PTWS Flashcards

(60 cards)

1
Q

What variants are included in the HELLFIRE-I (SAL 1) designation?

A

AGM-114A, AGM-114B, AGM-114C, and AGM-114F/FA.

AGM-114(A,B,C,F,FA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the RMIN/RMAX for Legacy and Enhanced HF engagements?

A

Refer to Table 14 in the HF Supplement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What must be adjusted for each 1000 ft increase in launcher altitude above the target?

A

RMIN and RMAX.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the different sections/assemblies of the Hellfire Missile?

A

Guidance, Warhead, Propulsion, Control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What offset should be used when firing a SAL missile autonomously?

A

3º to 5º to the firing side.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the purpose of the offset when firing a SAL missile?

A

To prevent video from being obscured by the missile’s exhaust.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When is the LOBL missile constraints box displayed?

A
  1. Next missile to be fired is tracking laser energy from the priority channel
  2. When the aircrew aligns the aircraft centerline within 20 degrees of the designated target
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the corresponding constraints box driver for the LOBL trajectory?

A

Missile Seeker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the corresponding constraints box driver for the LOAL DIR trajectory?

A

Selected LOS (HMD or TADS).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the corresponding constraints box driver for the LOAL FLAT trajectory?

A

Stored Coordinate Data ACQ Source B5

or

TRN Displayed at R6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the corresponding constraints box driver for the LOAL LOFT trajectory?

A

Stored Coordinate Data ACQ Source B5

or

TRN Displayed at R6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the allowable angles for P+ and Romeo SAL missiles?

A

20 degrees for LOBL and 30 degrees for LOAL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the minimum cloud ceiling to fire an ‘R’ model missile?

A

1500 ft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is Ripple fire?

A

Ripple fire mode requires at least two designators which will allow the aircrew to employ multiple missiles on different codes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What symbol indicates that the RF missile is ready to receive the target?

A

“R”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What symbol is displayed on all tactical missile icons when RF missile-training mode is enabled?

A

N/A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does TME stand for?

A

Training Mission Emulator.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does the TME emulate and replicate?

A

Capability to simulate RF missile operations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the allowable training mode missile elapsed ON time?

A

30 min.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What symbol appears on the RF missile icon if the maximum allowable elapsed ON time is exceeded?

A

OT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What safety consideration ensures operations in TRAIN mode with live ordinance?

A

Application of arm power to weapon stations is inhibited by the MPs when the weapon training mode is selected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is transfer alignment?

A

Transfer alignment occurs automatically at missile power up with no pilot action required. TA allows the missile to receive continuously updated inertial position (present position), acceleration, and velocity data from the aircraft to align its own Inertial Measurement Unit (IMU)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the three acquisition sources for RF missile target handover?

A

FCR, TADS, IDM (RFHO).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does a centered ‘T’ in the missile constraints box indicate?

A

Training Mode is active.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Why would you enable the RF missile LOBL INHIBIT option?
To prevent the missile from radiating position to enemy RFI.
26
Can the crew ARM the Hellfire launchers without pressing the master 'arm/safe' button?
Yes, via the WPN Utility (UTIL) page LNCHR (launcher) ARM selection.
27
Can the BACKSCATTER inhibit be overridden by the trigger’s second detent?
No. Safety inhibit.
28
How long must you lase the target before the message 'TARGET DATA?' blanks in the HAD?
3 - 5 sec.
29
How should the aircraft be rotated to enable the missile to fly an arc outside the TADS target LOS?
3 - 5 degrees in the direction of the missile to be launched.
30
When does an RF missile arm only after launch?
When acceleration exceeds 10 Gs approximately 375 m in front of the aircraft.
31
What is the maximum allowable designator offset angle during remote designation?
43/30 degree fan either side of the launching aircraft to target line or outside 60 degree designator offset angle.
32
What causes backscatter?
Particles in the air.
33
What are the laser related missile performance detractors?
Boresight Error, Under Spill, Spot Jitter, Attenuation, Beam Divergence, Over Spill, Back Scatter, Podium Effect, Entrapment (BUSABOB-PE).
34
What is the purpose of the 2ND target inhibit button?
To prevent secondary target information from being handed over from the FCR to the RF missile during a FCR Target Handover.
35
What is Doppler Beam Sharpening?
Induced motion caused by curved trajectory by missile to stationary target to get a better shot.
36
What kind of DBS trajectory will a missile fly if the target is to the left of centerline?
Right trajectory.
37
What does the AUTO button do?
Enables automatic missile power management to prevent missile over temp.
38
What is the maximum cross range at a 20° offset launch angle for an RF missile at 8 km?
100 m.
39
True/False: The LOAL LO/HI mode constraints box always driven by what is displayed in the FCR/TSD page ACQ source window?
FALSE.
40
What is the minimum engagement range for a LOAL LEGACY DIR SAL 'R' missile at 0° offset?
1500 m at 7.5° offset is 1700 m.
41
What is the minimum effective range of an ENHANCED 'R' LOBL engagement?
500 m with a 0° degree offset angle and 1200 m with a 20° offset.
42
What is the recommended terminal laser time when offset laser designating a target?
6 seconds for ground ranges up to 5km; 2 additional seconds for each additional kilometer. 6-8 sec
43
What is the LOBL missile constraint box when actively tracking the designated target?
+/- 20 degrees from center.
44
What is the LOAL missile constraint box when not tracking the target for the legacy missile?
+/- 7.5 degrees from center.
45
What is the allowable constraints angle if the RF missile is tracking and the target range is greater than or equal to 1000 m?
20 degrees.
46
What is the allowable constraints angle if the RF missile is tracking and the target range is less than 1000 m?
5 degrees.
47
What does a flashing 'R' in the Missile status and Inventory field indicate?
Missile Ready.
48
What does the 'OT' missile status message mean?
Over Temperature.
49
What does the 'MU' missile status message mean?
Missile Unlatched.
50
What does the 'SF' missile status message mean?
Station Fail.
51
What is the minimum range of an ENHANCED 'R' LOAL FLAT engagement?
1500 m with a 0 degree offset angle and 2000 m with a 30 degree offset.
52
What is the minimum range of an ENHANCED 'R' LOAL-HI LOFT engagement?
2000 m with a 0° offset angle and 2500 m with a 30° offset.
53
What is the radiation hazard area for an AGM-114L missile?
45 degree and 1 m.
54
What are the three modes the RF missile operates in?
STBY, PRELAUNCH, POST LAUNCH.
55
What is the Legacy HFII designator exclusion zone?
34 Degree vertical exclusion zone above the shooter to designator line and the 43 degree horizontal exclusion zone to either side of the GSL.
56
What is the Enhanced Hellfire Romeo designator exclusion zone?
34 degree vertical exclusion zone and target-offset-dependent horizontal exclusion zone.
57
What is the 60 degree Designator Offset Angle?
The angle between the GTL and LTL.
58
What is the fuze safe separation distance for HF-1?
150 M.
59
What is the fuze safe separation distance for HFII?
181 m.
60
What is the fuze safe separation distance for Romeo?
375 m.