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CNS NH 2021 > Primer quiz questions > Flashcards

Primer quiz questions Flashcards

1
Q

The structures of linoleic acid and gamma-linolenic acid differ in their:

a. chain lengths.
b. double bond positions.
c. numbers of double bonds.
d. side chain moieties.

A

C

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2
Q 
An example of a compound that is not considered to be a component of dietary
fiber is:
a. pectin.
b. hemicellulose.
c. amylose.
d. cellulose.
A

C

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3
Q

Dietary fats and oils primarily are composed of:

a. triglycerides.
b. polyunsaturated fatty acids.
c. saturated fatty acids.
d. monounsaturated fatty acids.

A

A

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4
Q

A nutrient is considered to be conditionally essential when:

a. it cannot be replaced by a metabolic precursor.
b. it is malabsorbed.
c. its endogenous production becomes insufficient to satisfy needs.
d. it requires a second essential nutrient to be effective.

A

C

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5
Q

Vitamin reserves can become depleted because all vitamins are:

a. synthesized inefficiently.
b. essential nutrients.
c. metabolized quickly.
d. excreted rapidly.

A

B

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6
Q 
20. The process of adding a nutrient to manufactured foods as a public health
measure is called:
a. restoration.
b. enrichment.
c. fortification.
d. supplementation.
A

C

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7
Q

Food additives can be used:

a. as effective preservatives.
b. without restriction.
c. to compensate for improper processing practices.
d. without risk.

A

a

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8
Q

Nutrification is the:
a. addition of a nutrient to a food in order to assure the distribution of that
nutrient to a target population group.
b. specific addition of thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, and iron to white flour.
c. structural modification of complex carbohydrates.
d. addition of at least 25% of the RDA of a nutrient to a food product that has
been designed to replace a meal or food item.

A

a

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9
Q
  1. Ketones result from the metabolism of:
    a. fatty acids.
    b. simple sugars.
    c. amino acids.
    d. complex carbohydrates.
A

a

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10
Q

The plasmalemma does not incorporate:

a. vitamin A.
b. vitamin E.
c. cholesterol.
d. phospholipids.

A

a

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11
Q

The failure of a tissue or organ to develop properlyis called:

a. neoplasia.
b. aplasia.
c. hyperplasia.
d. atrophy.

A

b

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12
Q

Glutamine is the primary energy source for the:

a. liver.
b. heart.
c. small intestine.
d. brain.

A

c

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13
Q

The metabolic effects of insulin include stimulation of:

a. adipocyte secretion of non-esterified fatty acids.
b. myocyte amino acid uptake.
c. hepatocyte gluconeogenesis.
d. myocyte glycogenesis.

A

b

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14
Q

The most common skeletal complication of chronic renal failure is:

a. hyperostosis.
b. osteoporosis.
c. rickets.
d. secondary hyperparathyroidism.

A

d

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15
Q
  1. Most circulating cholesterol is eliminated from the body after metabolism to:
    a. lipoproteins.
    b. phospholipids.
    c. fecal fat.
    d. bile acids.
A

d

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16
Q 
30. Vitamin B12 is a required cofactor in the biochemical pathway through which
glucose is produced from the amino acid:
a. alanine.
b. valine.
c. methionine.
d. tyrosine.
A

b

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17
Q
  1. Copper is a component of:
    a. alkaline phosphatase.
    b. glycosyl transferase.
    c. ceruloplasmin.
    d. glucose tolerance factor.
A

c

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18
Q
  1. The decarboxylation of pyruvate involves a sequence of reactions that require, as
    coenzymes, the four vitamins:
    a. thiamin, pantothenic acid, riboflavin and vitamin B12.
    b. thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, and vitamin B12.
    c. thiamin, pantothenic acid, riboflavin, and niacin.
    d. biotin, niacin, pantothenic acid and vitamin B12
A

c

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19
Q

The size of the free amino acid pool in the human body is regulated by the rate of:

a. oxidation of amino acids.
b. synthesis of nonessential amino acids.
c. urinary excretion of amino acids.
d. skeletal collagen metabolism.

A

a

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20
Q
  1. During maximal aerobic exercise, the primary energy source is:
    a. fatty acids.
    b. lactate.
    c. glycogen.
    d. glucose.
A

a

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21
Q 
A set of 150 observations has a mean of 5 and a standard deviation of 1.5. The
95% confidence limits (95% CL) of the mean can be calculated by solving the
formula:
a. 95% CL = 5 ± (1.96)(1.5).
b. 95% CL = 5 ± (1.96)[(1.5)
2
/150)]
1/2
.
c. 95% CL = 5 ± (1.96)[(1.5)
1/2
/150].
d. 95% CL = 5 ± (1.96)(1.5/150)
1/2
.
A

b

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22
Q
  1. A cross-sectionalstudy compared cardiovascular risk factors and resting
    metabolic rate (RMR) in 400 sedentary (SED) and 400 resistance trained (RT)
    young women. The measured RMR (mean ± standard error of the mean) were
    4.31 ± 0.06 kJ/min and 3.99 ± 0.05 kJ/min, respectively. The valid interpretation
    of the RMR data is that:
    a. RMRSED and RMRRT are not significantly different (p>0.05).
    b. RMRSED and RMRRT are significantly different (p<0.05).
    c. RMRSED and RMRRT are significantly correlated (p<0.05).
    d. RMR is not affected by resistance training.
A

b

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23
Q

test

A

test

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24
Q

The relationship between 2 correlated variables is:

a. causal.
b. random.
c. independent.
d. mathematical.

A

d

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25
Q
  1. Meta-analysis is a quantitative approach for systematically combining the results
    of previous, non-definitive researchin order to:
    a. improve the quality of the research data.
    b. allow a conclusion to be drawn.
    c. identify studies with positive results.
    d. improve the power of the research.
A

b

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26
Q

The most difficult challenge facing a nutritionist or nutrition counselor is to:

a. classify individuals.
b. assess nutritional status.
c. motivate behavior modification.
d. recommend solutions.

A

c

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27
Q
  1. Dysgeusia may result from a dietary deficiency of the nutrient:
    a. iron.
    b. magnesium.
    c. manganese.
    d. zinc.
A

d

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28
Q
  1. Pantothenic acid is a component of:
    a. FAD.
    b. NAD.
    c. hemoglobin.
    d. coenzyme A.
A

d

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29
Q
  1. Selenium deficiency has been implicated in the development of:
    a. iron deficiency anemia.
    b. subclinical hypothyroidism.
    c. hyperthyroidism.
    d. night blindness.
A

b

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30
Q
  1. The dietary fatty acid considered to be essential in the diet of humans is:
    a. stearic acid.
    b. oleic acid.
    c. linoleic acid.
    d. palmitic acid.
A

c

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31
Q
  1. Iron is absorbed in the small intestine in the form of:
    a. ferrous iron.
    b. ferric iron.
    c. ferritin.
    d. transferrin.
A

a

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32
Q
  1. The risk of congenital microencephaly increases during pregnancy when habitual
    intake of pre-formed vitamin A exceed the RDA for vitamin A by:
    a. 5-fold. b.
    50-fold.
    c. 100-fold.
    d. 1000-fold.
A

a

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33
Q
  1. Vitamin C, vitamin E, and ȕ-carotene may exert cardioprotective effects by:
    a. enhancing the conversion of SFA to PUFA.
    b. stimulating hepatic synthesis of HDL.
    c. inhibiting the oxidation of LDL.
    d. increasing LDL receptor number.
A

c

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34
Q
  1. Signs of a deficiency in essential fatty acids include:
    a. soft fingernails.
    b. dull skin and dandruff.
    c. edema.
    d. sleep disorders.
A

b

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35
Q
  1. The form in which fatty acids usually are found in food is as:
    a. free fatty acids.
    b. mannan polymers.
    c. cholesterol esters.
    d. triglycerides.
A

d

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36
Q
  1. A dietary source of Ȧ-3 essential fatty acidsis:
    a. primrose oil.
    b. arachidonic oil.
    c. flax oil.
    d. milk fat.
A

c

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37
Q
  1. The disease associated with deficiency of vitamin B1 is known as:
    a. multiple sclerosis.
    b. beri-beri.
    c. scurvy.
    d. pellagra.
A

b

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38
Q
  1. Polyneuropathy may accompany chronic consumption of large amounts of:
    a. dairy foods.
    b. starch.
    c. alcohol.
    d. meats.
A

c

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39
Q 
53. Of beef, bacon, salmon, and broccoli, the food source with the greatest nutrient
density (g per 100 Kcal) for fat is:
a. beef.
b. bacon.
c. salmon.
d. broccoli.
A

b

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40
Q

Chromium influences plasma glucose concentrations by stimulating:

a. starch blocker activity.
b. myocyte sodium-glucose transport.
c. absorption of dietary glucose.
d. hepatic gluconeogenesis.

A

b

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41
Q
  1. Most vegetables are generally considered to be nutritionally inferior to most
    animal proteins because typically they contain:
    a. indigestible polypeptide sequences.
    b. small amounts of abnormal amino acids.
    c. inadequate amounts of glutamine.
    d. fewer essential amino acids.
A

d

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42
Q 
56. Two vitamins which are very toxic when ingested in amounts 10-fold or more
greater than the current USRDA are:
a. vitamin A and thiamin.
b. vitamin A and folic acid.
c. vitamin A and vitamin D.
d. Vitamin E and Vitamin K.
A

c

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43
Q
  1. An early indicator of impending selenosis is:
    a. headache.
    b. easy bruising.
    c. numbness of hands and feet.
    d. garlic odor of breath.
A

d

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44
Q 
58. The consumption of 1750 excess Kcal will result in the deposition of new body
fat weighing:
a. 17.5 g.
b. 175 g.
c. 227 g.
d. 454 g.
A

c

3500kcal result in one pound of fat (or 454g); 1750 is half of that, and 227g is one half pound.

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45
Q
  1. Iron in foods is primarily in the form of:
    a. ferrous iron.
    b. ferric iron.
    c. ferritin.
    d. transferrin.
A

b

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46
Q

Most of the activated folic acid in the human body is in the form of:

a. folate.
b. folacin.
c. S-adenosylmethionine.
d. methyltetrahydrofolic acid.

A

d

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47
Q
  1. A good dietary source of riboflavin is a:
    a. peach.
    b. carrot.
    c. coconut.
    d. steak.
A

d

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48
Q
  1. Among the foods beef, bacon, fish, and spinach, the food source with the greatest
    nutrient density (mg per 100 Kcal) for iron is:
    a. beef.
    b. bacon.
    c. fish.
    d. spinach.
A

d

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49
Q
  1. Among the following foods, the nutrient density of vitamin D is greatest in:
    a. cheese.
    b. salmon.
    c. green leafy vegetables.
    d. beef.
A

b

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50
Q 
64. The best source of supplemental calcium for an elderly woman with
hypochlorhydria is:
a. calcium carbonate.
b. calcium phosphate.
c. calcium citrate.
d. bone meal.
A

c

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51
Q
  1. Excessive consumption of dietary fiber impairs the bioavailabilityof:
    a. protein.
    b. zinc.
    c. essential fatty acids.
    d. vitamin D.
A

b

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52
Q
  1. Cruciferous vegetables lack:
    a. highly bioavailable calcium.
    b. cancer-inhibiting indoles.
    c. large amounts of vitamin K.
    d. large amounts of ȕ-carotene.
A

a

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53
Q

The vitamin K content of human breast milk is:

a. undetectable.
b. low.
c. high.
d. unknown.

A

b

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54
Q
  1. 25-OHD3 is converted to 1,25-(OH)2D3 by:
    a. neurons.
    b. sunlight.
    c. hepatocytes.
    d. renal cells.
A

d

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55
Q 
69. Daily consumption of 50 Kcal of excess dietary energy for a year will produce a
weight gain of:
a. 4 to 5 pounds.
b. 10 to 12 pounds.
c. 20 to 25 pounds.
d. 40 to 50 pounds.
A

a

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56
Q
  1. Skeletal manifestations of hypervitaminosis A include:
    a. cortical sclerosis.
    b. cortical porosis.
    c. osteomalacia.
    d. osteonecrosis.
A

b

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57
Q
  1. Selenium is a required cofactor for:
    a. NADP reductase.
    b. glutathione reductase.
    c. glutathione transferase.
    d. glutathione peroxidase.
A

d

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58
Q
  1. Vitamin E deficiency in humans commonly results in:
    a. neurological dysfunction.
    b. respiratory dysfunction.
    c. reproductive dysfunction.
    d. digestive dysfunction.
A

a

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59
Q
  1. Quercitin protects ascorbic acid from:
    a. oxidation.
    b. reduction.
    c. dehydrogenation.
    d. desaturation.
A

a

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60
Q
  1. Flavonoids are:
    a. water soluble.
    b. lipid miscible.
    c. alcohols.
    e. carcinogens.
A

b

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61
Q
  1. Dietary proteins are of high biological value when they are obtained from:
    a. fish, legumes and whole milk.
    b. beef, pork and cream cheese.
    c. white bread, vegetables and legumes.
    d. eggs, chicken meats and cheddar cheese.
A

d

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62
Q
  1. The dietary change that is the most effective in contributing to a decrease in
    serum total cholesterol concentration is:
    a. a decrease on cholesterol intake.
    b. a decrease in saturated fat intake.
    c. an increase in polyunsaturated fat intake.
    d. an increase in monounsaturated fat intake.
A

b

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63
Q

The USDA “food pyramid” does not recommend:

a. 2 to 3 dairy servings daily.
b. 5 to 9 fruit and vegetable servings daily.
c. 6 to 11 grain servings daily.
d. up to 5 meat servings daily.

A

d

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64
Q
  1. The protein intake standard the USRDA uses to reflect protein quality is the:
    a. biological value.
    b. net protein utilization.
    c. protein efficiency ratio.
    d. chemical score.
A

c

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65
Q
  1. The biological value of food proteins can be enhanced by:
    a. supplementation with branched-chain amino acids.
    b. slow cooking.
    c. the addition of MSG.
    d. combining them with complementary food proteins.
A

d

66
Q
  1. Intake of chromium below 30 μg/day has been associated with decreased:
    a. skeletal mass.
    b. glucose tolerance.
    c. lean tissue mass.
    d. muscle glycogen content.
A

a

67
Q
  1. The daily calcium requirements of postmenopausal women who are not receiving
    estrogen replacement therapy are approximately:
    a. 1,250 mg of calcium as calcium carbonate.
    b. 1,500 mg of calcium as calcium carbonate.
    c. 1,750 mg of calcium as calcium carbonate.
    d. 2,000 mg of calcium as calcium carbonate.
A

b

68
Q
  1. The daily calcium requirements of postmenopausal women who are not receiving
    estrogen replacement therapy can be met by the daily consumption of:
    a. one (1) cup of skim milk.
    b. three (3) cups of skim milk.
    c. five (5) cups of skim milk.
    d. seven (7) cups of skim milk.
A

c

69
Q
  1. Reduced consumption of salt and salty foods may:
    a. improve electrolyte balance.
    b. reduce blood volume and blood pressure.
    c. improve kidney function.
    d. improve neuromuscular coordination.
A

b

70
Q 
84. The quality of foods voluntarily selected by a population or group is not likely to
be improved by:
a. changes in guidelines.
b. targeted education.
c. concentrated market forces.
d. new product information.
A

a

71
Q
  1. In men between the ages of 25 and 75, average daily iron needs generally:
    a. increase.
    b. decrease.
    c. remain the same.
    d. fluctuate widely.
A

c

72
Q 
86. During the past 50 years, the average total caloric intake among infants in the
United States:
a. has not changed.
b. has decreased.
c. has increased.
d. is not possible to assess.
A

c

73
Q
  1. Aging is associated with several changes in metabolism, including:
    a. increased basal metabolic rate, reduced muscle mass, and increased fat
    deposition.
    b. increased basal metabolic rate, reduced muscle mass, and decreased fat
    deposition.
    c. decreased basal metabolic rate, reduced muscle mass, and decreased fat
    deposition.
    d. decreased basal metabolic rate, reduced muscle mass, and increased fat
    deposition.
A

d

74
Q 
88. An exercise program combining aerobic and strength exercises will increase
metabolic rate by about:
a. 10% or less.
b. 25% to 50%.
c. 50% to 100%.
d. 100% or more.
A

a

75
Q
  1. Prior to becoming pregnant, women can reduce the risk of giving birth to
    offspring with neural tube defects by eating more foods rich in:
    a. biotin.
    b. calcium.
    c. folate.
    d. vitamin B12.
A

c

76
Q
  1. Compared to his peers, a healthy 15-year old male who is a competitive weight
    lifter should consume more protein and more:
    a. minerals.
    b. carbohydrates.
    c. fat.
    d. carbohydrates and fat.
A

b

77
Q
  1. Avoidance of foods of animal origin requires dietary proteins to be:
    a. readilydigestible.
    b. good sources of nonessential amino acids.
    c. high in biological value.
    d. balanced in their essential amino acid composition.
A

d

78
Q 
92. A vegetarian who ingests no animal products whatsoever is most at risk for
developing a deficiency of:
a. calcium and vitamins A and D.
b. vitamins B12, C and D.
c. protein, calories and vitamin C.
d. vitamin B12, riboflavin, and zinc.
A

d

79
Q
  1. Megaloblastic anemia of pregnancy usually results from a deficiency of:
    a. iron.
    b. oxytocin.
    c. antipernicious anemia factor.
    d. folacin.
A

d

80
Q
  1. During gestation, dietary requirements are increased for:
    a. vitamin A.
    b. pyridoxine and pantothenic acid.
    c. thiamin, riboflavin, and niacin.
    d. vitamin D.
A

c

81
Q
  1. During gestation, the fetus receives nourishment primarily from:
    a. nutrient secretions from fallopian tube cells.
    b. tropoblast cells of the decidua basilis.
    c. the amniotic fluid.
    d. the placental circulation.
A

d

82
Q 
96. Compared to commercial infant formulas, human milk has a greater
concentration of:
a. cholesterol.
b. protein.
c. casein.
d. linoleic acid.
A

a

83
Q
  1. An infant should be introduced to new foods one at a time because:
    a. overfeeding can be prevented.
    b. swallowing is not yet under complete voluntary control.
    c. immunologic protection has not yet developed.
    d. any subsequent allergic reaction can be associated with the triggering food.
A

d

84
Q 
98. The most serious consequence of feeding “double-strength” formula to an infant
is likely to be:
a. sleepiness.
b. colic.
c. mental impairment.
d. dehydration.
A

d

85
Q
  1. The best predictor of energy needs during adolescence is:
    a. chronologic age.
    b. change in body weight.
    c. increase in height.
    d. muscle growth.
A

c

86
Q
  1. Some nutrient requirements are greater during lactation than during pregnancy;
    however, the requirements are the same for:
    a. B-vitamins.
    b. calcium and iron.
    c. fluoride and zinc.
    d. vitamins A and C.
A

b

87
Q
  1. Weight loss in obese persons is associated with increased risk for:
    a. gallstones.
    b. hypertension.
    c. hypertriglyceridemia.
    d. glycosuria.
A

b

88
Q
  1. The caloric equivalent of one gram of lean tissue is approximately:
    a. 1 Kcal.
    b. 2 Kcal.
    c. 4 Kcal.
    d. 9 Kcal.
A

a

89
Q
  1. To maintain basic hydration, an elderlyindividual must consume at least:
    a. 4 cups of fluid per day.
    b. 8 cups of fluid per day.
    c. 12 cups of fluid per day.
    d. 16 cups of fluid per day.
A

b

90
Q
  1. In order to maximize the health of her fetus, a woman in the sixth month of
    pregnancy should supplement her diet with additional:
    a. iron and folic acid.
    b. iron and calcium.
    c. calories and folic acid.
    d. calories and iron.
A

d

91
Q
  1. The fetus acquires most of its calcium during:
    a. the first trimester.
    b. the second trimester.
    c. the third trimester.
    d. maternal dietary calcium excess.
A

c

92
Q
  1. Compared to the requirements of a nonpregnant adult woman, the dietary
    requirements for several vitamins are increased during gestation; among these are
    the requirements for:
    a. vitamin A.
    b. pyridoxine and pantothenic acid.
    c. thiamin, riboflavin, and niacin.
    d. vitamin D.
A

c

93
Q
  1. A woman who is overweight or obese at the time of conception should modify her
    diet to reduce her weight:
    a. during the second and third trimesters.
    b. during the third trimester.
    c. throughout pregnancy.
    d. after parturition.
A

d

94
Q 
108. Among the members of the following ethnic group, hypertensive individuals
usually are salt-sensitive:
a. elderlyAfrican-Americans.
b. elderlyCaucasian-Americans.
c. young African-Americans.
d. young Caucasian-Americans.
A

a

95
Q
  1. Data supporting the hypothesis that dietary composition influences the
    development of cancer include observations that:
    a. high fiber diets are associated with an increased incidence of colon cancer.
    b. dietary carcinogens protect against the effects of environmental carcinogens.
    c. nutrient deficiencies always promote tumor growth.
    d. cruciferous vegetables may protect against tumorigenesis.
A

d

96
Q
  1. Diet assessment of a population can be used to:
    a. identify common dietary problems.
    b. solve common dietary problems.
    c. implement guidelines for individuals.
    d. determine general characteristics.
A

d

97
Q
  1. As a public health measure, chicken is packed in ice to prevent:
    a. Botulism.
    b. Perfringens food poisoning.
    c. Staphylococcal food poisoning.
    d. Salmonella food poisoning.
A

d

98
Q 
112. Reheating potentially hazardous foods that have been cooked and then refrigerated
must be performed with:
a. a steam table at high temperature.
b. open flames.
c. warmers.
d. rapid reheating devices.
A

d

99
Q
  1. The microorganism most likely to be responsible for foodborne illness after the
    ingestion of raw seafood is a species belonging to the genus:
    a. Shigella.
    b. Salmonella.
    c. Vibrio.
    d. Escherichia.
A

c

100
Q 
114. To minimize the risk of foodborne illness, the maximum number of days for
which poultry should be refrigerated is:
a. two (2).
b. three (3).
c. four (4).
d. five (5).
A

b

101
Q 
115. In order to prevent trichinosis, the internal temperature of pork during cooking
should reach at least:
a. 120o F.
b. 135o F.
c. 170o F.
d. 212o F.
A

c

102
Q 
116. An approximate doubling of the growth rate of bacteria contaminating food will
occur when the temperature changes from:
a. 0o C to 4o C.
b. 0o C to 37o C.
c. 20o C to 25o C.
d. 27o C to 37o C.
A

d

103
Q
  1. Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points (HACCP) programs are designed to
    minimize the risk of food contamination by:
    a. continuous monitoring of processing operations.
    b. emphasizing events at selected processing steps.
    c. random sampling of partially processed products.
    d. random testing of selected finished products.
A

b

104
Q
  1. Use of a thiazide diuretic drug may produce a low plasma concentration of:
    a. calcium.
    b. potassium.
    c. uric acid.
    d. phosphorus.
A

b

105
Q
  1. Intestinal absorption of dietary iron may be enhanced by concurrent ingestion of:
    a. oxalates.
    b. phytates.
    c. ascorbic acid.
    d. phosphorus.
A

c

106
Q
  1. Dietary intakes of thiamin, riboflavin, and niacin are related to the intake of:
    a. iron.
    b. ascorbic acid.
    c. calcium.
    d. calories.
A

d

107
Q
  1. Pharmacologic agents used in chemotherapy can cause adverse gastrointestinal
    reactions because these agents:
    a. alter normal mucosal cell proliferation.
    b. alter the pH of pancreatic secretions.
    c. are hyperosmolar.
    d. initiate carcinogenesis in mucosal cells.
A

a

108
Q
  1. Individuals taking anticonvulsant medications may develop depleted reserves of:
    a. folate and vitamin D.
    b. thiamin and riboflavin.
    c. folate and pantothenic acid.
    d. pyridoxine and biotin.
A

a

109
Q
  1. Altered metabolism of pyridoxine in chronic alcoholism results from:
    a. increased aldehyde oxidase activity.
    b. decreased aldehyde oxidase activity.
    c. unchanged aldehyde oxidase activity.
    d. decreased excretion of pyridoxine
A

a

110
Q
  1. Insulin sensitivity may be enhanced by supplementation with:
    a. chromium picolinate.
    b. iron acetate.
    c. zinc chloride.
    d. selenium hexanoate.
A

a

111
Q
  1. To decrease the Respiratory Quotient (RQ), one should replace dietary:
    a. fat with protein.
    b. carbohydrate with fat.
    c. protein with carbohydrate.
    d. fat with carbohydrate.
A

b

112
Q
  1. Initial advice for a lactose-intolerant postmenopausal woman with a history of
    kidney stones and subnormal spinal BMD should be:
    a. restriction of dietary calcium intake.
    b. restriction of fluid intake.
    c. increased consumption of dairy products.
    d. dietary supplementation with magnesium.
A

d

113
Q
  1. Dietary modification is the primary therapeutic approach in:
    a. peptic ulcer.
    b. cystic fibrosis.
    c. diabetes.
    d. hypercalcemia.
A

c

114
Q
  1. Children with cystic fibrosis are not likely to be able to absorb large amounts of:
    a. electrolytes.
    b. lipids.
    c. amino acids.
    d. simple sugars.
A

b

115
Q
  1. Lactose intolerant infants should be fed infant formulas that contain protein
    derived from soybeans because such formulas:
    a. are extra high in energy content.
    b. provide most of their lipids as short-chain fatty acids.
    c. impose low renal solute loads.
    d. do not contain lactose.
A

d

116
Q
  1. The development of obesity may be associated with a decreased:
    a. number of individual adipocytes.
    b. surface area of individual adipocytes.
    c. amount of esterified fatty acids within each adipocyte.
    d. ratio of protein to lipid within each adipocyte.
A

d

117
Q 
131. In individuals with amyloidosis, there is abnormal deposition within various
organs and tissues of:
a. carbohydrate.
b. fat.
c. protein.
d. minerals.
A

c

118
Q
  1. The diet of individuals with xerostomia should include:
    a. frequent small meals that are high in protein content.
    b. moist food, gravies and liquids.
    c. seedlessfruits.
    d. meals high in fat content.
A

b

119
Q
  1. The diet of an individual with diverticulosisshould contain large amounts of:
    a. fat.
    b. animal protein.
    c. sugars.
    d. dietary fiber.
A

d

120
Q
  1. The purpose of encouraging individuals with diabetes to increase the dietary fiber
    contents of their meals is to:
    a. reduce plasma albumin concentration.
    b. stimulate insulin secretion.
    c. minimize postprandial hyperglycemia.
    d. stimulate intestinal glucose transport.
A

c

121
Q
  1. The management of adults with advanced chronic renal failure should include:
    a. potassium supplementation.
    b. calcium restriction.
    c. phosphate supplementation.
    d. protein restriction.
A

d

122
Q
  1. Epidemiologic data suggest that decreased mortality from heart disease
    accompanies increased consumption of the antioxidant:
    a. selenium.
    b. vitamin E.
    c. ȕ-carotene.
    d. vitamin C.
A

b

123
Q 
137. Currently, supplementation with Ȧ-3 fatty acids has not been shown to benefit
individuals with:
a. coronary thrombosis.
b. hypertension.
c. hypertriglyceridemia.
d. mitral valve prolapse.
A

d

124
Q
  1. An inborn error of metabolism may result from:
    a. polyploidy.
    b. DNA replication errors.
    c. congenital malnutrition.
    d. neonatal infection.
A

b

125
Q
  1. The oil most effective for increasing the serum HDL-cholesterol concentration
    without increasing the serum LDL-cholesterol concentration is:
    a. olive oil.
    b. canola oil.
    c. safflower oil.
    d. flax oil.
A

a

126
Q
  1. In individuals with chronic alcoholism, protection may be afforded against the
    fatty infiltration of the liver caused by alcoholism by maintaining adequate dietary
    intake of:
    a. vitamin A.
    b. thiamin.
    c. choline.
    d. para-amino-benzoic acid.
A

c

127
Q
  1. A factor that does not predispose an infant to iron deficiency is:
    a. consumption of large amounts of homogenized milk.
    b. premature birth.
    c. hemorrhage from the umbilicus during delivery.
    d. slow growth rate.
A

d

128
Q
  1. Dumping syndrome is accompanied by symptoms of:
    a. faintness, weakness, and profuse perspiration.
    b. acute gastritis.
    c. peptic ulcer disease.
    d. intestinal malabsorption.
A

a

129
Q
  1. Dietary modifications helpful to individuals with alcoholic cirrhosis include
    restricted consumption of foods that contain large amounts of:
    a. carbohydrates.
    b. protein.
    c. fat.
    d. calcium.
A

b

130
Q
  1. Dietary modifications appropriate for an individual with uncomplicated infectious
    hepatitis include:
    a. increasing energy intake to more than 3000 Kcal daily.
    b. restricting protein intake to less than 30 g daily.
    c. restricting fat intake to lessthan 30 g daily.
    d. restricting fluid intake to less than 2000 mL daily.
A

a

131
Q
  1. A possible reason for failure of oral rehydration in children is the persistence of:
    a. diarrhea.
    b. salt intake.
    c. breastfeeding.
    d. vomiting.
A

d

132
Q
  1. Nutrition support via enteral intubation may be contraindicated in the presence
    of any of the following conditions, except:
    a. congestive heart failure.
    b. bilateral pedal decubitus ulceration.
    c. instability of sternal wound.
    d. pneumonia.
A

b

133
Q 
147. The infusion of a hypertonic nutrient solution through the jugular or saphenous
vein is called:
a. enteral alimentation.
b. central parenteral alimentation.
c. peripheral parenteral alimentation.
d. peridialytic alimentation.
A

b

134
Q
  1. The nutritional history of a child over 3 years may be reflected in the child’s:
    a. head circumference.
    b. weight.
    c. height.
    d. waist circumference.
A

c

135
Q
  1. The most accurate way to assess micronutrient intake is through the use of a:
    a. 24-hour food intake recall questionnaire.
    b. 7-day food intake frequency.
    c. “food frequency questionnaire.”
    d. stool and urine analysis.
A

c

136
Q
  1. The energy provided by 10 mL of an infant formula that contains, per dL, 1 g
    protein, 3 g fat, 9 g carbohydrate, 1 mg Ca, and 2.5 mg P, totals:
    a. 2.6 Kcal.
    b. 5.0 Kcal.
    c. 6.7 Kcal.
    d. 8.6 Kcal.
A

c

137
Q
  1. The amount of food to serve a young child is best determined by the:
    a. time of day.
    b. number of teeth that have erupted.
    c. child’s appetite and rate of growth.
    d. amount of milk the child consumes.
A

c

138
Q
  1. Muscle protein content can be estimated from measurements of:
    a. serum albumin concentration.
    b. mid-chest circumference.
    c. urinary creatinine excretion.
    d. serum transferrin concentration.
A

c

139
Q
  1. The minimum urine volume required to excrete a renal solute load of 600 mOsm,
    when the renal concentrating ability is 1200 mOsm, is:
    a. 100 ml.
    b. 500 ml.
    c. 750 ml.
    d. 1000 ml.
A

b

140
Q
  1. The metabolite whose serum concentration is the most important to monitor
    during refeeding of a chronically starved individual is:
    a. phosphorus.
    b. calcium.
    c. cholesterol.
    d. urea nitrogen.
A

a

141
Q 
155. The breath hydrogen test is a useful diagnostic tool in the identification of
individuals suffering from:
a. gluten enteropathy.
b. pancreatitis.
c. lactose intolerance.
d. cystic fibrosis.
A

c

142
Q
  1. A useful test to monitor the adequacy of diet and drug therapy in an individual
    with non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus is the:
    a. glucose tolerance test.
    b. fasting plasma glucose concentration.
    c. C peptide assay.
    d. hemoglobin A1c (glycohemoglobin) concentration.
A

d

143
Q 
157. Protein of the highest biological value is found in foods in the group that
includes:
a. meat and eggs.
b. oat bran cereals.
c. apples and raisins.
d. peas and beans.
A

a

144
Q
  1. The growth-limiting amino acid in soy protein is:
    a. methionine.
    b. phenylalanine.
    c. cystine.
    d. alanine.
A

a

145
Q
  1. Symptoms of magnesium deficiency include:
    a. apathy, depression, and fatigue.
    b. irritable bowelsyndrome.
    c. frequent colds and delayed healing.
    d. backache and muscle spasms.
A

a

146
Q
  1. Experimentally increasing calcium intake may improve measured calcium
    balance without increasing measured calcium deposition because:
    a. the multicompartment theory of calcium metabolism is invalid.
    b. increased calcium balance may result from decreased bone resorption.
    c. it is possible to increase net calcium balance by >25% without increasing
    calcium deposition.
    d. the circulation serves as a potentially massive sink for dietary calcium.
A

b

147
Q 
161. An individual who is 150 cm tall and weighs 90 kilograms has a body mass index
of:
a. 20.
b. 30.
c. 40.
d. 50.
A

c

148
Q
  1. According to the National Cholesterol Education Program (NCEP), in an
    otherwise healthy adult male, a serum total cholesterol concentration greater than
    240 mg/dL is considered to be:
    a. high.
    b. borderline high.
    c. desirable.
    d. low.
A

a

149
Q
  1. A fasting plasma glucose concentration of 180 mg/dL reflects probable:
    a. diabetes.
    b. glucose intolerance.
    c. normal glucose tolerance.
    d. hyperinsulinemia.
A

a

150
Q
  1. Assessing overall dietary status by hair analysis is:
    a. untrustworthy for most nutrients.
    b. accurate for most nutrients.
    c. independent of hair color.
    d. independent of hair length.
A

a

151
Q
  1. The most accurate and reliable way to assessthe macronutrient intake of an
    individual is through the use of a:
    a. 24-hour food intake recall questionnaire.
    b. 7-day food intake diary.
    c. “food frequency questionnaire.”
    d. stool and urine analysis.
A

b

152
Q 
166. An increase in the serum concentration of unconjugated bilirubinmay be caused
by metabolic dysfunction in the:
a. liver.
b. gallbladder.
c. pancreas.
d. kidney.
A

a

153
Q 
167. An individual who is 200 cm tall and weighs 100 kilograms has a body mass
index of:
a. 25.
b. 30.
c. 35.
d. 40.
A

a

154
Q
  1. A fasting plasma glucose concentration of 134 mg/dL reflects probable:
    a. diabetes.
    b. glucose intolerance.
    c. normal glucose tolerance.
    d. hyperinsulinemia.
A

b

155
Q
  1. A fasting plasma glucose concentration of 50 mg/dL may suggest the presence of:
    a. diabetes.
    b. glucose intolerance.
    c. normal glucose tolerance.
    d. hyperinsulinemia.
A

d

156
Q
  1. The professional responsibilities of the nutritionist or nutrition counselor do not
    include:
    a. developing the plan of nutrition care.
    b. implementing the plan of nutrition care.
    c. prescribing intravenous feedings.
    d. evaluating the effectiveness of nutrition care.
A

c

157
Q
  1. A lecture series about nutrition may be deemed behaviorally effective if the
    attendees:
    a. submit favorable written evaluations of the lectures.
    b. later document changes in their eating habits and practices.
    c. demonstrate improved ability to select more appropriate food sources.
    d. declare increasedmotivation to alter eating habits.
A

b

158
Q
  1. The modern practice of nutrition is based on:
    a. a well-established scientific base.
    b. a scientific base in frequent flux.
    c. folk tradition.
    d. irrefutable facts.
A

b

159
Q
  1. According to the Dietary Supplement and Health Education Act of 1994, all of the
    following are dietary supplements except:
    a. ginseng.
    b. echinacea.
    c. ephedra.
    d. salicylates.
A

d

160
Q
  1. Responsible recommendations to consume vitamins in amounts exceeding their
    RDA’s:
    a. ignore efficacy and risk for toxicity.
    b. balance benefits and risks.
    c. are not possible.
    d. are inconsistent with current knowledge.
A

b

CNS NH 2021 (5 decks)

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