Principle 1 Flashcards

(57 cards)

1
Q

Clostridium tetani

A (motile or immotile?)
gram-(positive or negative?)
(spore or Non-spore ?) -forming
(Encapsulated or nonencapsulated?)
(Invasive or non-invasive?)
(obligate or facultative?) (aerobe or anaerobe?)

A

motile
positive
spore
nonencapsulated
non-invasive
obligate
Anaerobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

____________ is the second most poisonous substance known, surpassed in potency only by __________ toxin

A

Tetanospasmin

botulinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

trismus (caused by _______ muscle spasm)

Risus sardonicus (spasm of _______ muscles)

A

masseter

facial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Perinatal Period: period from ________________ to _________ after delivery

A

age of viability

7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Small for gestational age (SGA)
A Small for GA is a baby whose ______ is less than the ____________ for GA or
- The BW is more than ________ standard deviations below the mean for GA

A

BW; 10th percentile

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Difference between symmetric and Asymmetric IUGR?

Symmetry
Onset
Frequency

A

Reduction in fetal head circumference, length and weight ; Reduction in fetal weight, with relatively Normal length and head circumference

Onset is early in fetal development; Onset is late in fetal development

Less common; more common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Treatment in Neonatal tetanus

Management of autonomic dysfunction: only IV __________ is currently recommended as other B-blockers can cause ________ and sudden death

A

esmolol

hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In tetanus, natural infection confers immunity

T/F

A

F

It doesn’t

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

FEEDING

Late preterms : are fed by _________ or ___________

Early preterms : are fed by _________ or _____________

  • For VLBW babies, feeding may be initiated with ______________ , then to ______________ to ______________
A

bottle or directly at the breast

bottle or gavage feeding

buccal colostrum; trophic feeding

graded enteral feeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Prevent or Treat the Following:
-Hemorrhagic disease of newborn:_____________ , 0.5mg stat. (1mg in terms)

-Apnea of prematurity:______________ 6 mg/kg stat. then 1 mg/kg 12 hrly

A

IM Vitamin K

IV aminophylline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Baby can be nursed out of incubator, in a cot, after achieving weight >____g

Kangaroo mother care should be continued until weight is ≥________g

A

1500

2000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Infective Endocarditis: organisms

_____________ or Serratia marcescens is seen more frequently in IV drug users

_________ organisms are encountered after open heart surgery

Coagulase-negative staphylococci are common in the presence of ______________________________

A

P. aeruginosa

Fungal

an indwelling central venous catheter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

RESOMAL vs ORS

solute constituents:
Sodium
Potassium
Chloride
Citrate
Magnesium
Zinc
Copper
Glucose

A

Less ; more
More; less
Less;more
Less;more
More; nil
More; nil
More; nil
More; less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Refeeding Syndrome (RS)
- This may follow ________________________ of an undernourished child
- It is characterized by _____kalemia, ______[phosphatemia, and _________magnesemia which
follows ____________ from excessive _____________ administration

A

overzealous nutritional rehabilitation

hypo; hypo; hypo

hyperinsulinemia ; carbohydrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The hallmark of Re-feeding syndrome is _______ ________________ which follows cellular uptake of phosphate during the ______ wk of nutritional rehabilitation

A

severe hypophosphatemia

1st

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Poor PEM Treatment Practice

•Use of _________ to treat edema •Inappropriate use of _____ route
•Not restricting __________
• Starting ______ too early
•Ineffective nursing and general supportive care

A

diuretics

IV; sodium intake

iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Transmission of tuberculosis :

usually by inhalation of infected mucus droplet nuclei or ______________________

Rarely, transmission can be through penetration of the ______ or ________ , the _________ or the ____________

A

ingestion of contaminated milk or meat

skin; mucosa; genitalia; placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

__________ and __________________ are mucocutaneous manifestations of primary TB, which result from hypersensitivity reaction to the tuberculin protein

A

erythema nodosum and phlyctenular conjunctivitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The most common pulmonary sites of reactivation of tuberculosis are the ____________ focus, ________ , or the ________ seedings (______________), established during the hematogenous phase of the early infection

A

original parenchymal

lymph nodes

apical ; Simon foci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

________________ is always present in primary TB on X-RAY

A

Hilar and/or Paratracheal lymphadenopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Choroid tubercles, __________ lesions with indistinct borders in the __________ pole of the eye, are a significant, though often overlooked, sign of _________ __________ (_______ __________) and can be an early indicator for diagnosis and treatment

A

yellowish ; posterior

disseminated tuberculosis

miliary tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

most serious complication of childhood tuberculosis is ???

A

Tuberculous meningitis

25
What is Scrofula?
Tuberculosis of Superficial Lymph Nodes
26
__________ is the most common form of extrapulmonary tuberculosis in children
Scrofula
27
The _________ is the most commonly affected bone in childhood tuberculosis
spine
28
Gibbus: is a ______________ on the back resulting from _________________ collapse of one or more destroyed vertebral _______(s) It typically involves the _________________ and _________________ vertebrae
sharp angulation ; anterior wedge body ; lower thoracic upper lumbar
29
_______ is the recommended TB test in patient > 5 yr
IGRAs
30
Gene Xpert MTB/RIF Full meaning
Mycobacterium Rifampicin
31
In asthma, Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is __________
Reduced
32
__________ lung function test is useful in home monitoring of asthma
Peak expiratory flow rate
33
Spirometry: confirms airflow limitation; usually feasible ni children ______ yr of age
>6
34
Lung function tests ______, and _______ are reduced in asthma
FEV1; FEV1/FVC
35
FEV,/FVC <_______ indicates significant airflow obstruction
0.80
36
Reversibility of airflow limitation, demonstrated by administering _________ _________-acting Beta agonist (e.g. _________), which increases FEV1, by _____% or ____ mL after ______ , is • consistent with asthma.
inhaled ; short salbutamol ; >12% 200 mL ; 15 min
37
Which is more potent for asthma? Anticholinergics or Beta Agonists
Beta agonists
38
_____________ are the most effective anti-inflammatory agents used in asthma therapy
Inhaled Corticosteroids (ICSs):
39
40
Skin tests: positive in _______ asthma, and negative in _______ asthma
alergic; intrinsic
41
Rehydration Maintenance therapy If child can drink: maintenance is given ________ as _______ (preferred) but If child is unable to drink or intravenous rehydration is indicated: maintenance is given ____________ using ___% ________ in ______% _______ (D5 1⁄2 NS)
orally ; ORS intravenously %5 dextrose 0.45% NaCI
42
Maintenance potassium:_____ mmol ______ should be added to each _______ ml of maintenance IV fluid If child is making adequate urine (1-2 ml/kg/hr)
20; KCL 1000
43
Antiemetic: since persistent vomiting can limit oral rehydration therapy, single dose of _________ (0.2 mg/kg) may be given as sublingual tablet, VI or IM. However, most children do not require specific antiemetic therapy
ondansetron
44
Antimotility agents: (e.g. loperamide) are (indicated or contraindicated?) in children with dysentery and probably have no role in the management of acute watery diarrhea in otherwise healthy children
contraindicated
45
46
47
Some Sporozoites of P. ______ and P. _________, instead of multiplying, enter a __________ phase, _______—, within the liver cells
vivax ; ovale, dormant ; Hypnozoites
48
49
chill is a feeling of ________, while rigor is __________ associated with __________
coldness coldness; shivering
50
Malaria Nephropathy P. _______ malaria may be associated, in children, with __________ malaria nephropathy, a __________ syndrome which results from deposition of antimalarial antibodies in the glomerular basement membrane - Also, P. falciparum malaria may be complicated by acute renal failure, and rarely acute glomerulonephritis
malariae; quartan nephritic
51
52
53
54
ASTHMA Exhaled _________: a noninvasive test to measure degree of airway inflammation. It is reduced by inhaled corticosteroids; thus a measure for compliance with therapy
nitric oxide
54
Asthma treatment cromolyn sodium and nedocromil sodium inhibits _________
Mast cells
56
Febrile Seizures: are seizures occurring in a child between _______ to _______ of age due to temperature >_____°C, which is not resulting from CNS infection or any metabolic imbalance, and the child is otherwise neurologically normal
3 mo to 6 yr 38
57