Questions Flashcards
1
Q
What is a muscarinic agonist used to treat open angle glaucoma?
A
Isopto Carpine
2
Q
What is a muscarinic agonist used in post-op/partum and chronic bladder conditions?
A
Urecholine
3
Q
When should you administer Aricept?
A
evening to decrease chances of side effects
4
Q
What is a contraindication of Aricept?
A
do not use in pt who has COPD
5
Q
What is a muscarinic antagonist that induces mydriasis and cycloplegia?
A
Isopto Atropine
6
Q
When should you apply Transderm-Scop and how often should you change it?
A
- apply 4 hours prior to desired time of effect
- replace every 72 hours
7
Q
What medication is used for Parkinsons and which class is it under?
A
- Cogentin
- muscarinic antagonist
8
Q
What is a precaution for Cogentin?
A
- decreases ability to sweat
- use caution in hot weather
9
Q
Which medication has these directions: administer 30 min before meal to decrease chances of muscle spasm
A
Bentyl
10
Q
Hyoscyamine sulfate can be used in the ER. What is it used for?
A
spastic colon
11
Q
What are the sig for both of hyoscyamine sulfate?
A
- Levsin 0.125mg tab: 1-2 tab q4h prn
- Levbid: 1-2 cap q12h
12
Q
What is used to treat overactive bladder that is dosed at 5mg tid or 5mg XL daily?
A
Ditropan
13
Q
What is the sig for Detrol and Detrol LA?
A
- 2 mg tab bid
- 4 mg LA cap daily
14
Q
Which class is Atrovent a part of?
A
anticholinergic
15
Q
What are the two classes that the combination drug Combivent consist of?
A
anticholinergic + beta 2 agonist
16
Q
Under which conditions should you use ipratropium + albuterol?
A
to treat bronchospasm where a bronchodilator is not enough
17
Q
What is an important counseling point when dispensing Spiriva?
A
rinse mouth and spit to avoid dry mouth
18
Q
What is the sig for Tudorza?
A
inhale one puff every 12 hours
19
Q
Which drugs make up the beta-1 agonist?
A
- dopamine
- Dobutrex
20
Q
Which drug is used in hemodynamic imbalances?
A
dopamine
21
Q
Which drug is used for cardiac decompensation?
A
Dobutrex
22
Q
Which drug is used in Parkinson?
A
Sinemet
23
Q
What are the sig for Sinemet and Sinemet CR?
A
- Sinemet: individualized; start 25/100 tid
- CR: individualized; start 50/200 bid
24
Q
Which alpha-1 agonist is used for ocular vasoconstriction and also topical nasal decongestant?
A
- naphazoline
- oxymetazoline
25
What is an important counseling point for alpha-1 agonists?
limit use to 3 days due to rebound congestion
26
What is the max dose of Sudafed?
60mg Q4-6H
27
Which alpha agonist is also a beta agonist?
epinephrine
28
Which alpha-2 agonist inhibits central sympathetic outflow?
Catapress
29
T/F You can get orthostatiac hypotension with Catapress.
True
30
Which medication is used to treat glaucoma by decreasing aqueous humor production and stimulate outflow?
Alphagan P
31
T/F Before administering other eye drops after administering Alphagan P, you must wait 3 minutes.
F; wait 5 minutes
32
What can you used for exercise induced asthma?
- beta-2 agonist
- Serevent Diskus (DPI)
- Xopenex
- Proventil
33
What is one thing to keep in mind when dispensing Serevent Diskus?
must be dispensed with corticosteroid
34
T/F Foradil is a DPI that must be refrigerated upon patient pickup.
F; Foradil is an aerolizer that had capsules for inhalation
35
T/F; Xopenex is an S-isomer of alubterol.
F; it's an R-isomer
36
Which medication is used as a tocolytic agent to relax uterine smooth muscle associated with preterm labor?
Brethine
37
Which beta agonist is used to treat overactive bladder?
Myrbetriq
38
Which medication potentiates activity of NE and 5HT by blocking their reuptake?
Elavil
39
T/F; Pamelor can be taken 150mg daily.
T
40
What is the correct way to dose Tofranil for children?
2.5mg/kg/day; anything over will cause cardiotoxicity
41
In adults, what is Tofranil used for?
depression
42
In children, what is Tofranil used for?
prevent bed wetting in children
43
Which medication is a nonselective monoamine oxidase inhibitor?
Nardil
44
What is an important counseling point for Nardil?
food restriction: tyramine
45
Besides Flomax, when should you administer alpha-1 antagonists and why?
- at bedtime
- minimize side effects
- avoid first dose syncope
46
Which alpha-1 antagonist can you NOT use for BPH?
Minipress
47
What is an important counseling point when dispensing Lopressor?
take with food to enhance absorption
48
T/F Take Lopressor with food to minimize side effects.
F; take with food to increase absorption
49
T/F If metoprolol tartrate is dosed at 12.5-25mg QD, it is used for CHF.
F; that's for metoprolol succinate
50
T/F Toprol 25mg is used for angina pectoris
F
- 12.5-25mg QD : CHF
- 25-100mg QD : HTN
- 100mg QD : angina pectoris
51
What is used for glaucoma that would be contraindicated in someone who has asthma?
- Timoptic
| - Cosopt
52
What is the difference in the sig for Betoptic compared to Timoptic?
- Betoptic: 1-2 gtts in affected eye(s) bid
| - Timoptic: 1 gtt in affected eye(s) bid
53
T/F Tenormin can be used for different reasons depending on the dose.
True
- 50-100mg QD : HTN
- 50-200mg QD : angina pectoris
54
What is an important counseling when dispensing Coreg?
take with food to decrease chances of side effects
55
What is the drug of last resort to treat hypertension?
riserpine
56
What is the MOA of riserpine?
depletes stores of cathecholamine and 5HT
57
What is used for digestive hyperimmune diseases?
Cortenema
58
What is used for patients who to not produce cortisone?
Cortef
59
Which drug is available as a systemic injectible and is used for an endocrine and inflammatory disorders?
Solu-Cortef
60
Which steroid must be tapered?
Deltasone
61
Which medication is also available as a topical foam?
Celestone
62
What are the different strengths of Flovent MDI?
- 44 mcg
- 110 mcg
- 220 mcg
63
Advaid and Smybicort are both steroids + long acting beta 2 agonists. What can they be used for?
- chronic treatment of asthma
| - COPD
64
What is the only steroid that has a nebulizer solution?
budesonide
65
Which medication can have the following sig: 40/320 mcg inhale BID?
Qvar
66
What is a monitoring parameter for Florinef?
watch for edema
67
Which drug is given due to edema caused by cirrhosis?
Aldactone
68
Which drug has the following directions?
- 4mg qpm age 2-5
- 10mg qpm age >= 15
Singulair
69
What is an important counseling point when dispensing Accolate?
take on empty stomach
70
What is an important counseling point when dispensing Zyflo?
take with food to help absorb drug
71
What is a monoclonal antibody that can be used for persistent allergic asthma?
Xolair
72
How often should Xolair be given?
every 2-4 weeks depending on IgE level
73
What is a monoclonal antibody that can be used for severe eosinophilic asthma?
Nucala
74
How often should Nucala be given?
100mg SQ Q4weeks
75
Which drug can be used for open angle glaucoma and can cause brown pigmentation of the iris?
- Xalatan
- Lumigan
- Travatan
76
What conditions can bimatoprost be used for ?
- 0.01%: open angle glaucoma
| - 0.03%: Latisse
77
What class is -oprost a part of?
prostaglandin analogues
78
What are the precautions of NSAIDs?
- heart disease
- hypertension
- renal impairment
- gastrointestinal irritation
79
What are important counseling points when dispensing NSAIDs?
- take with food to minimize irritation
| - avoid alcohol
80
Which medication is used for the treatment of patent ductus arteriosis?
Indocin
81
Which NSAID has a half life of 50 hours and can therefore be taken once a day?
Feldene
82
What is an advantage with Mobic?
it affects Cox2 more than Cox1 = less GI problems
83
Which NSAID has more effect on Cox2 than Cox1 and can be used for acute or chronic pain depending on if it's IR or XL?
Lodine
84
Which drug is a prodrug that is given 500-2000 mg/day split in 1-2 doses?
Relafen
85
Which drug is used for arthritis and is contraindicated in patients with a sulfonamide allergy?
Celebrex
86
What is used for the treatment of arthritis in patients at high risk of NSAID-induced ulcers?
Arthrotec
87
What are common adverse effects of narcotics?
- nausea
- drowsiness
- dizziness (narcosis)
- constipation if used regularly
88
What is the brand name of the narcotic that causes increased risk of bleeding-related concerns?
Vicoprofen®
89
Which narcotic should you avoid with history of opioid addiction?
tramadol
90
Which combination product is a mu opioid receptor agonist?
Ultracet
91
Which CII is used for treatment of narcotic addiction?
methadone
92
Which narcotic gets metabolized into a toxic metabolite?
meperidine
93
Why should we avoid use of meperidine in elderly or renal impairment?
seizure risk
94
Which narcotic opioid analgesic-antagonist is used for physical withdrawal symptoms?
- Stadol
| - generic: butorphanol
95
Which combination narcotic product is an agonist-antagonist?
- Talwin Nx®
| - pentazocine / naloxone
96
Which combination product is used for opioid dependence?
- Suboxone®
| - buprenorphine / naloxone
97
What medication is used as an adjunct in seizure disorders and is highly renally excreted?
Neurontin
98
Which medication is used for trigeminal neuralgia and induces enzymes?
- Tegretol/XR®
| - carbamazepine
99
With Nicoderm CQ®, if someone smokes more than a half a pack a day, which dose would they be start on?
21 mcg
100
How many times should you use Nicorette® gum for it to be successful?
9
101
For this NRT, if patient has not quit within 12 weeks, it's probably not working.
Chantix®
102
For this NRT, if patient has not quit within 7 weeks, it's probably not working.
Zyban®
103
Which antiemetic is a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist?
Zofran
104
This antiemetic is used for both chemotherapy and post-operative induced N / V
Zofran
105
Which antiemetic is also an antihistamine?
Phenergan
106
This antiemetic can cause risk of fatal respiratory depression for children under 2 years of age
Phenergan
107
Which antiemetic is a antipsychotic?
Compazine
108
Which antiemetic has an adverse effect of abnormal muscle tone with prolonged use?
- Compazine
| - Reglan
109
Which antiemetic inhibits dopamine activity?
Reglan
110
Which antiemetic is a pre-motility agent? *note: take 30 min before eating
Reglan
111
Which antiemetic is used for diabetic gastroparesis?
Reglan
112
Which antiemetic is an anti-vertigo agent, antihistamine, and anticholinergic?
- Antivert
| - meclizine
113
This anti-diarrheal agent has a max of 4 tablets per day.
Imodium AD®
114
This anti-diarrheal agent can cause drowsiness and dry mouth.
Lomotil®
