Pt. Care Flashcards
(207 cards)
1
Q
Consent can be?
A
Oral, written, or implied
2
Q
An exam requires consent if it is
A
Invasive
3
Q
The patient has the right to
A
Information
4
Q
Consent is required for all procedures. The level of risk determines is whether the consent is?
A
Verbal or written
5
Q
A
6
Q
A high risk procedure requires consent that is
A
Written
7
Q
A low risk procedure requires what type of consent
A
Verbal
8
Q
A chest x-ray is an example of
A
Low risk procedure
9
Q
Intravenous contrast administered as an example of
A
High risk procedure
10
Q
Exams requiring the administration of a form of contrast with the risk of an allergic reaction require
A
Written consent
11
Q
The patient maintains the right to
A
Refuse the exam
12
Q
Consent forms may be signed by ___________ In the case of minors or incompetent patients
A
A responsible family member
13
Q
What does HIPAA stand for?
A
Health insurance portability and accountability act
14
Q
Hipaa requires patient medical records too
A
Remain confidential
15
Q
In HIPPA Only individuals with a need to know are
A
Permitted to access patient medical records
16
Q
Patient care has the right to
A
Consider and respectful care
17
Q
Additional rights for patient care
A
- Privacy
- Extent of care: DNR
- Access to information
- Living will, health proxy, advanced directives
- Research participation
- Autonomy
18
Q
__________ is the right to refuse medical treatment including a radiographic procedure
A
Autonomy
19
Q
________ are responsible for determining the patient’s chief complaint or single most important issue
A
Physicians
20
Q
What are the scared seven
A
- Localization
- Chronology
- Quality
- Severity
- Onset
- Aggravating or alleviating factors
- Associated manifestations
21
Q
________ Precise as possible. Area of patient complaint
A
Localization
22
Q
Time element of patient history such as duration since onset, frequency and course of symptoms
A
Chronology
23
Q
_______ Character of symptom, such as color, consistency, size, character of pain
A
Quality
24
Q
______ intensity, quantity, or extent of problem
A
Severity
25
______ when did the illness or condition begin
Onset
26
_________ circumstances that produce the problem, make it worse, or actions that can be taken to make the problem go away or be less intense
Aggravating or alleviating factors
27
Sequence of exam
1. Kub
2. Ivu
3. Be
4. Ugi
28
Who requires priority scheduling
1. Emergency pts.
2. Fasting pts.
3. Pediatric or geriatric patients that are NPO
4. Diabetics having to put off an insulin due to an exam that requires them to be NPO for the morning of exam
29
Who has Authorization to order a radiographic exam
Medical doctor w/ valid credentials
- md May does need to sign for them but does not relieve them of legal responsibility
30
Required clinical information on the requisition includes
1. Patient to be examined
2. Exact region or part to be radiographed
3. Ordering physician
4. Date of requisition
31
The threat of touching in an endrous manner
Assault
32
Unlawful Touching of a person without consent
- radiograph taken against the patient's will or the wrong patient could be considered this
Battery
33
When confidentiality of the patient information is not maintained or when a patient's body has been improperly and unnecessarily exposed/touched
Invasion of privacy
34
And unjustifiable detention of a person against his or her will
False imprisonment
35
Fail to produce adequate care or
The neglect or a mission of a reasonable care in caution
Negligence
36
Restraints require a
Physicians order
37
Written defamation or printed words
Libel
38
Defamation spoken by words
Slander
39
- An intentional or unintentional act resulting in injury to patient
- violations to civil law
Tort
40
When a patient is injured due to an error caused by a healthcare provider.
- Negligence is the most common form.
Malpractice
41
Act of doing goodness, kindness or charity, including all actions to benefit others
Benefice
42
Let the master answer
- an employer can be held liable for the actions of employee
Respondent Superior
43
The thing speaks for itself
- requires a defendant, the individual being sued, to prove his or her innocence
Res ispa loquitor
44
The seven c's of malpractice prevention
1. Competence
2. Compliance
3. Charting
4. Communication
5. Confidentiality
6. Courtesy
7. Carefulness
45
Knowing and adhering to professional standards
Competency
46
_______ with procedures and policies of institution
Compliance
47
Completely, consistently, & objectively
Charting
48
With patience, patients, relatives, and other healthcare workers
Communication
49
Protecting the confidentiality of medical information
Confidentiality
50
Both an attitude and rapor with patients
Courtesy
51
Take reasonable caution when dealing with patients
Carefulness
52
The Four D's of negligence
1. Duty
2. Deviation from care
3. Damages
4. Direct charges
53
These are examples of what:
1. Presentation of material
2. Attitudes
3. Voice tone and volume
4. Effective listening
Verbal/written modes of communication
54
These are examples of:
1. Eye contact
2. Touching
3. Facial expression
4. Physical appearance
5. Meta communication
Nonverbal communication
55
__________ Is the sum of verbal and nonverbal communication?
- tone of voice, body language, gestures, facial expressions
Meta communication
56
_________ is A sensitivity to the needs of others that allow you to meet those needs in a constructive manner
Empathy
57
Who formulated the five stages of grief
Elisabeth kubler- ross
58
The five processes of grieving involve
1. Denial
2. Anger
3. Bargaining
4. Depression
5. Acceptance
59
_____ use reflective answers and give support with that being unrealistic
Denial
60
61
Answers to patient questions should be a matter of fact nature
Anger
62
Directions given to patients should be clear and simple
Bargaining
63
Responses should be quiet and supportive
Depression
64
Show a willingness to listen to the patient of the communicate the nature of their loss
Acceptance
65
Setting where multiple subcultures and different value systems exist
- understanding different cultures may help to eliminate bias
- language barriers (never choose family)
Cultural diversity
66
How many hours prior is a patient? NPO for contrast
8 hours prior
67
Small bowel studies require
Cleansing
68
Never prescribe what after a contrast exam
Laxatives
69
It is better to ____ a heavy object rather than try to poor or lift it
Push
70
It's better to ____ a patient onto Table or stretcher
Pull
71
Wheelchair wheels should be locked when not in
Transit
72
Always put the patience _____ closest when transferring
Strong side
73
Proper body mechanics include
- Wide base
- Feet apart
- Balanced back straight
- Bend knees
74
75
Method of moving patients with other forms of spinal injury or metatastic disease, fracture and subluxation
Log rolling
76
______ requires three to five people
Two on each side of the patient
Wanted patients had directing movement
Log rolling
77
Used for the diagnosis of right and left ventricular failure and pulmonary disorders, and to monitor this effects of specific medications
Pulmonary artery catheter (swan-ganz)
78
Tip of catheter is placed in the ______ for swan- ganz
Pulmonary artery
79
21% to 60% oxygen is delivered
1- 6 liters a minute for adult
Low flow device
Nasal cannula
80
Used on patients that do not tolerate a nasal cannula
Uses a Flow rate greater than 5 liters a minute
High flow device
Oxygen mask
81
Plastic reservoir bag should never be completely flat
Delivers 60% to 90% oxygen to patient
Non-Rebreather mask
82
Commonly used on pediatric patients
Oxygen is delivered at a higher concentration than room air
Oxygen tent
83
The e.t tube is located
2 in" 5 cm above craina
84
Needs to be 18 to 24 in above level of vein
Iv
85
Used to measure patient's blood pressure
Sphygmomanometer
86
Used for auscultating or listening of heart, lung or, abdominal sounds
Stethoscope
87
Adults pulse rate
60 to 100
88
Children pulse rate
90 to 100
89
Infants pulse rate
80 to 120
90
Palpitation site in skull
Temporal artery
91
Neck palpitation site
- when unconscious
Carotid artery
92
Upper extremity palpitation site
- used when conscious
Radar artery
93
Groin palpitation site
Femoral artery
94
Lower extremity palpitation site
Doral pedis artery
95
How many fingers do you use when taking pulse
2-3
96
Represents pressure created during contraction of left ventricle
Systolic
97
Represents the pressure within the vascular system of heart at rest
Diastolic
98
Systolic: 140 and up
Diastolic: 90 and up.
Hypertension
99
Systolic: 95 and below
Diastolic: 60 and below
Hypotension
100
Systolic: 110-140
Diastolic: 60-80
Adult bp
101
Systolic: 70-112
Diastolic: 26-70
Children bp
102
Systolic: 60-105
Diastolic:22-60
Infants bp
103
Adults respiratory rate range
12-20 per min
104
Children's respiratory rate
30-60 per min
105
Rapid breathing
Tachypnea
106
Bradypena
Slow breathing
107
Apnea
Cessation of breathing
108
- Remove clothing from the uninjured side first
- Assit with putting clothes on injured side first
Stroke
109
Immobilization device collars, sandbags must be moved/removed and presence of physician
Cervical injury
110
- Document only factual information not opinions
- Instant reports should be completely and fully provided to supervisor
Incident or accident report documentation
111
The skin is not broken by this fracture
Closed
112
The broken Bones breakthrough skin
Open
113
Bones are not anatomically aligned
Displaced
114
Bone is fractured but there's still a normal alignment
Non displaced
115
Results from cervical trauma ,Affects body from neck down
Quadriplegia
116
Results from trauma , Affects lower half of the body
Paraplegia
117
Usually from a stroke affects are limited to one side of the body
Hemiplegia
118
Fracture at base fifth metatarsal
Jones
119
Fracture at fifth metacarpal
Boxers fracture
120
Chunk/ Chip of bone is pulled from bone
Avulsion
121
Can result in anaphylactic shock
- can cause release of histamine compounds and result in massive vasodilation and pooling of blood
- can be caused by administration of contrast materials or products of latex
Allergic reactions
122
Ventilation bag in CPR
Ambu bag
123
What nerve is impinged in carpal tunnel
Median nerve
124
Not extend past the level of the Carina 2inches, 5 cm above
Et tube
125
What level does the Carina bifercate
T5
126
A foreign body is likely to go to the
Right bronchi
127
Most common tech emergency is
Syncope
128
- Caused by loss of oxygen to the brain
- Tech should respond by assisting patient to a safe surface such as table or floor, while providing support to the skull
- patient would be put in Trendelenburg
Syncope
129
Characterized by flushed, dry skin and mucous membranes, air hunger and fruity smelling breath, excessive thirstin urinatio
Hyperglycemia
130
Cool and clammy they need candy
- characterized by sweating, clammy, cold skin, nervousness and irritability, board vision
- occurs rapidly
Hypoglycemia
131
Non-Convulsive seizure, may not be apparent to radiographer
Petite mal
132
Seizure also known as tonic- clonic major motor seizure
- sudden horse cry from patients followed by forceful contractions of the abdominal and chest muscles
- help patients to the floor, placing pads underneath the patient's head and removing any dangerous objects from an area
- contain not restrain
Grand Mal seizure
133
Strong pulsating volume of blood exiting a wound site
- apply pressure directly to the site or proximal to the site
Arterial blood
134
Lower volume with less forceful pulsing blood flow
- apply compression to the site or distal to the site away from the heart
Venus blood
135
Faint or light-headed feeling of the patient that have been recumbent for an extended period of time and are suddenly moved into upright position
- trandelenburg
Orthostatic hypotension
136
Race
Rescue
Alarm
Contain
Extinguish
137
Any procedure that involves: catheterization of the urinary bladder tracheostomy care
Dressing changes
Penetration of skin ( injections)
Mucosal membrane
Sterile technique
138
The complete removal of all organisms and their spores from equipment used to perform patient care
Surgical aseptic technique
139
Deals with reducing the probability of infectious organisms being transmitted to a susceptible host
Asepsis
140
Microorganism capable of producing a disease
Pathogen
141
An inanimate object that has made contact with an infectious organism (food, water, gloves, equipment)
Fomite
142
Transmission of an infectious agent that is indirect by means of fomite that touches a persons body or ingested
Vehicles
143
Typically an arthropod (mosquito, flea, tick)
Vectors
144
Hospital acquired infection
Nosocomial
145
Physician/healthcare caused infection
Iatrogenic
146
Unknown cause of infection
Idiopathic infection
147
Chain of infection order
1. Infectious agent
2. Reservoir
3. Portal of exit
4. Mode of transmission
5. Portal of entry
6. Host
148
Before and after every patient exam
- should last a full 20 seconds
Hand Washing
149
When scrubbing for a sterile procedure, hand washing time requirement is
5 mintues
150
- The back of it is considered dirty
- Operator, stress and sterile past one another from front to front or back to back
Gowns
151
- Hands must be kept above the
- Air below the level of waste is considered dirty
Gloves
152
- The most common disinfectant used
- Ratio is mixed with water in 1:10 ratio
Bleach
153
When opening, the first flap of the pack should be opened away from the operator preparing the tray
Sterile trays
154
Precaution that requires masks, gown and gloves
Contact
155
Contact requires particulate mask and restricted patient placement
Droplet
156
Used with diseases that are spread by droplet contact as the patient talks coughs or sneezes
- particulate mask is required
Airborne
157
Known as reverse isolation
Use on patients who have immune status that limited
Chemotherapy burn patients and HIV positive patients
Neutropenic precautions
158
Clean Tech manages equipment and the image receptor
Dirty Tech contacts a patient and patients linens
Roles are reversed for patients and protective isolation
Clean Tech dirty Tech
159
The best predictor of a possible reaction to contrast media is a history of previous allergic reactions
- About 5% of patients experience some reaction
- 5% experience of severe or life-threatening reaction
Rule of 5's
160
Insert the needle into the vein at what angle
15°
161
Infusion is known as
-uses gravity
Iv drip
162
Known as an IV push
- injection method in which a large concentrated volume of contrast media is rapidly administered into an existing ivy line
Bolus
163
can be one of the most hazardous fruits of drug administration because once a drug is injected directed into the bloodstream reaction can be immediate
Iv injection
164
Medication or contrast media must be maintained at a height of no less than 18 in at a maximum of 24 in from the sight of introduction
Rectal
165
Single dose
Ampule
166
Multiple doses
Vial
167
What is the most common type of contrast used
Air
168
What is the most common site for injection
Antecubital vein
169
Typically involve the use of gases to reduce or decrease attenuating ability of structures filled with gas
Negative contrast
170
Increases the attenuation ability of structures containing positive contrast
Positive contrast agents
171
Related to the concentration of a solution and has relationship with patient risk of reaction
Osmolarity
172
As osmolarity of a contrast agent increases the risk
Increases
173
Related to the thickness of contrast
Viscosity
174
To reduce viscopy you need to
Warm it up
175
Not absorbed within the body- must NOT be used in cases of suspected Bella performation
Barium
176
Kv for double contrast studies
90-100
177
Kv for single contrast studies
100-125
178
Creatine value
.7-1.3 mg/dl
179
Bun level
8-25 mg/dl
180
Gfr level
90-120 ml/min
181
Best test to measure kidney function and determine stage of kidney disease
Egfr, estimated glamular filtration rate
182
When fluid infuses the tissue surrounding the vanipuncture site
Infiltration
183
- Accidental infiltration of vesicant contrasts media into the interstitial tissues outside of injection
- Capable of causing tissue necrosis
Extravisation
184
Inflammation of veins
Phlebitis
185
Introduction of air into vein
- not as serious of air into artery
Air embolism
186
Symptoms of extracasation are
Pain, swelling, and redness
187
A general term used to describe failure of circulation in which blood pressure is inadequate to support oxygen perfusion of vital tissues and is unable to remove the byproducts of metabolism
Shock
188
Results from external hemorrhage, lacerations, or plasma loss due to Burns
Hypovolemic shock
189
Results from massive infection
Septic shock
190
Patients that suffer head or spinal trauma resulting in failure of arterial resistance
Neurogenic shock
191
Results from cardiac failure
Cardiogenic shock
192
Results from being injected with foreign protein, beef stings, or I donated media
Allergic or anaphylaxis
193
Highs are also known as
Uticaria
194
Allergic reactions/ Contrast reaction symptoms
Increased pulse rate and fall in blood pressure
195
Decadron and Benadryl are used for
Allergic reactions
196
Dilantin is used for
Seizures
197
Lasix is used for
Edema
198
Medication used for cardiac arrest and anaphylaxis
Epinephrine
199
Cathartics are used for
Laxatives
200
Nitroglycerin that is given sublingual (under the tongue closing) is used for
Angina( chest pain )
201
202
Glucagon is given for
Spasmatic colon
203
Hyperglycemia medication
Insulin, metformin, glucophage
204
Heprin, warfarin, coumadin
Anticoagulants
205
Any reaction that involves life-threatening situation
- proper responses to call for media assistance
- examples include very low blood pressure, cardiac or respiratory arrest, loss of consciousness, convulsions, difficulty in breathing, and profound shock
Severe reactions
206
Reaction examples include excessive hives, tachycardia, giant hives, excessive vomiting
- call for immediate assistance
Moderate reaction
207
Reaction examples are nausea and vomiting, hives, itching, sneezing,extravasation, vasovagal response, fear, exhibited by weakness, dizziness, sweating, and feeling of passing out
- proper response is to monitor and comfort patient, provide a warm towel for extravasation
Mild reactions
