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FAMILY MEDICINE > Prof. Etukumana > Flashcards

Prof. Etukumana Flashcards

1
Q

________ Provides the basis for developing organizational goals and objectives

A

Mission statement

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2
Q

The 2 types of organizational structure

A
  1. Pyramidal organizational Structure
  2. Flat organizational Structure
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3
Q

Which of the models of organizational Structure emphasizes on bureaucracy?

A

Mechanistic Organizational Structure

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4
Q

Which of the models of organizational Structure tend to employ cross-functional team with low formalization?

A

Organic Organizational Structure

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5
Q

_________ creates a sense of identity for members within the organization

A

Organizational Culture

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6
Q

Mention the sources of conflict in an organization (hint: 5)

A

incongruent goals, power, status, culture, resources

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7
Q

Ways of handling organizational conflict are (hint: 4)

A

avoiding
accommodating
compromise
negotiation

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8
Q

Steps in decision making (hint: 7)

A
  1. Identification of the problem,
  2. establishment of decision criteria,
  3. search for relevant information,
  4. development of alternative solutions to problem,
  5. evaluation of alternative solutions,
  6. choose the best solution,
  7. implementation and monitoring of chosen solution
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9
Q

What is organizational management

A

Management is the process of ensuring optimum utilization of the resources of the organization( human, Finance, materials) to achieve organizational goal and objectives

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10
Q

Mention the functions of management (hint: 5)

A
  1. Planning
  2. Organizing
  3. Commanding
  4. Coordinating
  5. Controlling
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11
Q

which function of management involves comparing actual performance with established standards or planned action

A

Controlling

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12
Q

A leader should be able to carryout the functions of management, T/F

A

TRUE

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13
Q

________ is the process of developing a commitment to some course of action

A

Decision making

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14
Q

_______ necessitates making a choice

A

Decision making

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15
Q

List the 8 roles/functions of a leader of an organization

A

planning, organizing, commanding, coordinating, controlling, communication, decision-making, managing change in organization

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16
Q

Characteristics of effective leader (hint: 10)

A
  1. Intelligence
  2. Knowledgeable & expertise
  3. Dominance
  4. Self-confidence
  5. High energy,
  6. Tolerance for stress
  7. Maturity
  8. Integrity
    9, Honesty
  9. Accountability
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17
Q

List the principles of Management (hint: 13)

A
  1. Division of labour
  2. Co-existing authority and responsibility
  3. Principle of one Boss
  4. Unity of direction:
  5. Equity
  6. Order
  7. Discipline
  8. Initiative
  9. Remuneration
  10. Scalar chain:
  11. Sub-ordination of individual interest to general interest
    12.Espirit De’corp
  12. Centralization or decentralization
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18
Q

The main objective of BLS is to provide ________ and to _______

A

oxygen to the heart and the brain
sustain tissue viability

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19
Q

CAB principle of BLS stands for

A

Compression, Airway, Breathing

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20
Q

BLS is not based on Cardiopulmonary resuscitation, T/F

A

FALSE

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21
Q

Mention the clinical indicators of patient at risk of cardiac arrest (hint: 4)

A

tachypnoea
tachycardia
hypotension
reduced conscious level

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22
Q

Documented cases of CPR related infection are (hint: 3)

A

Neisseria meningitidis (mainly)
Tuberculosis
HIV transmission

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23
Q

If there is a suspected cervical spine injury what BLS maneuver should be done for opening the airway

A

Jaw thrust

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24
Q

Assess breathing for ____secs before deciding breathing is absent

A

10 seconds

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25
Q

Rescue breath is also called _____

A

Expired air ventilation

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26
Q

When giving rescue breath chin lift must be maintained at all times, T/F

A

TRUE

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27
Q

For chest compression, depress the sternum for ___cm at a rate of

A

4-5cm
100/min

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28
Q

Mouth-to-mouth rescue breath can be given to a drowned patient with cardiopulmonary failure, T/F

A

FALSE
Mouth-to-nose ventilation is recommended

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29
Q

Recovery position has how many stages

A

4

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30
Q

List the components of Pediatric chain of survival (hint: 4)

A
  1. Prevention of cardiopulmonary arrest
  2. Early CPR
  3. Early access to Emergency Medical Service (EMS)
  4. Early access to Pediatric advanced life support (PALS)
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31
Q

to access circulation, palpate _____ pulse in children

A

Brachial pulse

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32
Q

The two techniques of chest compression in pediatric are

A
  1. Two finger technique
  2. Thumb-encircling hands technique
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33
Q

How many rescue breath per minute do you give in pBLS in a child with respiratory failure but signs of circulatory presence

A

20 rescue breaths per minute

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34
Q

In pediatric, heart rate less than ___ is an indication to start chest compression

A

60bpm

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35
Q

In tropical Africa _______ are responsible for most snake bites

A

Vipers

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36
Q

Which family of snake has venom with powerful neurotoxic effect leading to muscular paralysis

A

Elapidae e.g., Cobra, Mamba, Coral snake

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37
Q

The hydrophidae has what type of venom

A

Myotoxic venom which causes necrolysis of muscles

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38
Q

Most victims of snake bite are b/w the ages ___ & ____yrs

A

5 & 30yrs

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39
Q

Most sites of snake bite occur on the hand, T/F

A

FALSE.

More on the feet

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40
Q

The effect of snake venom on a victim depends on ______ & _____

A

Type/Family of the snake AND amount of venom

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41
Q

Local swelling is most common in which families of snake (hint: 2)

A

Viperidae & Crotalidae

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42
Q

Local swelling is most common in which families of snake (hint: 2)

A

Viperidae & Crotalidae

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43
Q

Early systemic symptom of viper’s venom is ________

A

Blood-stained spit

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44
Q

Early systemic symptom of Elapidae venom is ________

A

Ptosis

followed by Glosso-pharyngeal palsy

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45
Q

List the toxin in Cobra’s venom

A

Neurotoxin, Cardiotoxin

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46
Q

Mention the 5 poisonous snake families

A

Viperidae
Crotalidae
Elapidae
Colubridae
Hydrophidae

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47
Q

Presence of species-specific venom of snake can be confirmed by _________

A

Immunodiffusion

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48
Q

When do you give anti-venom serum

A

When the victim starts showing signs of systemic venom poisoning

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49
Q

How do you administer Polyvalent viper-Cobra-Mamba anti-venom serum

A

Give 50-100ml anti-venom serum in 200-300ml of isotonic saline via infusion in 1hr

N/B: Test dose of 0.2ml s.c or IM should be given first

50
Q

Administering Tetanus toxoid is part of mgt of snake bitten victim, T/F

A

TRUE

51
Q

A Hydrophidae bitten victim can present with what systemic features

A

Muscle pain & stiffness, external ophthalmoplegia, Trismus, Myoglobinuria, Proteinuria, renal failure

52
Q

What is Evidence-based medicine

A

defined as “the conscientious, explicit and judicious use of current best available evidence in making decisions about the care of the individual patient.” by David Sackett

53
Q

EBM is the integration of _______, ______ & ______

A

Best research evidence with Clinical expertise and patient value

54
Q

Types of Evidence

A
  1. Disease oriented evidence (DOE)
  2. Patient oriented evidence that matters (POEM)
55
Q

The most reliable & acceptable evidence in the hierarchy of evidence is

A

Level I Randomized controlled trials/Meta-analyses/systematic reviews

56
Q

Case series is in Level II of hierarchy of evidence, T/F

A

FALSE

Level III

57
Q

Clinical practice guidelines are fixed protocol that must always be followed, T/F

A

FALSE

There are not fixed protocols that must always be followed but intended for health providers to consider

58
Q

Cohort study is under what level of hierarchy of evidence

A

Level II

59
Q

Types of Solid state storage (hint: 2)

A
  1. Flash drive
  2. Media card
60
Q

Types of optical storage devices

A
  1. Compact disc (CD)
  2. Digital versatile disc (DVD)
61
Q

Hard disk drive is an example of Solid storage device, T/F

A

FALSE

62
Q

Motherboard (MOBO) is a _____ component of a computer

A

Computation

63
Q

Computer applications in medicine (hint: 12)

A
64
Q

The conditions that usually affects patients during sports and recreational activities are _______ & _______

A

orthopedic and medical conditions

65
Q

Pre-participation physical examination provides an opportunity for general health assessment, T/F

A

TRUE

66
Q

Pre-participation examination consists of both _____ & _____ components

A

medical and musculoskeletal components

67
Q

The leading cause of sudden cardiac death in young athletes is ________

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

68
Q

Syncope that occurs after exercise is a warning symptom in athlete, T/F

A

FALSE

Syncope that occur during but not after exercise is of great concern and needs cardiologist assessment

69
Q

List the warning symptoms in athletes

A

palpitations, chest pain, lightheadedness, dyspnea and fatigue greater than expected for level of activity

70
Q

Echocardiography is recommended for the screening of all athletes, T/F

A

FALSE

ECG is being recommended for the screening of all athletes

71
Q

ECG is more sensitive than history and physical examination in identifying athletes with underlying cardiovascular disease, T/F

A

TRUE

72
Q

________ arrhythmias are common in athletes

A

Bradyarrhythmias caused by increased resting vague tone are common in athletes e.g. sinus bradycardia, sinus arrhythmia, and atrioventricular (AV) block

73
Q

Causes of sudden death in athletes (hint: 5)

A
  1. Structural cardiac abnormalities such as hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, coronary artery anomalies
  2. Commotio Cordis
  3. Drugs and stimulants
  4. Complete heart block
  5. Exertional hyponatremia
74
Q

What is concussion?

A

A concussion is a traumatically induced transient disturbance in neurological function, usually caused by a direct blow to the head, neck or face that resolves spontaneously

75
Q

Computed tomography or MRI is indicated in concussion, T/F

A

FALSE

76
Q

What test would aid return-to-play or practice of an asymptomatic concussion athlete

A

Neuropsychological testing

77
Q

List symptoms of concussion (hint: 6)

A

loss of consciousness, amnesia, confusion, vision problems, nausea and balance problems

78
Q

Heat stroke is usually associated with ______

A

Mental status changes

79
Q

Hypothermia is defined as a core temperature at or below 35 centigrade, T/F

A

FALSE

at or below 32 centigrade

80
Q

What is exercise

A

Exercise is a planned, coordinated and regular physical activity carried out to improve one or more components of physical fitness

81
Q

Classification of exercise (hint: 3)

A
  1. Aerobic
  2. Anaerobic
  3. Flexibility
82
Q

A complete exercise session follows the three stages of exercise which are

A

Warm up
Work out
Cool down

83
Q

What is exercise prescription?

A

Exercise prescription refers to the specific plan of fitness-related activities that are designed for a specified purpose

84
Q

Define medical screening

A

It is the systematic application of a test or inquiry to identify individuals at sufficient risk of a specific disorder to benefit from further investigation or direct preventive action

85
Q

Medical screening is usually performed on a person that is apparently in good health, T/F

A

TRUE

86
Q

What are the types of medical screening?

A
  1. Universal or Mass Screening
  2. Selective (High Risk) screening or Case Finding
  3. Multiphase Screening
87
Q

WHO Modified Medical Screening Criteria (2008) (hint: 10)

A
  1. Screening programme should respond to a recognized need
  2. The objectives of screening should be defined at the onset
    3.. There should be a defined target population
  3. There should be scientific evidence of screening programme effectiveness
  4. The programme should integrate education, testing , clinical services and programme management
  5. There should be quality assurance to minimize potential risks of screening
  6. The programme should promote equity and access to screening for all involved
  7. should ensure informed choice, confidentiality and respect for autonomy
  8. evaluation should be planned from onset
  9. The overall benefits of screening should outweigh the harm
88
Q

True communication is not possible without _________

A

perception

89
Q

_________ is the process of forming impressions about something and then making a judgement about this

A

Perception

90
Q

Our perception and our judgement are affected/influenced by our _______

A

Senses

91
Q

The components of communication (hint: 5)

A

Source/sender—origin of message
Receiver—receiver and interpreter
Channel—means of transmission
Message—idea that is communicated
Effects—results

92
Q

Writing is under what type of communication?

A

Verbal communication

93
Q

When two people talk directly to each other the meaning of the message is derived from 6 things, which are

A

Spoken word → language
Voice tone → paralanguage
Gesture and expression → body language (voluntary and involuntary)
Dress and grooming → personal appearance eg, overcoat, hairstyle, etc.
Possessions → personal effects, eg pen, stethoscope
Affiliations and activities → context and intent of the behaviour

94
Q

____% of message is conveyed by body language

A

55%

95
Q

Only 38% of the message is conveyed by Spoken words, T/F

A

FALSE
Only 20-30%

38% by para language

96
Q

Non verbal signals are largely subconscious, T/F

A

TRUE

97
Q

_______ gaze is usually below the eye level

A

Social gaze

98
Q

_______ gaze tends to move below the chin

A

Intimate gaze

99
Q

The lips smile is deceptive, T/F

A

TRUE

100
Q

Characteristics of speech (hint: 4)

A

Tone
Speed
Loudness
Rhythm

101
Q

_____ determines a doctors empathy rating

A

Patient’s response only

102
Q

Interpersonal skills of communication are unconsciously employed, T/F

A

FALSE

Interpersonal skills are deliberate and consciously employed

103
Q

Interpersonal skills comprise of ________, ________ & _________

A

understanding, empathy and relational versatility

104
Q

Barriers to effective communication (hint: 5)

A

Language barrier
Workplace environment
Status and position
Resistance to Change
Emotional reactions

105
Q

Empathy is a visceral response, T/F

A

FALSE

Empathy is a cerebral response while sympathy is a visceral response

106
Q

The 3 basic functions of medical consultation are

A

(a) Building relationship
(b) Collecting Data
(c) Agreement on Management Plan

107
Q

The quality of consultation and clinical outcomes depends on effective _________

A

Communication

108
Q

Define Medical consultation based Prof. Etukumana

A

defined as a process in which a person who is ill or believes himself/herself to be ill, seeks the advice of a doctor whom he/she trusts, ideally in a consulting room. (Etukumana EA, Uniuyo)

109
Q

Desired Outcomes of Medical Consultation are (hint: 9)

A
  1. Build the doctor-patient relationship
  2. Collection of data
  3. To agree on management
  4. Patient satisfaction
  5. Reduced risk of complaints
  6. Adherence to treatment program
  7. Improved health outcomes
  8. Job Satisfaction
  9. Increase practice turnover
110
Q

Mention the Models or Approaches of medical consultation (hint: ABC3D2eFGHISPaN)

A

A- Anthropological/Folk Model by Helman
B- Biopsychosocial Interpretation by Engel G
C1- Consultation Maps Model by David Pendleton
C2- Cambridge-Calgary Model by Silverman Kurtz and Draper
C3- Comprehensive Model of Consultation
D1- Disease-illness Model (Integrated patient centred Clinical Model) by Stewart & Roter
D2- Doctor as treatment Model by Michael Balint
F- Flanagan’s Model
G- Games people play by Eric Berne
H- Health Belief Model by Becker & Maiman
I- inner consultation model by Roger Neighbor
S- Six category intervention analysis by John Heron
P- Patient centred Model by Byrne & long
N- Narrative-based Model( John Launer)

111
Q

Telephone medical consultation is used mostly in emergency, T/F

A

TRUE

112
Q

List the skills for effective consultation (hint: 6)

A
  1. Welcoming
  2. Questions
  3. Listening
  4. Responding
  5. Explanation
  6. Closure
113
Q

Define Travel medicine

A

Travel Medicine seeks to prevent illnesses and injuries occurring to travelers going abroad and also manage problems arising in travellers coming back or coming from abroad

114
Q

The % mortality associated with travelers are
-for Accident/trauma
- for CVS
-for Infectious dx

A

cardiovascular diseases(50-70%)
accidents/trauma(20-25%)
infectious disease (2.4 – 4%)

115
Q

Travel consultation involves 5 things which are

A

Risk assessment
Risk reduction
Shared decisions
Consultation should be carried out 4 weeks prior to departure
An opportunity to carry out travel health advice

116
Q

Pre-travel consultation should be carried out ____wks prior to departure

A

4 weeks

117
Q

Drowning is a common cause of death amongst travelers, T/F

A

TRUE

118
Q

In ulcer mgt reduced acidity may predispose to _______ disease

A

Diarrhoeal disease

119
Q

In traveler’s diarrhoeal, water contamination is more common than food contamination, T/F

A

FALSE
Food contamination is more common than water

120
Q

Duration of illness of Traveler’s diarrheal is normally ____to____ days

A

3-5days

FAMILY MEDICINE (7 decks)

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