Questions of Exams Flashcards

(174 cards)

1
Q

Which of the following is the definition of power?

A

The capacity one has to influence the behavior of another, so that the second person acts in accordance with the first’s wishes.

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2
Q

Leadership focuses on ______, while power focuses on ______.

A

Goal attainment, dependence

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3
Q

Which of the following identifies B’s relationship to A when A possesses something that B requires?

A

Dependence

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4
Q

Which of the following statements is correct regarding power?

A

A person can have power over you only if he or she controls something you desire.

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5
Q

Which of the following describes coercive power?

A

Coercive power depends on fear of the negative results from failing to comply.

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6
Q

Which of the following is an example of personal power?

A

Expert

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7
Q

Your boss is offering raises and bonuses, as well as interesting work assignments if your productivity increases thirty to fifty percent. What kind of power is your boss applying?

A

Reward

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8
Q

Which type of power is being used when individuals exert influence over others because of their charismatic dynamism, likability, and emotional effects on us?

A

Referent

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9
Q

Which type of power is being used when power depends on fear of the negative results from failing to comply?

A

Coercive

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10
Q

Dependence increases when the resource you control is important, scarce, and ____.

A

nonsubstitutable

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11
Q

Which of the following describes nonsubstitutability of a resource?

A

Few viable substitutes are available for a resource.

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12
Q

Which of the following statement is false about the relationship between dependence and power?

A

Pressure and legitimacy are factors that affect dependence or power.

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13
Q

Dependence increases when the resource you control is_____.

A

important, scarce, and nonsubstitutable.

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14
Q

Which of the following statement is correct about the relationship between dependence and power.

A

The more you can expand your own options, the less power you place in the hands of others.

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15
Q

Which influence tactic relies on your authority position or saying a request accords with organizational policies or rules?

A

Legitimacy

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16
Q

Which of the following influence tactics involves increasing the target’s support by involving him or her in deciding how you will accomplish your plan?

A

Consultation

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17
Q

Which of the following power tactics is most effective?

A

Rational persuasion

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18
Q

Which of the following power tactics involves presenting logical arguments and factual evidence to demonstrate a request is reasonable?

A

Rational persuasion

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19
Q

Which influence tactic develop emotional commitment by appealing to a target’s values, needs, hopes and aspirations?

A

Inspirational appeals

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20
Q

Which of the following is true about sexual harassment?

A

Sexual harassment has health consequences.

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21
Q

Which of the following is considered an overt form of sexual harassment?

A

Unwanted physical touching

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22
Q

Which of the following is considered a subtle form of sexual harassment?

A

Off-color jokes

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23
Q

Which of the following statements is false regarding sexual harassment?

A

Surveys indicate that between 10 and 20 percent of individuals report being sexually harassed.

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24
Q

Which of the following statements is correct regarding sexual harassment?

A

Sexual harassment is more likely to occur when there are large power differentials.

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25
Which of the following situations would likely promote politicking in an organization?
When an organization is downsizing.
26
Olivia is a vice-president who frequently engages in political behavior. Which of the following may be causes of her behavior?
High need for power.
27
Which of the following is a typical employee response to organizational politics?
Decreased job satisfaction
28
Which of the following identifies an organizational factor that increases political behavior?
Role ambiguity
29
Politicking would be most likely in which of the following situations?
When an organization is downsizing
30
Which of the following is not an Impression Management (IM) technique?
Disagreeing with someone else's opinion
31
Which of the following forms of impression management involves highlighting one's best qualities, downplaying one's deficits, and calling attention to one's achievements?
Self-promotion
32
Which of the following statements is correct regarding impression management?
Applicants who use self-promotion do better in interviews than applicants who do not.
33
Which impression management technique involves complimenting others about their virtues in an effort to make oneself appear perceptive and likeable?
Flattery
34
Which of the following forms of impression management involve explanations of a predicament-creating event aimed at minimizing the apparent severity of the predicament?
Excuses
35
Which of the following is not a question to ask when considering whether a political action is ethical?
How likely is it that you will be caught in the act?
36
Which of the following is correct when considering whether a political action is ethical?
Immoral people can justify almost any behavior.
37
Which of the following employees is most vulnerable to engage in unethical behavior?
A vice president
38
Which of the following is false when considering whether a political action is ethical?
Clear-cut methods exist for differentiating ethical from unethical politicking?
39
All of the following are questions to ask when considering whether a political action is ethical except?
How likely is it that you will be caught in the act?
40
Which of the following encouraged conflict on the grounds that a harmonious, peaceful, tranquil, and cooperative group is prone to becoming static, apathetic, and unresponsive to needs for change and innovation?
Interactionist view of conflict
41
Which of the following types of conflict is destructive and seen hindering group performance?
Dysfunctional conflict
42
Which of the following states that all conflict is harmful and must be avoided?
Traditional view of conflict
43
Which of the following types of conflict supports the goals of the group, improves its performance?
Dysfunctional conflict
44
Which of the following describes the interactionist view of conflict?
Conflict on the grounds that a harmonious, peaceful, tranquil, and cooperative group is prone to becoming static, apathetic, and unresponsive to needs for change and innovation?
45
Which of the following forms of conflict is characterized as how the work gets completed?
Process
46
Which type of conflict occurs between team members?
Intergroup conflict
47
Which type of conflict focuses on interpersonal relationships?
Relationship
48
Which type of conflict occurs between two people?
Dyadic conflict
49
Which of the following describes conflict that occurs between teams?
Intergroup conflict
50
Which dimension of handling conflict occurs when one person seeks to satisfy his or her own interests regardless of the impact on the other parties to the conflict?
Competing
51
Which of the following involves the use of resolution and stimulation and stimulation techniques to achieve the desired level of conflict?
Conflict management
52
Which dimension of handling conflict occurs when parties in conflict each desires to fully satisfy the concerns of all parties?
Collaborating
53
Which type of conflict management uses withdrawal from suppression of the conflict?
Avoiding
54
_____ occurs when a party who seeks to appease an opponent may be willing to place the opponent's interests above his or her own, sacrificing to maintain the relationship.
Accommodating
55
Which of the following describes a process that occurs when two or more parties decide how to allocate scarce resources?
Negotiations
56
Which of the following describes negotiation that seeks to divide up a fixed amount of resources?
Distributive bargaining
57
____ bargaining seeks one or more settlements that can create a win-win solution.
Integrative
58
When the pie is fixed, or the parties believe it is, which bargaining technique is typically used?
Distributive bargaining
59
Which type of bargaining seeks one or more settlements that can create a win-win solution to divide up a fixed amount of resources?
Distributive bargaining
60
Which of the following is not a factor that influences how effectively individuals negotiate?
Occupation
61
Which of the following statements is false regarding differences in negotiations effectiveness?
Emotions are not important in negotiations
62
Which of the following statements is correct regarding differences in negotiations effectiveness?
Compared to men, women tend to behave in a less assertive, less self-interested, and more accommodating manner.
63
Personality, mood/emotion, gender, and _____ are factors that influence how effectively individuals negotiate.
Culture
64
Which step in the negotiation process involves formalizing your agreement and developing procedures necessary for implementing and monitoring it?
Closure and implementation
65
Which of the following identifies the lowest value acceptable for a negotiated agreement?
BATNA
66
You are in a negotiation process with an opposing group that you client must continue to do business with. You are looking at what will happen if you "win" this conflict while using a process that could cause future problems. Which stage of the negotiation process are you in?
Preparation and planning
67
You are involved in a negotiation for wages and must decide what time limits will apply to the process. You are also looking at the initials demands of your opponent to see where they stand. Which stage of the negotiation process are you in?
Definition of ground rules
68
In the ______ step in the negotiation process, the actual give- and take occurs where you try to hash out an agreement.
Bargaining and problem solving
69
Which of the following is a neutral third party who facilitates a negotiated solution?
Mediator
70
Which of the following has the advantage that it always results in a settlement?
Arbitrator
71
Which of the following is a neutral third party who facilitates a negotiated solution?
Mediator
72
Which of the following is a third party with the authority to dictate an agreement?
Arbitrator
73
_____ are neutral third parties who facilitates a negotiated solution.
Mediators
74
Which of the following describes the degree to which activities in the organization are divided into separate jobs?
Work specialization
75
Function, product/service, geographic, process, and customer are types of _____.
Departmentalization
76
Which of the following describes defines how job tasks are formally divided, grouped, and coordinated?
Organizational structure
77
Which of the following is defined an unbroken line of authority that extends from the top of the organization to the lowest echelon and clarifies who reports to whom?
Chain of command
78
Which of the following identifies the basis by which jobs in an organization are grouped together?
Departmentalization
79
Which of the following organizational designs has a low degree of departmentalization, wide spans of control, authority centralized in a single person, and little formalization?
Simple
80
Which of the following organizational designs has the primary strength of performing standardized activities in a highly efficient manner?
Bureaucracy
81
Because of its low formalization and high centralization, one major weakness of the ____ structure is that it becomes increasingly inadequate as an organization grows.
Simple
82
Which of the following organizational designs is characterized by highly routine operating tasks achieved through specialization, strictly formalized rules and regulations, tasks grouped into functional departments, centralized authority, narrow spans of control, and decision making that follows the chain of command?
Bureaucracy
83
Which of the following is not correct about bureaucracies?
Bureaucracies need innovation and experienced decision makers at middle and lower levels of management.
84
In which type of organizational design do employees report to functional department managers and their product managers?
Matrix
85
Which of the following is not true about matrix design?
Matrix designs are fast, flexible, inexpensive to operate, and accountability is clear.
86
Which type of organizational design breaks the unity-of-command concept?
Matrix
87
Which of the following describes matrix design?
Matrix designs facilitate coordination when the organization has a number of complex and interdependent activities.
88
Which organizational structure breaks the unity-of-command concept?
Matrix
89
In a(n) ____, the core of the organization is a small group of executives who directly oversee any activities done in-house and coordinate relationships with the other organizations that perform other crucial functions.
Virtual organization
90
Which of the following describes virtual organizations?
Overhead is minimized, and long-term risks and their costs are reduced.
91
Which organizational design minimizes bureaucratic overhead because there is no lasting organization to maintain?
Virtual organization
92
Which of the following is false regarding virtual organizations?
Cultural alignment and shared goals are increased because of the high degree of interaction among members.
93
Which type of organizational structure uses a small group of executives to oversee activities done in-house and to coordinate relationships with the outside organizations that manufacture, distribute, and perform other crucial functions?
Virtual organization
94
Which of the following seeks to eliminate the chain of command, has limitless spans of control, and replaces departments with empowered teams?
Boundaryless organization
95
Which of the following is characteristic of downsizing?
Companies can reduce negative impacts by preparing employees in advance, thus strengthening support for the new direction
96
Which of the following describes boundaryless organizations?
Boundaryless organizations seek to eliminate the chain of command, have limitless spans of control, and replace, departments with empowered teams.
97
Which of the following is characteristic of downsizing?
Companies can reduce negative impacts by preparing employees in advance, thus strengthening support for the new direction.
98
Which of the following refers to a systematic effort to make an organization leaner by closing locations, reducing staff, or selling off business units that don't add value?
Downsizing
99
Which of the following organizational designs is typically mechanistic?
Bureaucracy
100
Which of the following is not a major determinant of organizational structure?
Location of organization
101
Which of the following organizational designs is typically organic?
Boundaryless organization
102
Which of the following identifies a strategy that emphasizes the introduction of major new products and services?
Innovation strategy
103
Which of the following statements are true about organizational design?
In general, work specialization contributes to higher employee productivity.
104
Negative behavioral outcomes from high specialization are most likely to surface in ______.
Professional jobs occupied by individuals with high needs for diversity and personal growth
105
Which of the following statements are true about organizational design?
In general, work specialization contributes to higher employee productivity.
106
An innovative strategy matches best with which of the following organizational designs?
Organic
107
Which of the following statements are true about organizational designs?
Work specialization contributes to higher employee productivity.
108
Which of the following describes a system of shared meaning held by members that distinguishes the organization from other organizations?
Organizational culture
109
What does it mean when an organizational culture is strong?
In a strong culture, the organization's core values are both intensely held and widely shared.
110
Which of the following describes organizational culture?
A system of shared meaning held by members that distinguishes the organization from other organizations.
111
What does it mean when an organizational culture is weak?
A weak culture increases employee turnover.
112
You believe employees should be encouraged to take risks and come up with new ideas. Which of the seven primary characteristics are you looking at?
Innovation and risk taking
113
Which of the following refers to shared feelings organizational members have about their organization and environment?
Organizational climate
114
Which of the following is not a potentially dysfunctional aspect of culture?
Socialization
115
Which of the following describes organizational climate?
Shared perceptions organizational members have about their organization and work environment.
116
Which of the following is a potentially dysfunctional aspect of culture?
Institutionalization
117
Which of the following is a process that adapts employees to the organization's culture?
Socialization
118
What of the following is a stage of the socialization model?
Metamorphosis
119
Which of the following describes socialization?
The process that adapts employees to the organization's culture
120
Which of the following is a stage of the socialization model?
Encounter
121
Which process is responsible for adapting new employees to the prevailing culture?
Socialization
122
Size of offices, the elegance of furnishings, perks, and attire are all examples of which of the following?
Material symbols
123
Which of the following describes how language helps members identify with the culture?
Unique terms, acronyms, and jargon
124
Repetitive sequences of activities that express and reinforce the key values of the organization are all examples of which of the following?
Rituals
125
Which of the following is not a way for a manager to create an ethical culture?
Reward employees privately to avoid competition.
126
Which of the following is true regarding an ethical culture?
An ethical organizational culture is high in risk tolerance, low to moderate in aggressiveness, and focused on means as well as outcomes.
127
Managers create an ethical culture in each of the following ways except?
Reward employees privately to avoid competition.
128
Which of the following is incorrect regarding an ethical culture?
There is little managers can do to create an ethical culture.
129
Which of the following is most likely to shape high ethical standards among its members?
Focused on means as well as outcomes
130
Which of the following describes workplace spirituality?
Recognition that people have an inner life that nourishes and is nourished by meaningful work that takes place in the context of community.
131
Which of the following is not a characteristic of spiritual organizations?
Competitiveness
132
Which of the following describes the recognition that people have an inner life that nourishes and is nourished by meaningful work that takes place in the context of community?
Workplace spirituality
133
Which of the following is not a characteristic of spiritual organizations?
Competitiveness
134
Which of the following identifies the recognition that people have an inner life that nourishes and is nourished by meaningful work that takes place in the context of community?
Workplace spirituality
135
Which of the following is a concern of the spirituality movement?
Do organizations have the right to impose spiritual values on their employees?
136
Which of the following identifies characteristics of a spiritual culture?
Spirituality is defined broadly.
137
Which of the following is a concern of the spirituality movement?
Do organizations have the right to impose spiritual values on their employees?
138
Which of the following identifies characteristics of a spiritual culture?
Spirituality is defined broadly.
139
Critics of the spirituality movement focus on which of the following points?
Do organizations have the right to impose spiritual values on their employees?
140
Which of the following ways show how national culture can affect the way organizational culture is transported in another country?
Global employers are recognizing that workplace wellness plans and work-life balance initiatives contributes positively to the organizational culture.
141
Which one of the following is advice that U.S. managers should practice to be more globally culturally sensitive?
U.S. managers view profit maximization as a moral obligation for business organizations.
142
Which of the following statements is correct regarding how way national culture affects the way organizational culture transported in another country?
The cultural relevance of your organization's norms must be understood before introducing new initiatives overseas.
143
Which of the following describes planed change?
Altering the way an activity is performed with a specific goal in mind.
144
Which of the following describes someone who assumes the responsibility for making things different?
Change agent
145
Which of the following identifies intentionally altering the way an activity is performed with a specific goal in mind?
Planned change
146
Which of the following describes a change agent?
Persons who act as catalysts and assume the responsibility for managing change activities
147
Which of the following is not a tactic to overcome resistance to change?
Avoid changes
148
Which of the following sources of resistance to change involves an organization's built-in mechanisms to produce stability?
Structural inertia
149
Which of the following is an individual source of resistance to change?
Economic factors
150
Which of the following is an individual source of resistance to change?
Security
151
Which of the following describes the process of stabilizing a change to a new status quo?
Refreezing
152
Theresa begins implementing a change process in her company that involves diagnosis, analysis, feedback, action, and evaluation. Which of the following plans is she following?
Action research
153
Which of the following describes the process of changing to overcome the pressures of both individual resistance and group conformity?
Unfreezing
154
Juan is implementing a change process that involves improving organizational effectiveness and employee well-being. Which of the following plans is he following?
Organizational development
155
Which of the following describes a process of correcting errors using past routines and present policies?
Single-loop learning
156
Which of the following types of change specifically applies to improving a product or service?
Innovation
157
Which of the following describes a process of correcting errors by modifying the organization's objectives, policies, and standard routines?
Double-loop learning
158
Which of the following identifies an organization that has developed the continuous capacity to adapt and change?
Learning organization
159
Which of the following describes specialized kind of change applied to initiating or improving a product, process, or service?
Innovation
160
Stressors associated with workload, the pressure o complete tasks, and time urgency are known as which of the following?
Challenge stressors
161
Which of the following organizational pressures creates stress from lack of social support and poor interpersonal relationships?
Interpersonal demands
162
Stressors associated with red tape, office politics, and confusion over job responsibilities are known as which of the following?
Hindrance stressors
163
Which of the following relate to pressures placed on a person as a function of the particular role he or she plays in the organization?
Role demands
164
Which of the following is an organizational cause of stress related to a person's job?
Task demands
165
Which of the following is an example of physiological symptoms to stress?
Susceptibility to illness
166
Which of the following is a difference between a psychological and a physiological symptom of stress?
Psychological symptoms of stress manifest in changing attitudes; whereas physiological symptoms of stress manifest in changing health.
167
Which of the following is an example of psychological symptoms to stress?
Irritability
168
Which of the following is not a behavior-related stress symptom?
Procrastination
169
Which of the following is a psychological symptom of stress?
Anxiety
170
Which of the following is an example of an individual approach to dealing with stress?
Expand your social support network
171
Ella performs yoga for 20 minutes a day. Which of the following stress management techniques is she employing?
Relaxation
172
Which of the following is an example of an individual approach to dealing with stress?
Time management
173
Which of the following is not an organizational approach to dealing with stress?
Increased physical exercise
174
Which of the following is an organizational approach to dealing with stress?
Selection and placement