principles 2 wrong answers Flashcards

1
Q

what is the site of spermatozoa production

A

seminiferous tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what drains semen into the urethra

A

ejaculatury duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the rete testis

A

anastomosing network of delicate tubules located in the hilum of the testicle (mediastinum testis) that carries sperm from the seminiferous tubules to the efferent ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what drains its venous blood directly into the systemic venous system

A

anal canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

the fracture of this bone could cause trauma to the kidney

A

rib 11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what bone is part of the appendicular skeleton commonly used for obtaining bone marrow aspirates in the adult

A

ilium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

a fingertip inserted through the gasto-omental (gastricepiploic) foramen will be within this space

A

lesser sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

the pelvic splanchnic nerves are found in this structure

A

mesentery of the sigmoid colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the gastroepiploic artery

A

one of the two terminal branches of the gasproduodenal artery. It arises between the superior part of the duodenum and the pancreas. It courses downwards towards the midline, running inferiorly to the pylorus of the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

contains circulatory muscle arranged in the form of an anatomical sphincter under somatic control

A

anus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

contains circulatory and longitudinally arranged muscle which are stimulated to contract by the pelvic splanchnic nerves

A

sigmoid colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the pelvic splanchnic nerves and what do they supply

A

The pelvic splanchnic nerves contribute to the innervation of the pelvic and genital organs. The nerves regulate the emptying of the urinary bladder, control opening and closing of the internal urethral sphincter, influence motility in the rectum as well as sexual functions like erection

The pelvic splanchnic nerves provide parasympathetic innervation to the descending and sigmoid colon, the rectum, and pelvic viscera via the inferior hypogastric plexus. Parasympathetic innervation to the colon and rectum increases peristalsis, and inhibits the internal anal sphincter to allow for defecation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

its is a retroperitoneal structure under the control of prostaglandin fibres from the celiac plexus

A

third part of the duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the function of the olfactory nerve

A

sense of smell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the function of the optic nerve

A

transmits into to the brain regarding a persons vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the function of the oculomotor nerve

A

helps control eye movements and upper eyelid

  • constriction and relaxation of pupil
  • adjust the lens
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the function of the trochlear nerve

A

involved in eye movement

allows eye to point downward an inward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the function of the trigeminal nerve

A
  • helps person chew and clench teeth and gives sensation to muscles in the tympanic membrane in the ear
  • The ophthalmic part gives sensation to parts of the eyes, including the cornea, mucosa in the nose, and skin on the nose, the eyelid, and the forehead.
  • The maxillary part gives sensation to the middle third of the face, side of the nose, upper teeth, and lower eyelid.
  • The mandibular part gives sensation to the lower third of the face, the tongue, mucosa in the mouth, and lower teeth.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the function of the abducens nerve

A

helps control eye movements - helps the lateral rectus muscle to turn the gaze outwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the function of the facial nerve

A
- movement of muscles that - - produce facial expression
movement of the lacrimal
- submaxillary, and submandibular glands
- the sensation of the external ear
- the sensation of taste
21
Q

what is the function of the vestibulocochlear nerve

A

involved with persons hearing and balance

  • The vestibular nerve helps the body sense changes in the position of the head with regard to gravity. The body uses this information to maintain balance.
  • The cochlear nerve helps with hearing. Specialized inner hair cells and the basilar membrane vibrate in response to sounds and determine the frequency and magnitude of the sound.
22
Q

what is the function of the glossopharyngeal nerve

A
  • The sensory function receives information from the throat, tonsils, middle ear, and back of the tongue. It is also involved with the sensation of taste for the back of the tongue.
  • The motor division provides movement to the stylopharyngeus, which is a muscle that allows the throat to shorten and widen.
23
Q

what is the function of the vagus nerve

A
  • The sensory part provides sensation to the outer part of the ear, the throat, the heart, abdominal organs. It also plays a role in taste sensation.
  • The motor part provides movement to the throat and soft palate.
  • The parasympathetic function regulates heart rhythm and innervates the smooth muscles in the airway, lungs, and gastrointestinal tract.
24
Q

what is the function of the accessory nerve

A

It controls the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles that allow a person to rotate, extend, and flex the neck and shoulders.

25
what is the function of the hypoglossal nerve
- supplies the tongue nerve | - can cause paralysis of the tongue
26
where does the branch of the descending thoracic aorta go
becomes the abdominal aorta
27
where does the first branch of the aortic aorta go
- brachiocephalic trunk) - ascends laterally to split into the right common carotid and right subclavian arteries. These arteries supply the right side of the head and neck, and the right upper limb.
28
where does the internal thoracic artery go
runs under the fascia and deep to the intercostal muscles. In the proximal part, the internal thoracic artery also gives off other vessels which supply the breast, thymus, mediastinum, and sternum.
29
what's the second branch of the aorta and where does it go to
- 2nd branch = left common carotid | - supplies the left side of the head and neck
30
what's the 3rd branch of the aorta and where does it go to
- subclavian arteries | - supplies the left upper limb
31
what does the right carotid artery supply
carries blood to the right side of the brain
32
what doe stem right subclavian arteries supply
delivers blood to the arm and brain
33
abnormal function of the vagus nerve is responsible for this motor deficit
muscle that is active in phonation
34
abnormal function of the oculomotor nerve is responsible for this motor deficit
muscle that constricts the pupil
35
abnormal function of the trigeminal nerve is responsible for
muscle that connects the zygomatic bone to the akin of the upper lip
36
If an infected embolus from the valve suddenly occluded this vessel the patient would suffer ONLY a "stroke" involving the visual cortex
second branch of the arch of aorta
37
If an infected embolus from the valve suddenly occluded this vessel the patient might complain of sharp, stabbing pain well-localised to the postero-lateral part of an intercostal space
branch of the descending thoracic aorta
38
If an infected embolus from the valve suddenly occluded this vessel the patient might be expected to suffer loss of function in one upper limb ONLY
third branch of the arch of aorta
39
During the absorptive state what is the main source of energy
glucose
40
Which complex does not pump protons as electrons pass through the respiratory chain?
complex 2 | - FADH2 --> FAD
41
How many NAD+ molecules are reduced in the degradation of palmitoyl-CoA to form eight molecules of acetyle-CoA?
7
42
The enzyme glucose-6-phosphatase is only found in cells which have this function or ability:
ability to store glycogen
43
Which of the following mechanisms is used for ATP synthesis in the glycolytic pathway?
substrate phosphorylation - Substrate-level phosphorylation is a metabolism reaction that results in the production of ATP or GTP by the transfer of a phosphate group from a substrate directly to ADP or GDP.
44
what is a feature of a malignant cell
- increased nuclear:cytoplasmic ratio - diploidy - marked pleomorphism - abnormal mitotic figures
45
what are features of oncogenes
- They were first identified as genes encoding proteins responsible for the carcinogenic properties of DNA tumour viruses - They can be activated by point mutation - They stimulate cell proliferation - They act in a dominant manner
46
describes the action of a competitive antagonist on the concentration response curve for an agonist acting on the same receptor when displayed on a plot of biological response (linear scale) versus agonist concentration (log scale).
The position of the agonist concentration response curve is shifted to the right in a parallel manner with no change in the maximum response
47
what is the normal range of mean arterial blood pressure
70-105mmHg
48
what does glycogen phosphorylase catalyse
glycogen breakdown
49
virus which can reactivate from a latent state to cause disease?
herpes simplex virus