Prolog Flashcards

1
Q

An elevated anti-Yo antibody level usually points to?

A

Paraneoplastic syndrome, most likely of breast or ovarian origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Preferred initial therapy for VTE (except in the case of renal insuff)

A

LMWH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Stains for CK7, CA 125, PAX8, and WT1 are positive for ?

A

Serous ovarian tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Stains for CK20, CEA, and CDX2 are positive for?

A

GI tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Obese women who undergo bariatric surgery should use reliable contraception to avoid pregnancy for at least

A

12 months!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Osteopenia is defined as a T-score between??

A

-2.5 and -1.0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

1st line medical therapy recommended for adolescents with depression?

A

Fluoxetine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

PEP for HIV is ineffective thus not recommended if it has been more than how long since exposure?

A

72hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Use of hormonal contraceptives/HT is not recommended for pts w HIV on what antiretroviral bc they have been shown to decrease antiretroviral levels?

A

Fosamprenavir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Most sensitive test to detect local recurrence after hysterectomy for endometrial Ca. Is?

A

Physical exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Recommended Tx of hyperthyroidism in 1st trimester?

A

PTU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Recommended Tx of hyperthyroidism in 2nd&3rd trimester?

A

Methimazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Why is it recommend to switch from one thioamide anti thyroid agent to another after 1st trimester?

A

To balance the rare risks of hepatotoxicity ( assoc w PTU) and embryopathy (methimazole assoc aplasia cutis & esophageal/choanal atresia, so switch to this in 2nd trimester)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Cesarean delivery should be offered/ considered when the EFW is ??

A

> 5000g in a nondiabetic & >4500g in a diabetic woman

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

MC malformation assoc w an increased NT & normal karyotype?

A
Cardiac defects 
(Septal defects are the MC)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Best initial Tx for gDM?

A

Lifestyle and dietary changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

All OBGYNs should be vaccinated aged against Hep B therefore are at greatest risk of infection by needlestick from a pt infected with what?

A

Hep C (risk is 1.8% compared with 0.3% for HIV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The only approved therapy for PrEP is?

A

Combo of emtricitabine and tenofovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

If placenta previa is dxed in 2nd trimester, repeat US is recc when?
Follow up from there?

A

32wks; if placental edge is >2cm from internal os-> routine antenatal care,
if <2cm from os or still a previa-> repeat US @36wks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Best option to reduce vasomotor Sxs in a pt on Tamoxifen for breast Ca ? Which med should be avoided?

A

Venlafaxine ;
Not paroxetine since it may decrease the cnvsn of tamoxifen to its active metabolite
(V and T go together not P)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Tx is recommended for osteoporosis for pts with a T-score of ___ ? Or for women w a FRAX score w a 10-yr risk of what??

A

-2.5 or less ;

3% or greater for a hip fracture or a risk of 20% or greater for a major osteoporotic fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

This galactagogue is a dopamine antagonist used to promote stomach emptying & GI motility, & has been shown to increase breast milk supply ?
Black box warning for?

A

Metoclopramide;

Tardive dyskinesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Studies have shown an association btwn periodontal disease and what pregnancy complication?

A

Preterm birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Preventing a disease process before it occurs through prevention of exposures that may cause the disease (ex is vaccination)

A

Primary prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Decreases the effect of a disease or injury that has already occurred, mainly by early detection & prompt Tx to hat or slow progression (ie cervical ca screening & mammography)
Secondary prevention
26
The thrombophilia test most influenced by pregnancy?
Protein S activity level | ie testing for Protein S deficiency is NOT reliable in preg
27
The component of the umbilical cord blood that is most consistent with a neurologic injury that is a result of an acute intrapartum event?
Base deficit
28
Most likely congenital infection w the US finding- echogenic bowl/intraabdominal calcifications & symmetric fetal growth restriction?
CMV
29
Most likely congenital infection w the US finding- placentomegaly?
Syphilis
30
Microcephaly primarily associated with what 3 congenital infections?
Toxo and Zika and varicella
31
Most likely congenital infection w the US finding- ascites?
Parvovirus B19
32
Most likely abnormal fetal karyotype w the US findings- cerebral ventriculomegaly & echogenic bowl
47, XX, +21 (trisomy 21)
33
Holoprosencephaly is assoc w fetal aneuploidy in ~40% of cases, of aneuploid fetuses w this finding, 75% are a result of ?
Trisomy 13
34
Most likely abnormal fetal karyotype w the US findings- overlapping fingers or clenched hands, cardiac & CNS anomalies, CPCs?
Trisomy 18
35
Urticarial papules and plaques that begin on abdomen esp around umbilicus
Pemphigoid gestationis
36
Urticarial papules and plaques that begin on abdomen with sparing of the umbilical region
Polymorphic Eruption of Pregnancy
37
APGAR score for HR?
2 pts if HR >100bpm 1 pt if <100bpm 0 if absent
38
Thickened NT (>3mm), elevated b-hCG (>2 MoM), & low PAPP-A (<0.5 MoM)
Down syndrome
39
Lithium exposure assoc w increased risk of what cardiac malformation?
Ebstein’s anomaly (tricuspid valve is displaced into the RV)
40
Risk of fetal malformation from exposure to this drug is as high as 20 -25%, with defects including craniofacial ie microtia, hydrocephalus, CV, neurologic, Thymic, and neurocognitive impairment in 30-60%
Isoretinoin for acne
41
Best test to screen for glucose intolerance/ DM in a pt with PCOS?
75-g 2-hr oral GTT
42
Pts who sustain spinal cord lesions above what spinal column level are at risk of autonomic hyperreflexia?
Above T6
43
For a pt having surgical repair of a symptomatic urethral diverticula, who also has known SUI, best concomitant anti-incontinence surgery is? Why?
Autologous fascial sling; would serve as an additional tissue layer btwn the repaired urethra and vaginal epithelium, decreasing risk of fistula formation
44
For a pt having surgical repair of a symptomatic urethral diverticula, who also has known SUI, need to avoid what kind of anti-incontinence surgery? Why?
Avoid synthetic midurethral sling And periurethral bulking agents; Placement of foreign body materials should be avoided in pts w urethral diverticula bc they could increase risk of fistula formation
45
What size rectovaginal fistulas have up to a 40% chance of spontaneous closure so a period of expectant management is advised?
Less than 4 mm | Fistulas >5mm in size however rarely close without surgical intervention
46
The characteristic of pelvic mesh that results in the lowest rate of mesh extrusion is ?
Monofilament | Type 1 mesh is best it’s monofilament and macroporous
47
Most likely complication after vaginal placement of synthetic mesh is?
Mesh exposure
48
Nitrofurantoin carries what rare but real risk in older adults?
Chronic interstitial lung disease | therefore would not be ideal in a patient with COPD
49
What used to be recommended for evaluation of painful bladder syndrome but is no longer recommended unless there exists a concern for calculi, bladder foreign body, carcinoma, or bladder diverticulum ?
``` Office cystoscopy ( potassium sensitivity test also used to be but is no longer recommended) ```
50
1st line Tx of vaginal mesh erosion?
Estrogen
51
When a postop vesicovaginal fistula occurs, what evaluation must be done? Via?
Must confirm there is no ureteral injury which can occur in up to 12% of iatrogenic vesicovaginal fistulas, options for upper tract imaging inc CT urography or bilateral retrograde pyelography
52
MC complication assoc w retropubic midurethral sling procedure is?
Postop UTI (~30% of cases, vs bladder perforation ~5% of the time)
53
Will POP-Q point C be + or - in a pt with stage III prolapse?
+ (= cm below/distal to hymen; negative number is cm above/proximal to hymen)
54
What type of cysts are commonly found along the posterior or lateral vagina cephalad to the hymen, many of which are asymptomatic?
Gartner duct cysts | Which is the embryonic remnant of the mesonephric duct
55
Biggest RF for developing GTN?
Complete molar pregnancy in the antecedent pregnancy (which tend to have higher bhCG levels ie greater than 100,000)
56
Stains strongly + for placental alkaline phosphatase and p63
Epitheliod trophoblastic tumors
57
Stain strongly for Mel-CAM and human placental lactogen
Placental site trophoblastic tumors
58
For Tx of low-grade serous ovarian Ca, presence of BRAF mutation Correlates to response to what kind of targeted therapy?
MEK inhibitors
59
Ovarian cancer in patients with the BRCA mutations are particularly sensitive to??
PARP inhibitors
60
This easy and inexpensive test can be performed in the office and can confirm the presence of a bladder injury immediately
Blue dye test = tampon test
61
Tenderness’s erythema, or edema beyond the apparent confines of infection accompanied by systemic features of infection concerning for??
Necrotizing soft tissue infection
62
NCCN guidelines recommend sentinel LN biopsies for vulvar Ca. When ??
The tumors are less than 4cm in diameter
63
NCCN guidelines recommend full inguinofemoral lymphadenectomy for vulvar Ca. When ??
Tumors of 4cm or greater in diameter and when there is palpable lymphadenopathy
64
When is ipsilateral LN evaluation sufficient for vulvar cancer?
For well lateralized vulvar tumors ie >1-2cm from the midline
65
Which dopamine agonist is 1st line for the Tx of hyperprolactinemia 2/2 microadenoma in a pt wanting to get pregnant ?
Cabergoline
66
Which dopamine agonist is preferred to manage pts that require them in pregnancy?
Bromocriptine | Needs to be cont in preg of tumor abuts the optic chiasm
67
This drug has the strongest evidence of benefit in patients with advanced cancer with a nausea and vomiting without identifiable cause It should be avoided if what is suspected?
Metoclopramide; | Malignant bowel obstruction
68
Pts with a BMI of 30-34.9 are candidates for bariatric surgery if they have one of what 2 conditions?
Diabetes or metabolic syndrome
69
Best test to predict patients clinical response to pembrolizumab?
Test for PD-L1
70
Most appropriate anti-emetic comb for prevention in a patient with ovarian cancer scheduled to receive IV Carbo-taxel?
5-HT3 receptor antagonist (ie zofran), dexamethasone, and NK1 antagonist (ie aprepitant)
71
What level of emetic- risk are cisplatin and cyclophosphamide? Ie need how many antiemetics?
High-risk, need 4 (zofran, dexamethasone, aprepitant, and olanzapine
72
Fetus of obese women are adding increase risk of multiple malformations the highest attributable increased risk from obesity if for what structural malformation ?
Neural tube defects