in liver, breast, colon, stomach, lunch, esophagus

I-3-C - converted by stomach acid to ____

diindolymethane (DIM) and indole carbazole

Isoflavones and lignans act as phytoestrogens phytoprogesterone testosterone antinutrients

phytoestrogens help protect from breast, uterine, and ovarian cancer

Octacosanol may be hypoglycemic hypocholesterolemic antinutrient anti inflammatory

hypocholesterolemic

What are phytosterols?

Found in soybeans and other plants, inhibit absorption of dietary cholesterol and tumorigenesis in the colon, breast, and prostate

Effective antioxidants that stimulate increased glutathione synthesis and expression of glutathione reductase and peroxidases Protease inhibitors Proanthocyanidins Pycnogenol Saponons

Pycogenol

Sulforaphane works on... Phase I Phase II

Phase II - glutathione S-transferase and quinone reductase

Quercitin protects ascorbic acid from: a. oxidation. b. reduction. c. dehydrogenation. d. desaturation.

oxidation

Beta-glucans are phytonutients that are derived from various mushroom species and have specific beneficial effects for: a. cardiovascular disease b. gastrointestinal symptoms and function c. immune function d. auditory function

cardiovascular disease

Tincture vs extract vs freeze dried

tincture - liquid extracts that are not dried extract - soaking in water or alcohol then evaporated drying freeze dried - capsules have freeze dried or powdered extracts of whole or plant parts

tea vs decoction

tea - water based extraction in boiling water | decoction - boiling then straining

Aloe vera leaves are rich in what compound

1,8-dihydroxyanthacene

Which of the following is not true of thalassemia ineffective erythropoiesis leads to decreased plasma volume may result in facial deformities inherited may result in osteomalacia

A there is increased absorption

To be physically active you must get at least

20 min of vigorous activity on 3+ days per week OR | 30 min of moderate activity on 5+ days per week

Sports anemia includes all of the following except IDA pernicious anemia foot strike anemia hemodilution

pernicious anemia

omega 3 FAs are most protective against all of the following cancers except prostate colon lung renal

renal

Metformin is a common glucose-lowering med for type 2 diabetes. its primary site of action is which organ? pancreas adrenal glands kidneys liver

liver; decreases depatic glucose production and may help IR

Digstive enzyme secreted from brush border oof microovilli to aid in digestion: lactase HCl amylase protease

lactase

Digstive enzyme secreted from brush border oof microovilli to aid in digestion: lactase HCl amylase protease

lactase

Precursor to prostaglandins, thromboxanes, and leukotrienes ALA EPA DHA Arachidonic Acid

arach

RDA magnesium for adult women 500 mg/d 400 200 310

310 | men 400

Vitamin with synergistic relationship with coq10 vitamin E D A K

Mineral that enhances use of iron nickel selenium magnesium zinc

nickel

iron for pregnant woman 27 mg/d 30 18 8

Primary action of serotonin regulate blod flow, maintain muscle tone and gastric motor activity inhibit release of gastric emptying and acid secretion facilitate secretion and peristalsis relax the lower esophageal sphincter

iron for girl starting menses 18 mg/d 15 8-10 27

Forms of coq10 ubiquinol and ubiquinone ubiquinol and L-ubiquinone ubiquinol ubiquinone and ubiquinine

All of the following should be avoided in Von Willebrand disease except vitamin D vitamin E gingko biloba fish oil

vitamin D

Audited courses are eligible for how many continuing education credits for each semester hour? 12 8 15 10

T/F prealbumin is a good nutritional marker for renal failure

Which is needed in glycogenolysis B3 B5 B6 B2

Boiling foods for long periods may leach out which of the following nutrients most potassium calcium phosphorus magnesium

potassium

when in excess which of the following minerals increases urinary excretion of calcium iron copper phosphorus magnesium

phosphorus

Activation of which lymphocyte plays a major role in atopic dermatitis th1 th2 b cells NKCs

th2

Premature greying nutrients

copper and b12

cofactor in oxication and synthesis of FAs

biotin

Nutrition management once oral feeding begins for acute pancreatitis include all of the following except low fat diet decreased calories small meals adequate protein intake

decreased calories

All of the following are associated with bulimia nervosa except diarrhea salivary gland enlargement muscle wasting edema

muscle wasting

what does aldosterone do? increases reabsorption of potaassium in kidneys increases reabsorption of sodium in kidneys increases secretion of wataer from kidneys stimulates production of ADH

increases reabsorption of sodium in kidneys

Which of the following is an end prouct of purine metabolism from food? nitric acid uric acid sulfuric acid acetic acid

uric acid

RDA of vitamin C for adult females 1000 mg/d 75 90 2000

Protease inhibitors are commonly found in dairy products black and green teas grains and pseudograins soybeans and legumes

soybeans and legumes

Not true of acute hypophosphatemia may be assoc with vitamin D def develops over time may be caused by reduced secretion of PTH rare condition

Approx ____ mg of dietary tryptophan may produce ___ mg of niacin 30;3 90;1 60; 1 1;90

60; 1

Leading risk factor for CKD hypertension glomerulonephritis diabetes amyloidosis

diabetes

RDA for vitamin D for 75 y/o male 600 IU 800 IU 500 IU 700 IU

800

Caloric intake during 1st trimester +350 cal +450 cal stays same +250 cal

same

T/F: phase angle is a marker for cell health on an electrical bioimpedance analysis

T | provides info on the condition of the phospholipid bilayer in the calles

DRI is divided into...

RDA - recommended dietary allowances AI - adequate intake TUL - tolerable upper intake EAR - estimated average requirements

Which of the following DRIs estimates the daily intake of a nutrient that will satisfy the requirement for that nutrient of half of the healthy individuals in a life stage and gender group? RDA EAR AI TUL

EAR

Which of the following DRIs estimates the daily intake of a nutrient that will satisfy the requirement for that nutrient of 97-98% of the healthy individuals in a life stage and gender group? RDA EAR AI TUL

RDA

Which of the following DRIs estimates the daily intake of a nutrient that will satisfy the requirement for that nutrient of MOST of the healthy individuals in a life stage and gender group when insufficient data is available to estimate an RDA? RDA EAR AI TUL

Which of the following DRIs estimates the greatest daily intake of an individual nutrient that is likely to pose no risk of adverse health effects for almost all individuals in the general population? RDA EAR AI TUL

TUL

Since 1994 the USRDA was replaced by...

Daily Values (DV)

DV is based on ___ DRV and RDI - daily reference values and reference daily intakes DRI and RDA EAR and RDA DRV and AI

Current DRVs ``` total fat sat fat cholesterol total carbs fiber protein ```

``` fat - 65 g / 30% sat fat - 20 g / 10% cholesterol - 300 mg total carb - 300 g / 60% fiber - 25 g protein *adults - 50 g / 10% *infants - 14 g *1-4 - 16 g *pregnant - 60 g *lactating - 65 g *sodium - 2400 mg *potassium - 3500 mg ```

Current DRVs ``` total fat sat fat cholesterol total carbs fiber protein ```

Nutrient content claims Calorie free vs low calorie vs reduced calorie

Free - < 5 kcal per serving Low - < 40 kcal reduced / lite - if 50% or more of cals are from fat, fat must be reduced by 50% cals reduced at least 1/3; contains at least 25% fewer calories per serving

Fat free info

fat free - < 0.5 g fat per serving low fat - < 3 g of fat per serving reduced / less fat - at least 25% less total fat per serving

Dietary proteins are of high biological value when they are obtained from: a. fish, legumes and whole milk. b. beef, pork and cream cheese. c. white bread, vegetables and legumes. d. eggs, chickenmeats and cheddar cheese.

The dietary change that is the most effective in contributing to a decrease in serum total cholesterol concentration is: a. decrease on cholesterol intake. b. a decrease in saturated fat intake. c. an increase in polyunsaturated fat intake. d. an increase in monounsaturated fat intake.

The food components that are listed on the Nutrition Facts panel are: a. sugars, fiber, and potassium. b. sugars, dietary fiber, and calcium. c. sugars, dietary fiber, and monounsaturated fat. d. sugars, magnesium, and B-complex vitamins.

Serum concentration of ___ is indicative of malnutrition in an elderly individual < 5 g/dL < 3.5 g/dL > 5 g/dL > 3.5 g/dL

Lacto-ovo vegetarian diets vs lacto-vegetarian vs ovo-vegetarian

lacto-ovo: allow dairy, eggs, no meat lacto: allow dairy no eggs no meat ovo: no dairy, allow eggs

The most serious consequence of feeding “double-strength” formula to an infant is likely to be: a. sleepiness. b. colic. c. mental impairment. d. dehydration.

dehydration

Except for when women are pregnant and lactating, the total quantity of nutrients and calories needed during ____ are greater than at any other stage of the life cycle. a. infancy b. childhood c. dolescence d. aging

adolescence

Digestibility of proteins in vegetarian diets with no animal protein is ____ lower higher

lower approx 15-25% increase in recommended daily protein intake (approx 1 g.kg body weight) should account for the lower digestibility of the prooteins in strict veg diets

Calcium absorption in vegetarians may be ___ efficient than that of calcium in animal-based products 50% less 30% more 20% less as efficient

20% less

Supps for vegetarians

``` Ca Vitamin D Iron Zinc B12 ```

Designs in epidemiology

cross sectional ecological cohort case control

cross sectional survey A. examination of correlations between disease status and dietary exposures of several populations or one populatio observed several times B. contemporaneous determination of disease status (prevalence) and dietary exposure Cprospective or retrospective observation over time of the occurence of disease (incidence) in subgroupps within a population that have been formed based on degree of exposure to the putative risk factor D. contemporaneous (using active controls) or retrospective (using historical controls) examination of any relationship between disease status and dietary exposure of individuals matched or paired on the basis of common characterists other than disease status and dietary exposure (sex age nondietary lifestyle factors etc)

ecological A. examination of correlations between disease status and dietary exposures of several populations or one populatio observed several times B. contemporaneous determination of disease status (prevalence) and dietary exposure Cprospective or retrospective observation over time of the occurence of disease (incidence) in subgroupps within a population that have been formed based on degree of exposure to the putative risk factor D. contemporaneous (using active controls) or retrospective (using historical controls) examination of any relationship between disease status and dietary exposure of individuals matched or paired on the basis of common characterists other than disease status and dietary exposure (sex age nondietary lifestyle factors etc)

Cohort A. examination of correlations between disease status and dietary exposures of several populations or one populatio observed several times B. contemporaneous determination of disease status (prevalence) and dietary exposure Cprospective or retrospective observation over time of the occurence of disease (incidence) in subgroupps within a population that have been formed based on degree of exposure to the putative risk factor D. contemporaneous (using active controls) or retrospective (using historical controls) examination of any relationship between disease status and dietary exposure of individuals matched or paired on the basis of common characterists other than disease status and dietary exposure (sex age nondietary lifestyle factors etc)

case control A. examination of correlations between disease status and dietary exposures of several populations or one populatio observed several times B. contemporaneous determination of disease status (prevalence) and dietary exposure Cprospective or retrospective observation over time of the occurence of disease (incidence) in subgroupps within a population that have been formed based on degree of exposure to the putative risk factor D. contemporaneous (using active controls) or retrospective (using historical controls) examination of any relationship between disease status and dietary exposure of individuals matched or paired on the basis of common characterists other than disease status and dietary exposure (sex age nondietary lifestyle factors etc)

Epidemiological studies: a. identify causative factors b. are not helpful for public health research c. are better than cohort studies. d. are helpful for identifying associations in large populations

Successful treatment for anorexia nervosa most often includes: a. Family therapy and forced tube feeding. b. Outpaient nutritional counseling with a registered dietitian. c. inpatient psychological, nutritional, and medical therapy, often involving the whole family. d. Effective psychopharmacological treatment

As a public healthmeasure, chicken is packed in ice to prevent: a. Botulism. b. Perfringens food poisoning. c. Staphylococcal food poisoning. d. Salmonella food poisoning.

Which of the following impairs absorption of non heme iron ``` Carbonates Oxalates Phosphates Fiber from tannins All ```

All

Copper, iron, and zinc have a/an ___ effect antagonistic synergistic

antagonistic

Increases in ____ intake are associated with increased requirements for ____ MUFAs, vitamin C Omega 3s, vitamin D PUFAs, vitamin E PUFAs, vitamin A

PUFAs, vitamin E

ACE inhibitors and drug-nutrient interactions

chelate iron inhibit urinary potassium excretion increase urinary zinc excretion

Antacids with magnesium decrease absorption of

folate | riboflavin

Antacids / H2 antagonists inhibit absorption of

``` calcium iron zinc folate B12 vitamin D ```

Anthracyclines (chemo treatment) inhibit

endogenous synthesis of coq10

anticonvulsants...

accelerate vitamin D inactivation by liver decrease ca absorption increase hepatic accumulation of vitamin A accelerate metabolic clearance of vitamin C and K inhibit absorption of biotin, folate, and B12

Antidepressants (tricyclic) inhibit action of enzymes requiring

coq10

MAO inhibitors...

increase appetite / carb craving inhibit actions of enzymes requiring b6 cause sensitivity to tyramine (cheese, piickled stuff, etc.)

anti gout meds

induce malabsorption of b12

betaa blockers

chelate dietary ca / prevent its absorption | inhhibit action of enzymes requiring coq10

methotrexate

inhibiting absorption of folate, b12, ca

contraceptives with estrogen

inhibit absorption of vitamin A, folate, vitamin C

diuretics - potassium sparing

inhibit urinary potassium excretion

diuretics - potassium depleting

increase urinary excretion of thiamin, magnesium, potassium

glucocorticoids

inhibit ca and folate absorption

PPIs

inhibit absorption of B12, iron, zinc

Use of a thiazide diuretic drugmay produce a low plasma concentration of: a. calcium. b. potassium. c. uric acid. d. phosphorus.

potassium

Anti-neoplastic or anti-cancer agents most significantly affect nutritional status by: a. damaging immune function b. affecting the intestinal mucosa and reducing nutrient absorption c. increasing nutrient excretion d. causing abnormal metabolism

Individuals taking anticonvulsant medications may develop depleted reserves of: a. folate and vitamin D. b. thiamin and riboflavin. c. folate and pantothenic acid. d. pyridoxine and biotin.

Patients receiving parenteral nutrition must receive all of their nutrients intravenously - this route is called

TPN - total parenteral nutrition

Contraindications to enteral nutrition are ``` severe malabsorption total bowel obstruction persistent uncontrollable vomiting tendency to aspiration ALL ```

ALL

Examples of dietary nutrients that are not absorbed directly into the enterohepatic portal blood system include: a. amino acids. b. medium-chain fatty acids. c. monosaccharides. d. long-chain fatty acids.

``` The hormone responsible for the decrease in gastrointestinal smooth muscle tone and motility during pregnancy is: a. estrogen. b. progesterone. c. placental lactogen. d. human chorionic ghonadotropin. ```

The ingestion of a meal containing large amounts of saturated fat will result in a transient increase in the serum concentration of: a. chylomicrons. b. low-density lipoproteins. c. high-density lipoproteins. d. micelles.

The product of enterokinase reactions is: a. trypsin. b. chymotrypsin. c. pepsin. d. carboxypeptidase.

Most iron is transported in the blood via the plasma carrier: a. heme. b. ferritin. c. transferrin. d. albumin.

``` The organs most active in the synthesis of endogenous cholesterol are the liver and the: a. gallbladder. b. pancreas. c. adrenal glands. d. intestinal mucosa. ```

Lactulose is a carbohydrate that is: a. absorbed in the small intestine. b. absorbed in the large intestine. c. a nonabsorbable laxative. d. not found in the human diet.

Digested dietary protein is absorbed primarily in the: a. stomach. b. duodenum. c. jejunum. d. ileum.

Monosaccharides are transported acrossthe placenta from the maternal circulation to the fetal circulation by the process of: a. simple diffusion. b. facilitated diffusion. c. active transport. d. pinocytosis.

If a bolus containing 600 mOsm/L enters the jejunum, the net direction of fluid movement in the intestinal tract will be: a. from the intestinal lumen to the circulation. b. from the circulation to the intestinal lumen. c. longitudinally along the mucosal basement membrane. d. from the circulation to the lymphoid system.

Excessive production of gas within the intestines may be caused by excessive colonic bacterial fermentation of unabsorbed: a. gluten. b. small peptides. c. lignin. d. carbohydrates.

A major intracellular antioxidant is the nutrient: a. vitamin A. b. thiamin. c. glutathione. d. ascorbic acid.

``` A required prerequisite to the digestion of proteins is the HCl-dependent process called: a. hydrolysis. b. evaporation. c. denaturation. d. distillation. ```

The true digestibility of dietary fatty acids is: a. 65% to 75%. b. 75% to 85%. c. 85% to 95%. d. > 95%.

BMI calc

``` body weight (kg) / height (meters sq) BMI should be 19-27 kg/m2 ```

waist to hip index

women - 0.8 / men - 0.95

The rate of urinary excretion of ___ and ___ have been demonstrated to be in proportion to total body muscle mass creatinine, 3-methyl-histidine creatinine, BUN BUN, 3-methyl-histidine

High BUN can indicate ___ while low BUN indicates ____

renal failure; presence of liver disease Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) concentration indicates total body nitrogen content. Because urea is formed in the liver and is excreted by the kidneys, greatly elevated BUN concentration indicates renal failure while very low BUN concentration can signal the presence of liver disease.

Which is reflective of body protein reserves? BUN Creatinine Albumin 3-methyl-histidine

albumin concentrations below 5.5 g/dL usually are suggestive of protein malnutrition, gastrointestinal inflammation, digestive incapacity, edema in extremities, severe acute liver disease, congestive heart failure, eclampsia of pregnancy, or extravascular protein loss due to renal dysfunction. Serum albumin concentrations less than 3.5 g/dL often accompany dehydration or hypothyroidism.

Symptoms of acidosis

ratio less than 1:20 | CNS depression, delerium, coma, hyperkalemia, hypercalcemia

Symptoms of alkalosis

ratio greater than 1:20 | CNS exciitation, hyperirritabiity, disorientation, heightened reflex response, hypocalcemia, hypokalemia

Primer - all sections Flashcards

(275 cards)