PT3 Flashcards

(54 cards)

1
Q

What is mode A and C for SSR?

A

A - ID
C - altitude

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2
Q

What is the wavelength for ILS-band

A

2,7 meter to 2,67 meter (108.100-111.975 mHz)

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3
Q

True or false - APP radar uses longer wavelength compared to Area radar

A

False

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4
Q

What is the frequency of a wave

A

Cycles per second

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5
Q

when do you need to use SELCAL?

A

Around 200 nm away from antenna when flying oceanic

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6
Q

What is the frequency if the wavelength is 2,5 meter?

A

120 mHz

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7
Q

True or false - optimum frequencies for HF in the oceanic FIRs varies on a daily basis

A

True

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8
Q

What are used for navigation in air traffic?

A

VOR, DME, NDB

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9
Q

True or false - area radar uses longer wavelengths compared to APP

A

True

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10
Q

Are frequencies in HF only Line of sight?

A

No

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11
Q

What is used for horizontal distances: RVR, Rwy length and visibility

A

In meters

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12
Q

Does vertical speed indicator take information from both static and pitot or just static?

A

Only static port

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13
Q

On collision heading, what heading do both aircraft have to turn?

A

To the right

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14
Q

What is ISA standard pressure?

A

1013,25 hPa

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15
Q

Does all SVFR need air traffic control?

A

Yes

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16
Q

Air traffic control is split into which 3?

A

Area, approach and tower

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17
Q

What indicates an alerting phase?

A

Not landed within 5 minutes of the estimated time of landing

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18
Q

Who can call “distress traffic ended”?

A

Only ATS unit controlling

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19
Q

Within class C and D, when does a clearance to VFR flights NOT imply any form of separation?

A

C - between VFR flights; and
D - between IFR and VFR flights or between VFR flights

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20
Q

Except when t/o and landing, VFR flights shall not fly below what, over congested areas of cities, towns or settlements?

A

300m(1000ft) above highest obstacle within radius of 600m of aircraft

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21
Q

When do you provide approach control service?

A

For all arriving and departing aircraft

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22
Q

True or false - ICAO members are encouraged to give notifications if they are not in compliance with recommended practices?

23
Q

With what three parts is the AIP built up?

24
Q

Under what conditions can you fly IFR?

25
Why is clear ice such a problem in aviation?
It is very heavy and can effect aircraft controls and surfaces
26
What does weight act through on an aircraft?
Center of Gravity
27
What does lift work through?
Center of pressure
28
What does standby compass onboard an aircraft point towards?
Magnetic north
29
What is the biggest different between flaps and slats?
Slats increase the critical angle of attack and flaps increase lift
30
What are speed brakes for?
Speed brakes are used to increase drag
31
The altimeter always indicates vertical distance based on…?
The instrument sub-scale (Kollsman window)
32
The position of the Center of Gravity on an aircraft depends on..
Distribution of aircraft mass and load
33
In the event that the control column is moved forward, what happens to elevators?
They move downwards
34
What is the flap setting for t/o?
10-15 degrees
35
What can you expect, if a pilot reports that his/hers speed brakes/spoilers are inoperative?
- A normal approach, since you don’t use speed brakes for the approach. - longer roll out due to reduced breaking (longer rwy occupancy time) - the risk of hot brakes
36
Getting close to a stall, the point which a boundary layer separates from surface is called?
Separation point
37
True or false - the pitot/static system is absolutely critical during flight and the are numerous independent systems
True
38
Why do airlines change from IAS to Mach when climbing above a certain FL?
To make sure that no parts of the aircraft become supersonic
39
What is difference between anti and de-icing?
Anti icing is protection against future snow and ice, de-icing is removal of existing
40
According to the Demand-control model, what combination induces high levels of stress and fatigue?
High demand and low sense of control
41
True or false - You can issue traffic information to a VFR flight based on surveillance without prior identification and notifications to the pilot?
False
42
What is it to provide information on collision hazards between persons and aircraft on maneuvering area (uncontrolled aerodome)?
Air traffic service
43
Authorization for an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by an air traffic control unit” is a clearance or instruction?
Clearance
44
What is the difference between clearance and instructions?
Clearance is a condition and instruction is specific
45
At what time do you need to submit flightplan during flight?
10 minute prior
46
If you fly over a DME in FL180, what will it read?
About 3 nm
47
How many feet are there on 1 nm?
6076 feet pr nm
48
An aircraft flying 4,75 nm/min, what is ground speed?
285 kts
49
What is the frequency for RK NDB?
368 KHz
50
Distance From equator to 01.10’ N?
70 nm
51
In adiabatic process, what happens to the energy?
It maintains the same
52
Do you have to file a flight plan when crossing FIR?
Yes
53
True or false - Speed control is used to maintain separation?
True
54
When do we provide alerting service?
All aircraft in controlled airspace