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From Flashcardlet > PSYCH 241 - Midterm #1 > Flashcards

PSYCH 241 - Midterm #1 Flashcards

0
Q

Describe how personal dysfunction can be a method for detecting abnormality:

A
  • it is the extent to which a person’s behaviours or thoughts negatively impacts their ability to function
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1
Q

Decribe and define the two perspectives for defining abnormality:

A
  1. Categorical: when you either meet criteria or you don’t

2. Continuum: scale approach, allows responses to vary

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2
Q

What are the two major classification systems experts refer to, to diagnose clients?

A
  1. Diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders (DSM-5)
  2. International classification of mental and behavioural disorders (ICD-10)
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3
Q

Why diagnose?

A
  • organization of clinical information
  • shorthand communication
  • prediction of natural development
  • treatment recommendations
  • heuristic value
  • guidelines for financial support
  • predict prognosis
  • assist in treatment planning
  • assist in research
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4
Q

What are the 5 axis included within the DSM?

A
  1. Major mental disorders
  2. Personality disorders and mental retardation
  3. Relevant medical conditions
  4. Relevant life circumstances
  5. General functioning
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5
Q

What was an addition to the DSM within the DSM-5?

A
  • creation of sections II and III
  • II: the offical diagnostic criteria
  • III: is the optional dimensional, cultural, and alternative personality disorder
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6
Q

Critiques of the DSM:

A
  • DSM categorical does not recognize continuum between normal and abnormal, one is simply either or.
  • questions of reliability and validity… Are we using the right tools to measure these disorders, traits, and emotions?
  • suggest that there is a gender bias, where women are more likely to be diagnosed
  • process issues: such that the way we make decisions on what classifies as what and who is diagnosed as what comes down to the opinions of experts who write and update the DSM
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7
Q

Construct validity:

A
  • how well is it actually describing what is going on?
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8
Q

Concurrent validity:

A

-way of the diagnostic category to relate to expected factors of a disorder

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9
Q

Describe the critique of adherence to the medical model:

A
  • against classification
  • argues that we should not use to medical model because although medical disorders have clear indication, mental disorders do not
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10
Q

How is abnormality defined in a non-expert way?

A
  • culturally based
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11
Q

Define “mental illness”:

A
  • implies a medical rather than psychological cause that impairs the ability of a person to function in a way that is generally expected
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12
Q

Define “psychological disorder”:

A
  • is a specific manifestation of this impairment of functioning as described by some set of criteria that has been established by a panel of experts
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13
Q

Define “psychopathology”:

A
  • means both the scientific study of psychological abnormality and the problems faced by people who suffer from such disorder
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14
Q

What are the 5 principles in defining abnormality?

A
  1. Statistical concept
  2. Personal distress
  3. Personal dysfunction
  4. Violation of norms
  5. Diagnosis by an expert
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15
Q

Who was Hippocrates and what was he first to describe?

A
  • first to describe what he called as Hysteria
  • now known as Conversion disorder
  • claimed it only occurred in women
  • and was a result of a ‘wandering’ uterus
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16
Q

Name and describe the theory that rejected Hippocrates view of hysteria:

A
  • believed mental illness as a disorder that resulted from a Constriction of body tissue or from the relaxation of those tissues due to exhaustion
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17
Q

Define “concordance”:

A
  • is when a problem that characterizes the index case are also occurring in the comparing person
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18
Q

Define our “pre conscious”:

A
  • holds information not presently within our awareness but that can be readily be brought to our awareness
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19
Q

Define Freud’s “id”:

A
  • drives demands for instant gratification
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20
Q

Define Freud’s “ego”:

A
  • is making a decision based on avoiding pain or discomfort or consequences
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21
Q

Define Freud’s “superego”:

A
  • is the internalization of moral standards of society
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22
Q

Describe the Oedipal complex:

A
  • during the phallic stage boys are presumed to develop sexual desires for their mother and to see their father as a competitor for their mothers love
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23
Q

Describe the Electra Complex:

A
  • is within the phallic stage

- are girls who desire their father in order to get what they want

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24
Q

Classical conditioning = ?

A
  • learnt behaviour
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25
Q

Operant Conditioning = ?

A
  • taught through consequences
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26
Q

Define “Schemas”:

A
  • is referred to internal representations of stored information and experiences
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27
Q

What is Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?

A
  1. Psychological needs: basic necessities (water, food, shelter)
  2. Safety needs
  3. Belongingness needs
  4. Self-actualization needs
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28
Q

Describe the Systems theory

A
  • that the whole more than the sum of its parts
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29
Q

Describe “reductionism”:

A
  • the whole is the sum of its parts
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30
Q

Where do cognitive theorists believe mental health problems stem from?

A
  • dysfunctional beliefs
  • dysfunctional attitudes
  • dysfunctional ways of thinking
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31
Q

Define “psychological assessment”:

A
  • is a systematic gathering and evaluation of information pertaining to an individual with suspected abnormal behaviour
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32
Q

Define “internal consistency”:

A
  • refers to the degree of reliability within a test
  • two ways for measuring internal consistency
    • > split-half reliability
    • > coefficient alpha
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33
Q

Define “Split-half reliability”:

A
  • often evaluated by comparing responses on odd-numbered test items with responses on even-numbered test items
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34
Q

Define “coefficient alpha”:

A
  • is calculated by averaging the inter correlations of all items on a given test
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35
Q

Define “criterion validity”:

A
  • measures the instrument being used not the actual participants
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36
Q

Define “Content validity”:

A
  • where a tests contents include a representative sample of all behaviours thought to be related to the construct
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37
Q

Define “face validity”:

A
  • the user of the test believes that the items on that test resemble the characteristics associated with the concept being tested
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38
Q

What did Galton believe?

A
  • that pure intelligence could best be measured by studying physiological cues [ex. The speed of response to a flash of light]
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39
Q

Describe the Intelligence quotient and who it was developed by:

A
  • Developed by Binet
  • and is determined by taking a child’s mental age and dividing it by the child’s chronological age and then multiplexing it by 100
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40
Q

What is a projective test? And some downfalls to said test?

A
  • thought that a person taking this test will reflect their unconscious motives, needs, drives, and feelings onto the stimulus
    Ex] Rorschach Inkblot Test

-critiques is that clinician has to make assumptions about data

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41
Q

What is SORC and who is it developed by?

A
  • Kanfer and Phillips

S- stimuli
O-orgasmic
R- responses
C- Consequences

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42
Q

Define “Epidemiology”:

A
  • is the study of incidence and prevalance of disorders in a population
  • allows for detailed collection of information concerning the incidence and prevalence of disorders in large populations
  • BUT does Not allow easy correlations between cause and effect
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43
Q

What specific things does the biological model look at ?

A
  • damage to the brain
  • neurotransmitters
  • ANS
  • Endocrine system
  • Genetics
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44
Q

What are the 4 neurotransmitters that get the most research attention?

A
  • GABA
  • Dopamine
  • Serotonin
  • Norepinephrine
45
Q

Define “Dopamine”:

A
  • act for pleasure seeking and exploratory behaviours
46
Q

Define “Serotonin”:

A
  • constraint behaviours or inhibit them
47
Q

What are 4 disturbances in neurotransmitters that can contribute to abnormal behaviour ?

A
  1. Production/release at the synapse
  2. Receptor sites
  3. Transmitter-deactivating substance in the synapse
  4. Reuptake process
48
Q

What does the somatic nervous system control?

A
  • controls muscles
49
Q

What does the Autonomic Nervous system control?

A
  • controls bodily functions such as breathing, digestion and heart rate
  • 2 types
    1. Parasympathetic
    2. Sympathetic
50
Q

Describe the Endocrine system and what it controls:

A
  • Endocrine glands release hormones
  • ## disturbances in hormone balance can cause disruptions in Behavior, thoughts, feelings.
51
Q

What are the 4 aspects Freud includes in his psychodynamic theory?

A
  1. Level of consciousness
  2. Structures of the personality
  3. Psychosexual stages of development
  4. Defence mechanisms
52
Q

Define “reaction formation”:

A
  • repression of unacceptable desires by expressing the opposite to what you believe/ feel
53
Q

Unconditioned stimulus=

A
  • automatic response
54
Q

Conditioned stimulus=

A

Neutral stimulus

55
Q

Unconditioned response=

A

-automatic response

56
Q

Conditioned response=

A
  • learned response
57
Q

Describe cognitive-behavioural therapy:

A
  • has its roots in social learning theory because Bandura emphasized the importance of cognitive processes
  • introduces the notion that individuals do play an active role in regulating their behaviour
  • ex] Bandura’s Bobo doll experiment
58
Q

What do cognitive theories believe regarding the causation of thoughts and abnormalities?

A
  • that thoughts cause dysfunction
59
Q

What do Socio-cultural theories believe in regards to the causation of the causation of disorder?

A

-that stereotypes of gender, race, poverty, and labeling ‘cause’ disorders

60
Q

Describe the thematic apperception test (TAT):

A
  • consists of drawings on cards depicting ambiguous social interactions
  • participants are asked to create stories in relation to the photos
  • projective test
61
Q

Describe the Minnesota Multiphasic personality test (MMPI):

A
  • IS NOT a diagnostic test
  • most widely used and researched standardized test of personality and psychopathology
  • consist of 567 items that are all true or false statements
  • uses 10 clinical scales
62
Q

What are the 10 clinical scales, and describe each:

A
  1. Hypochondriasis: measures perception and preoccupation with health
  2. Depression
  3. Hysteria: measures the degree of emotionality
  4. Psychopath deviate: measures antisocial tendencies
  5. Masculinity-femininity
  6. Paranoia
  7. Psychasthenia: measures anxiety and obsessive worrying
  8. Schizophrenia : measure peculiarities in thinking
  9. Hypomania: measures elevated moods and impulsivity
  10. Social introversion: measures social anxiety, withdrawal, and over control
63
Q

Describe the Diathesis-stress theory:

A
  • people are believed to be predisposed to develop a disorder but a stressor is needed to introduce the appearance of symptoms
64
Q

Define “mood episode”:

A
  • periods of time when people are feeling certain symptoms of a disorder
  • 3 types : major depressive, manic, and hypomanic
65
Q

Describe a major depressive episode:

A
  • must have a depressed mood or diminished interest in pleasure
  • must have at least 4 other symptoms described by the DSM-5 for a two week period
  • this is NOT enough for a diagnosis but another piece of the puzzle
66
Q

Describe a Manic episode:

A
  • must be abnormally and persistently elevated, expansive, or have an irritable mood
  • must have increased energy or goal-directed activity for a minimum of 1 week and 3 or more other symptoms listed
  • mood disturbance must be sufficiently severe to cause impairment in occupational functioning or in usual social activities
67
Q

Describe a hypomanic episode:

A
  • this is the exact same as a manic episode except the duration is only 4 days not a week
  • it is less sever than a manic episode
68
Q

What do you need in order to be diagnosed as having major depressive disorder?

A
  • one majore depressive disorder
69
Q

What do you need in order to be diagnosed as being Bipolar 1?

A
  • one or more manic episodes

- may or may not have a major depressive disorder as well

70
Q

What do you need in order to be diagnosed as Bipolar 2:

A
  • one or more manic episodes

- one or more major depressive episodes

71
Q

Describe persistent depressive disorder:

A
  • is a depressed mood most of the day, more days than not
  • duration of at least 2 years (one for children)
  • significant impairment and not due to direct effects of substances
  • while depressed having 2 or more symptoms otherwise listed
72
Q

Describe Cyclothymia:

A
  • occurs for at least 2 years (1 for children) not without symptoms for more than 2 months at a time
  • numerous periods I with hypomanic symptoms and periods with depressive symptoms that do not meet criteria for Major depressive episode
  • significant impairment and not de to the direct physiological effects of a substance
73
Q

What are 2 types of unipolar mood disorders:

A
  1. MDD

2. Persistent depressive disorder

74
Q

What are 3 types of bipolar mood disorders?

A
  1. Bipolar 1
  2. Bipolar 2
  3. Cyclothymia
75
Q

What are the 3 stages to CBT?

A
  1. Behaviour activation (activity scheduling)
  2. Identifying accuracy of autonomic thoughts
  3. Challenging patients core beliefs and Schemas
76
Q

What are the 4 area Interpersonal therapy targets?

A
  1. Interpersonal disputes
  2. Role transition
  3. Grief
  4. Interpersonal deficits (interacting with others
77
Q

Define the Medication Tricyclics and what it does:

A
  • blocks the Reuptake from the synapse of catecholamines, norepinephrine, and serotonin
  • thus more of these neurotransmitters are available in the synapse to bind to post-synaptic receptors and trigger new action potentials
  • has many side effects and is lethal in dose
78
Q

Describe the duties of a Selective serotonin Reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs):

A
  • first-line of treatment
  • relatively mild side effects
  • ex] celexa, Paxil, Prozac, Zoloft
  • blocks the Reuptake of serotonin that is trying to reach the presynaptic cell
  • thus more serotonin gets in the synapse to bind to post-synaptic receptors and triggers new action potentials
79
Q

What percent of patients respond to antidepressants?

A

50-70% with high relapse rates

80
Q

True or false bipolar disorders can run in families and have a strong heritability?

A

TRUE

81
Q

What percent of bipolar patients have sleep deprivation trigger their mania?

A

Approx. 77%

82
Q

What are 4 medications for Bipolar disorder and are they most effective?

A
  • medications are most effective for bipolar disorders
    1. Lithium
    2. Anticonvulsants
    3. Antidepressants (risk for triggering mania and is typically used wit another form of mood stabilizer)
    4. Antipsychotics (short-term treatment)
83
Q

Who is the most at risk for suicide?

A
  • males 19-24 and over 70

- First Nations living on reserves

84
Q

What percent of people wo are depressed commit suicide?

A

15%

85
Q

What are the warning signs outlined by the American Assciation of suicidology?

A

I- ideation (suicidal thoughts)
S- substance abuse

P- purposeless
A-anxiety
T- trapped
H- hopelessness/helplessness

W- withdrawal
A- anger
R- recklessness
M- mood changes

86
Q

Define “non-suicidal injury”:

A
  • is deliberate harm to one’s own body tissue

- no intent to kill themselves

87
Q

Why is MDD often referred to as the “common cold”?

A
  • because it is so prevalent
88
Q

Define “mixed- state”:

A
  • is experiencing both mania/ hypomania and depressive symptoms at the same time
  • needs at least 3 symptoms of the opposing state
89
Q

What are 4 cognitive distortions?

A
  1. All or nothing thinking
  2. Over generalization
  3. Magnification
  4. Jumping to conclusions
90
Q

Define “suicidal ideation”:

A

Refers to thoughts of death and plans for suicide

91
Q

What is the most direct cause of suicide?

A
  • psychache (feeling of under durable psychological pain and frustration)
92
Q

How much more likely are you to develop anxiety if a family member has anxiety?

A

4-6 times greater than someone who doesn’t have any history of anxiety

93
Q

What is the 6 steps in a neural fear circuit?

A
  1. Thalamus
  2. Amygdala
  3. Hypothalamus
  4. Mid-brain
  5. Brain stem
  6. Spinal cord
94
Q

What does GABA do?

A
  • the most pervasive inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain
  • des creases the amount that neurotransmitters will fire
    Ex] benzodiazepines
95
Q

Describe the Two-Factor theory developed by Mowrer

A
  1. Fears are acquired through classical conditioning

2. Fears are maintained through operant conditioning

96
Q

How do anxious people see the self, the world, and the future?

A

Self- helpless and vulnerable
The world- dangerous
The future- uncertain

97
Q

What style of attachment is a predictor of anxiety problems in adult hood?

A

-anxious ambivalent

98
Q

What is the criteria for Panic disorder?

A
  • must contains at least 4 of the 13 symptom criteria
  • very intense experience
  • is not a diagnose itself
  • need two or more episodes
  • attack must come on suddenly
  • having persistent worries about a future attacks
99
Q

What is the criteria needed to be diagnosed as Agoraphobia?

A
  • anxiety about being in places that can be difficult to escape or which help can’t be readily available
  • for this to be diagnostic people must avoid this situation or endure with extreme anxiety or needing someone else with them to go
100
Q

Define the criteria needed for Social anxiety disorder:

A
  • a marked or intense, fear or anxiety of social situations in which the individual may be critiqued
  • a fear of negative evaluation
101
Q

Define the criteria need to be classified as OCD:

A
  • obsessions happen recurrently and are uncontrollable

- compulsions are acts or behaviours a person engages in is to stop the obsessions

102
Q

What is thought action fusion?

A
  • belief that having a particular thought increases the probability of that thought occurring and thoughts re of moral equivalent to action
103
Q

Define the criteria for general anxiety disorder:

A
  • fear/ worry isn’t on a specific situation
  • general worrying amongst situations
  • finds it difficult to control the worrying
  • needs 3 out of 6 criteria and it has to be present for more days than not for 6 months
104
Q

What is the recommended treatment for anxiety?

A
  • CBT
  • relaxation techniques
  • exposure
105
Q

What are the 5 phobias the DSM-5 outlines?

A
  1. Animal type
  2. Natural environment type [ex. Water, height, thunderstorms]
  3. Blood injection-injury type
  4. Situational type [ex.Bridges, enclosed spaces,public transportation]
  5. Other type [ex. Choking, committing, clowns]
106
Q

What is one of the most prevalent psychiatric disorders?

A
  • social anxiety
107
Q

What are the three main level of cognition that are emphasized in the cognitive theory?

A
  • Schemas
  • information processing an intermediate believes
  • automatic thoughts
108
Q

What does the clinical approach argue?

A
  • they argue that there is no substitute for clinicians experience and personal judgements
  • they have preferred to be guided by intuition with professional experiences then by following formal rules
109
Q

Describe the actuarial approach

A
  • are you that a more objective standard is needed

- something unbiassed and scientifically validated

110
Q

What part of the brain contains all the neurons and nerves and is essential in thinking

A

Cortex

111
Q

What is a cognitive triad

A
  • negative core beliefs about the self the world and future

“I’m a failure”
“No one loves me”
“My future is helpless”

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