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Yr 2 EOYS ^2 > Quick Facts 10 > Flashcards

Quick Facts 10 Flashcards

1
Q
A

PE

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2
Q

Cervical
Thoracic
Lumbar
Sacral
Coccycal

A

Cervical
Thoracic
Lumbar
Sacral
Coccycal

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3
Q

Cervical
Thoracic
Lumbar
Sacral
Coccycal

A

Cervical
Thoracic
Lumbar
Sacral
Coccycal

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4
Q

Cervical
Thoracic
Lumbar
Sacral
Coccycal

A

Cervical
Thoracic
Lumbar
Sacral
Coccycal

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5
Q
A

Rubrospinal

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6
Q
A

B

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7
Q

M line
I band
H band
Z line
A band
T tubule

A

M line
I band
H band
Z line
A band
T tubule

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8
Q
  1. I band
  2. Z band
  3. H zone
  4. M band
  5. A band
  6. Thin filament
  7. Thick filament
A
  1. I band
  2. Z band
  3. H zone
  4. M band
  5. A band
  6. Thin filament
  7. Thick filament
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9
Q

Tight junction
Muscularis mucosae
Basement membrane
Endothelium
Lamina propria

A

Tight junction
Muscularis mucosae
Basement membrane
Endothelium
Lamina propria

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10
Q

Dense irregular connective tissue
Dense regular connective tissue
Smooth muscle
Cardiac muscle
Stratified squamous epithelium

A

Dense irregular connective tissue
Dense regular connective tissue
Smooth muscle
Cardiac muscle
Stratified squamous epithelium

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11
Q

L2
L5
S1
L4
T12

A

L2
L5
S1
L4
T12

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12
Q

What measurement do you use to assess if have COPD? [1]

A

FEV1/FVC

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13
Q
A

Caecum and appendix

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14
Q
A

A: testicular artery
B: vas deferens

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15
Q

Fetal distress is indicated by cardiotocograph traces and the delivery is expedited using forceps.

Which of the following criteria must be satisfied to permit delivery of the fetus by obstetric instruments?

Absence of analgesia

Engaged fetal cephalic presentation

Full bladder

Intact membranes

Pelvic contracture

A

Fetal distress is indicated by cardiotocograph traces and the delivery is expedited using forceps.

Which of the following criteria must be satisfied to permit delivery of the fetus by obstetric instruments?

Absence of analgesia

Engaged fetal cephalic presentation

Full bladder

Intact membranes

Pelvic contracture

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16
Q

A 12 year-old girl develops an unproductive cough, shortness of breath, fever and malaise. An organism is detected by a test for the antibodies that it provokes. It is treated with erythromycin, because beta-lactams are ineffective.

What is the most likely causative organism?

Haemophilus influenzae

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Staphylococcus aureus

Streptococcus agalactiae

Streptococcus pneumonia

A

A 12 year-old girl develops an unproductive cough, shortness of breath, fever and malaise. An organism is detected by a test for the antibodies that it provokes. It is treated with erythromycin, because beta-lactams are ineffective.

What is the most likely causative organism?

Haemophilus influenzae

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Staphylococcus aureus

Streptococcus agalactiae

Streptococcus pneumonia

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17
Q

Trastuzumab emtansine is an antibody which inhibits HER2 growth-promoting pathways.

Which of the following best describes the mode of action of this antibody?

Cleavage of the extracellular domain of the HER2 receptor

Delivery of a toxic payload

Induction of endocytosis of the HER2 receptor

Interaction with the ATP binding pocket of the HER2 receptor

Interaction with EGFR which prevents binding to the HER2 receptor

A

Trastuzumab emtansine is an antibody which inhibits HER2 growth-promoting pathways.

Which of the following best describes the mode of action of this antibody?

Cleavage of the extracellular domain of the HER2 receptor

Delivery of a toxic payload

Induction of endocytosis of the HER2 receptor

Interaction with the ATP binding pocket of the HER2 receptor

Interaction with EGFR which prevents binding to the HER2 receptor

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18
Q

Depression is a condition characterised by repeated episodes of remission and relapse.

Which strategy reduces the risk of relapse in depression?

Cognitive behavioural therapy

Continuation of antidepressant treatment for 6 months after remission

Electroconvulsive therapy

Talking therapy

Vagus nerve stimulation

A

Depression is a condition characterised by repeated episodes of remission and relapse.

Which strategy reduces the risk of relapse in depression?

Cognitive behavioural therapy

Continuation of antidepressant treatment for 6 months after remission

Electroconvulsive therapy

Talking therapy

Vagus nerve stimulation

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19
Q

.
Congenital heart defects (CHDs) are the most common type of birth defect, with incorrect development of the structures of the heart affecting blood flow through the heart and body.

During heart development, which structure is developing when bulbar ridges are initially formed?

Aorticopulmonary septum

Atrioventricular canals

Ductus arteriosus

Interventricular septum

Valve of coronary sinus

A

.
Congenital heart defects (CHDs) are the most common type of birth defect, with incorrect development of the structures of the heart affecting blood flow through the heart and body.

During heart development, which structure is developing when bulbar ridges are initially formed?

Aorticopulmonary septum

Atrioventricular canals

Ductus arteriosus

Interventricular septum

Valve of coronary sinus

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20
Q

.
A 71 year-old man is currently undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI).

Which intervention is a major feature of PCI?

Angioplasty

Cardioversion

Coronary artery bypass graft

Heart valve surgery

Fibrinolysis

A

.
A 71 year-old man is currently undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI).

Which intervention is a major feature of PCI?

Angioplasty

Cardioversion

Coronary artery bypass graft

Heart valve surgery

Fibrinolysis

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21
Q

What does this CXR suggest? [1]

A

PE

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22
Q

Neck of femur fractures (typically with significant displacement) will classically present with a [] and [] rotated limb.

A

Neck of femur fractures (typically with significant displacement) will classically present with a shortened and externally rotated limb.

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23
Q

NICE recommends offering total hip replacement over hemiarthroplasty in patients whom are [3]

A
  • Able to walk independently outdoors with no more that one stick
  • Not cognitively impaired
  • Medically fit for the operation
24
Q

Which muscle is responsible for shortening of the limb and external rotation following a NoF fracture? [1]

A

Iliopsoas

25
Q

Presentation of patellar dislocation? [1]

A

Knee held in flexion

26
Q

How to reduce a patellar dislocation? [1]

A

Push patella medially whilst extending knee

27
Q

In which direction is the patella usually dislocated? [1]

A

Laterally due to pull of quadriceps

28
Q

What is a bimalleolar fracture (Pott’s fracture)? [1]

A

fracture involving the lateral and medial ankle

29
Q

State the role of sartorius in moving hip and knee joints [2]

A

Sartorius can flex the hip AND flex the knee joint.

30
Q

What nerve supplies the anterior compartment of the lower leg?

Superficial fibular nerve
Deep fibular nerve
Posterior tibial nerve
Femoral nerve

A

What nerve supplies the anterior compartment of the lower leg?

Superficial fibular nerve
Deep fibular nerve
Posterior tibial nerve
Femoral nerve

31
Q

Which of the following collection of bones constitute the ankle joint?

Tibia fibula
Tibia, fibula, and talus
Tibia and talus only
Tibia, fibula, talus and calcaneus

A

Which of the following collection of bones constitute the ankle joint?

Tibia fibula
Tibia, fibula, and talus
Tibia and talus only
Tibia, fibula, talus and calcaneus

32
Q

What type of hip dislocation has occured? [1]
In which leg? [1]
Describe how you can tell [1]

A

Right posterior hip dislocation:
Right limb adducted, flexed, internally rotated, and shortened.

33
Q

What type of hip dislocation has occured? [1]
In which leg? [1]
Describe how you can tell [1]

A

anterior dislocation
hip and leg in extension, abduction, and external rotation

34
Q

which nerves provide sensory innervation to the image? [2]

A
35
Q

which is the major extensor muscle of the hip? [1]
which are the major abductor muscles of the hip? [2]
which are the lateral rotators muscles of the hip? [2]

A

which is the major extensor muscle of the hip? [1]
gluteus maximus

which is the major abductor muscles of the hip? [2]
gluteus medius and minimus

which are the lateral rotators muscles of the hip? [2]
piriformis and lateral rotators

36
Q

the lateral rotators of the hip are innervated by which nerve supply? [3]
which is the most important lateral rotator? [1]

A

the lateral rotators of the hip are innervated by which nerve supply? [3]
L5, S1 & S2
which is the most important lateral rotator? [1]
piriformis (important for neurovasc landmark)

37
Q
A 
A = gluteus medius
B = gluteus maximus
C = piriformis
D = other lateral rotators
38
Q

medial compartment of the thigh

  • cause what movement on the hip?
  • made by which muscles?
  • innervated by?
A

medial compartment of the thigh

  • cause what movement on the hip?
  • *adduction**
  • made by which muscles?
  • *adductor longus, brevis and magnus, gracilis, pectineus and obturator externus ​**
  • innervated by?
  • *obturator nerve**
39
Q

which muscles cause inversion of foot? [2]

which muscles cause eversion of foot? [2]

A

which muscles cause inversion of foot? [2]
tibialis anterior
tibialis posterior

which muscles cause eversion of foot? [2]
peroneus longus
peroneus brevis

40
Q

which ligaments of foot get stretched out when foot planted, sot that when you take a step, release energy and help lift off?

a) medial side [1]
b) lateral side [2]

A

which ligaments of foot get stretched out when foot planted, sot that when you take a step, release energy and help lift off?

a) medial side: spring ligament
b) lateral side: long and short plantar ligaments

41
Q

How do you treat a intertrochantric fracture? [1]

A

Dynamic hip screw: blate with barrel inserted to outside of femoral shaft. Screw goes through to femoral head gives controlled compression

42
Q

How does NOF present? [3]

A

Short, abducted and externally rotated

43
Q

Which nerves supply sensory to colours shown?

A
44
Q

PCL helps to stabilise knne joint particularly in which movement? [1]

What is other role? [1]

A

Helps stabilise knee especially in flexion

Stops tibia moving backward on femur

Stronger the ACL

45
Q

Describe the role of ACL [3]

A

Stabilise knee in extension and prevents hyperextension and excessive internal rotation

Stops tibia moving forward on femur

46
Q

Label the contents of the popliteal fossa

A
47
Q

Compression of the tarsal tunnel can cause impingement to which nerve? [1]

A

Tibial nerve

48
Q

When will intention to treat analysis and on treatment analysis give the same answer? (1 mark)

A

iii. If everyone receives the treatment they were randomised to then both analyses are identical (1 mark).

49
Q

Name the Bradford Hill criteria and explain each one

A

a. Strength of the association - Is the result strong? This is usually measured by the HR, OR or RR, eg if OR >5 or < 1/5 then it is usually considered strong.
b. Dose response – Would expect risks to increase with increasing exposure
c. Reversibility – If you stop the exposure does the risk change revert to 1?
d. Temporality – Does the exposure occur a reasonable time before the disease?
e. Consistency – Has the result been repeated by different people in different places and in different circumstances and times?
f. Biological Plausibility – Is the result biologically plausible?
g. Coherence of Evidence – i.e. the results should be consistent with other sorts of studies such as cohort and cross-sectional as well as perhaps animal models.
h. Specificity – Is the relationship with the exposure limited to specific diseases

50
Q

What does the following describe? [1]

An individual’s perception of the degree to which they are capable of performing a given behaviour, or, their self-believe in their ability to change (1/2 mark for self- belief/perception and ½ mark for behaviour change).

A

Self-efficacy

51
Q
  1. In a case-control study the odds ratio for heroin use and testes cancer was 0.92 with a 95% confidence interval of 0.24 to 3.59. What does the confidence interval mean? (2 marks)
A

The 95% confidence interval tells us that we are 95% confident (½ mark) that in the population heroin use might decrease the risk of testes cancer by 76% (1-0.24) (½ mark) or it might increase it by 3.6 times.(½ mark). The confidence interval includes 1 so there is no evidence that heroin use will reduce the risk of testes cancer (p>0.05). (½ mark)

52
Q

Which radiological sign is seen when interlobular septa in the pulmonary interstitium become prominent? [1]

A

Kerley B lines

53
Q

Describe the different pathway between changes that occur to make anti-CarP and antiACPA molecules [2]

A
54
Q

Haematogenous osteomyelitis usually involves which bones in children? [1] and adults? 1[]

A

Haematogenous osteomyelitis usually involves the metaphysis of long bones in children or the vertebral bodies in adults

55
Q

In acute haematogenous osteomyelitis, how does infection spread? [2]

A

In acute haematogenous osteomyelitis, infection spreads through bone via Haversian
and Volkmann canal systems.

56
Q

Which type of T cell is responsible for immune recognition and hence its abnormality may lead to cancer?

A

iT-Reg5

57
Q

State the effect of liquoirce on cortisol [1]

A

Yr 2 EOYS ^2 (42 decks)

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