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Yr 2 EOYS ^2 > Quick facts 3 > Flashcards

Quick facts 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Which chemotherapy drug would cause Pulmonary Fibrosis?

Capecitabine
Bleomycin
Doxorubicin
Imatinib

A

Which chemotherapy drug would cause Pulmonary Fibrosis?

Capecitabine
Bleomycin
Doxorubicin
Imatinib

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2
Q

Bcl2 causes what type of gain of function mutation?

Point mutation of non-coding region: promotor/enhancer region
Point mutation of coding region
Gene amplification
Translocation / transposition
Which type of cancer is this seen in?

A

Translocation / transposition: induction blocks apoptosis (anti-apoptotic gene).
Overexpression by (t14:18) (q32; 21).

Leads to follicular lymphoma

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3
Q

The patient is referred to haematology and a diagnosis of chronic myeloid leukaemia is made.

Which of the following medications has dramatically improved prognosis in recent years?

Infliximab
Imatinib
Vincristine
Rituximab

A

The patient is referred to haematology and a diagnosis of chronic myeloid leukaemia is made.

Which of the following medications has dramatically improved prognosis in recent years?

Infliximab
Imatinib
Vincristine
Rituximab

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4
Q

which of the following form hemorrhagic cystitis as a side effect?

alkylating agent
platinum agent
anti-metabolite agent
topoisomerase inhibitors

A

which of the following form hemorrhagic cystitis as a side effect?

alkylating agent
platinum agent
anti-metabolite agent
topoisomerase inhibitors

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5
Q

Q
Which of the following binds to CTLA4?

Tisagenlecleucel (Kymriah)
Atezolizumab
Rituximab
Ipililumbab
Nivolumab

A

Q
Which of the following binds to CTLA4?

Tisagenlecleucel (Kymriah)
Atezolizumab
Rituximab
Ipililumbab
Nivolumab

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6
Q

In the context of a diagnosis of prostate cancer, metastatic spinal cord compression needs to be ruled out with an

CT spine
CT brain
PET scan
MRI spine

A

In the context of a diagnosis of prostate cancer, metastatic spinal cord compression needs to be ruled out with an

CT spine
CT brain
PET scan
MRI spine

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7
Q

Which of the following is the most important buffer system in the blood?

Ammonium buffer system

Carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system

Haemoglobin buffer system

Phosphate buffer system

Plasma proteins buffer system

A

Which of the following is the most important buffer system in the blood?

Ammonium buffer system

Carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system

Haemoglobin buffer system

Phosphate buffer system

Plasma proteins buffer system

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8
Q

What drug class are:
* Irinotecan
* Topotecan

A

Topoisomerase-I inhbitors

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9
Q

Unexplained Over 60 & IDA might indicate? [1]

A

Colorectal cancer

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10
Q

Which of the following is topoisomerase II inhibitor which is cardiotoxic and cause dilated cardiomyopathy

Irinotecan
Topotecan
Doxorubicin
Epirubicin

A

Which of the following is topoisomerase II inhibitor which is cardiotoxic and cause dilated cardiomyopathy

Irinotecan
Topotecan
Doxorubicin
Epirubicin

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11
Q

B-Raf is an oncogene that belongs to

Growth factor receptors
Signal transduction proteins
Transcription factors
Anti-antopic proteins

A

B-Raf is an oncogene that belongs to

Growth factor receptors
Signal transduction proteins
Transcription factors
Anti-antopic proteins

This protein plays a role in regulating the MAP kinase/ERKs signaling

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12
Q

The majority of humanised monoclonal antibodies use which Ig as a backbone?

IgA
IgD
IgE
IgG
IgM

A

The majority of humanised monoclonal antibodies use which Ig as a backbone?

IgA
IgD
IgE
IgG
IgM

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13
Q

which of the following work by integrating into host DNA / RNA and inhibiting replication

alkylating agent
platinum agent
anti-metabolite agent
topoisomerase inhibitors

A

which of the following work by integrating into host DNA / RNA and inhibiting replication

alkylating agent
platinum agent
anti-metabolite agent
topoisomerase inhibitors

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14
Q

c-fos causes what type of gain of function mutation?

Point mutation of non-coding region: promotor/enhancer region
Point mutation of coding region
Gene amplification
Translocation / transposition

Which type of cancer is this seen in?

A

c-fos causes what type of gain of function mutation?

Point mutation of non-coding region: promotor/enhancer region
Point mutation of coding region
Gene amplification
Translocation / transposition
Which type of cancer is this seen in?

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15
Q

Ras mutation is most associated with which type of cancer?

Non-small cell lung cancer
Colon cancer
Pancreatic cancer
Papillary thyroid cancer

A

Ras mutation is most associated with which type of cancer?

Non-small cell lung cancer
Colon cancer
Pancreatic cancer
Papillary thyroid cancer

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16
Q

Most common form of radiotherapy are the [], which are used to treat deeper cancers.

A

Most common form of radiotherapy are theMV photons, which are used to treat deeper cancers.

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17
Q

Methotrexate inhibits which of the following

G1
S
G2
M

A

Methotrexate inhibits which of the following

G1
S
G2
M

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18
Q

paclitaxel & docetaxel inhibit which cell cycle stage

G1
S
G2
M

A

paclitaxel & docetaxel inhibit which cell cycle stage

G1
S
G2
M

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19
Q

Cancers are initiated and progress by mutations in genes which result in either a gain or loss of function.

Which of the following best describes the gain of function mutation observed in lung adenocarcinoma?

Mutation in CDKN2A (cyclin dependent kinase inhibitor)

Mutation in Rb (retinoblastoma protein)
Mutation in EGFR (epidermal growth factor receptor)
Mutation in MYC

Mutation in TP53 (tumour protein 53)

A

Cancers are initiated and progress by mutations in genes which result in either a gain or loss of function.

Which of the following best describes the gain of function mutation observed in lung adenocarcinoma?

Mutation in CDKN2A (cyclin dependent kinase inhibitor)

Mutation in Rb (retinoblastoma protein)
Mutation in EGFR (epidermal growth factor receptor)
Mutation in MYC

Mutation in TP53 (tumour protein 53)

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20
Q

Which drug is prescribed if a mutation to a tyrosine kinase receptor in small cell lung cancer occurs

Trastuzumab
Pertuzumab
Osimertinib
Erlotinib
Kadcycla

A

Which drug is prescribed if a mutation to a tyrosine kinase receptor in small cell lung cancer occurs

Trastuzumab
Pertuzumab
Osimertinib
Erlotinib
Kadcycla

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21
Q

Which of the following is derived from E. coli and deprives tumour cells of the required amino acids and inhibits protein synthesis

Trabectedin
L-Asparaginase
Actinomycin-D
Busulfan

A

Which of the following is derived from E. coli and deprives tumour cells of the required amino acids and inhibits protein synthesis

Trabectedin
L-Asparaginase
Actinomycin-D
Busulfan

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22
Q

Which type of surgical treatment would be used for the removal of lymph nodes and an organ/s

Local resection
Radical resection
Supra-radical resections
Surgery for metastasis/recurrence
Surgical management of complications

A

Which type of surgical treatment would be used for the removal of lymph nodes and an organ/s

Local resection
Radical resection
Supra-radical resections
Surgery for metastasis/recurrence
Surgical management of complications

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23
Q

Which of the following binds to the minor groove of DNA, bending the helix towards the major groove, which leads to interference with the intracellular transcription pathways and DNA-repair pathways

Trabectedin
L-Asparaginase
Actinomycin-D
Busulfan

A

Which of the following binds to the minor groove of DNA, bending the helix towards the major groove, which leads to interference with the intracellular transcription pathways and DNA-repair pathways

Trabectedin
L-Asparaginase
Actinomycin-D
Busulfan

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24
Q

Caspases are proteins that initiate and execute the process of apoptosis in cells.

Which of the following caspase proteins is essential to initiate apoptosis through the extrinsic pathway?

Caspase 3
Caspase 6
Caspase 7
Caspase 8
Caspase 9

A

Caspases are proteins that initiate and execute the process of apoptosis in cells.

Which of the following caspase proteins is essential to initiate apoptosis through the extrinsic pathway?

Caspase 3
Caspase 6
Caspase 7
Caspase 8
Caspase 9

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25
Q

Tremelimubab binds to which of the following

PDL1
PDL2
CTLA4
PD1

A

Tremelimubab binds to which of the following

PDL1
PDL2
CTLA4
PD1

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26
Q

Which chemotherapy drug would cause Peri-Orbital Oedema?

Capecitabine
Bleomycin
Doxorubicin
Imatinib

A

Which chemotherapy drug would cause Peri-Orbital Oedema?

Capecitabine
Bleomycin
Doxorubicin
Imatinib

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27
Q

Q
Which chemotherapy drug would cause Flagellate Erythema ?

Capecitabine
Bleomycin
Doxorubicin
Imatinib

A

Q
Which chemotherapy drug would cause Flagellate Erythema ?

Capecitabine
Bleomycin
Doxorubicin
Imatinib

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28
Q

Bleomycin inhibits which of the following

G1
S
G2
M

A

Bleomycin inhibits which of the following

G1
S
G2
M

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29
Q

Breast cancer

E-cadherin is a phenotypic marker in breast cancer. Describe what levels of E-cadherin would be like in an individual with poor prognosis [1]

A

Low E-cadherin: worse prognosis

E-cadherin is a cell adhesion molecule that is expressed in normal breast tissue

The loss of E-cadherin expression is a very early change in lobular breast carcinogenesis and the normal protein plays a tumor-suppressive and invasion-suppressive role.

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30
Q

Q
Which drug causesa decline in left ventricular function AND congestive heart failure

Trastuzumab
Pertuzumab
Cetuximab
Kadcycla

A

Q
Which drug causesa decline in left ventricular function AND congestive heart failure

Trastuzumab
Pertuzumab
Cetuximab
Kadcycla

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31
Q

There are three checkpoints in the cell cycle which allow fidelity of DNA replication and cell division.

Which of the following proteins are most likely to be mutated if a damaged cell does not stop at the G2/M checkpoint?

B-cell lymphoma 2 (Bcl-2)

BRCA 1 (breast cancer 1)

Myc

p53

pRB (retinoblastoma protein)

A

There are three checkpoints in the cell cycle which allow fidelity of DNA replication and cell division.

Which of the following proteins are most likely to be mutated if a damaged cell does not stop at the G2/M checkpoint?

B-cell lymphoma 2 (Bcl-2)

BRCA 1 (breast cancer 1)

Myc

p53

pRB (retinoblastoma protein)

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32
Q

which of the following work by forming hghly reactive molecules which bind to electron-rich nucleophilic moieties

alkylating agent
platinum agent
anti-metabolite agent
topoisomerase inhibitors

A

which of the following work by forming hghly reactive molecules which bind to electron-rich nucleophilic moieties

alkylating agent
platinum agent
anti-metabolite agent
topoisomerase inhibitors

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33
Q

Q
Which of the following exerts cytotoxic effects by intercalation between guanine-cytosine base pairs with inhibition of the synthesis of messenger RNA

Trabectedin
L-Asparaginase
Actinomycin-D
Busulfan

A

Q
Which of the following exerts cytotoxic effects by intercalation between guanine-cytosine base pairs with inhibition of the synthesis of messenger RNA

Trabectedin
L-Asparaginase
Actinomycin-D
Busulfan

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34
Q

Q
A mutation of which gene is most strongly associated with colon cancer?

BRCA2
RB1
p53
TSC1
BRCA1

A

Q
A mutation of which gene is most strongly associated with colon cancer?

BRCA2
RB1
p53
TSC1
BRCA1

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34
Q

Q
A mutation of which gene is most strongly associated with colon cancer?

BRCA2
RB1
p53
TSC1
BRCA1

A

Q
A mutation of which gene is most strongly associated with colon cancer?

BRCA2
RB1
p53
TSC1
BRCA1

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35
Q

3 Measurement of neonatal plasma concentrations of this substance is used as a predictive test for the condition of congenital hypothyroidism.

A. desmopressin
B. mono-iodotyrosine
C. oxytocin
D. thyroglobulin
E. thyrotrophin

A

3 Measurement of neonatal plasma concentrations of this substance is used as a predictive test for the condition of congenital hypothyroidism.

A. desmopressin
B. mono-iodotyrosine
C. oxytocin
D. thyroglobulin
E. thyrotrophin

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36
Q

State another name for TSH [1]

A

Thyrotrophin

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37
Q

[] recycles the iodine contained in MIT and DIT as they are released from thyroglobulin within the thyroid follicular cell.

A. desmopressin
B. mono-iodotyrosine
C. oxytocin
D. thyroglobulin
E. thyrotrophin

A

**B. mono-iodotyrosine **

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38
Q

4 For the treatment of Graves’ disease, carbimazole is the anti-thyroid drug of choice.
Carbimazole works by inhibiting which of the following compounds.

A. cholinesterase
B. de-iodinase
C. Na / K ATP-ase
D. lactase
E. thyroperoxidase

A

4 For the treatment of Graves’ disease, carbimazole is the anti-thyroid drug of choice.
Carbimazole works by inhibiting which of the following compounds.

A. cholinesterase
B. de-iodinase
C. Na / K ATP-ase
D. lactase
E. thyroperoxidase

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39
Q

8 Graves’ disease involves the binding of immunoglobulin antibodies to receptors located on thyroid follicular cells. Which is the naturally occurring hormone that normally binds to such receptors?

A. Thyroperoxidase
B. Thyrotrophin
C. Thyrotrophin releasing hormone
D. Thyroxine
E. Tri-iodothyronine

A

8 Graves’ disease involves the binding of immunoglobulin antibodies to receptors located on thyroid follicular cells. Which is the naturally occurring hormone that normally binds to such receptors?

A. Thyroperoxidase
B. Thyrotrophin : aka TSH
C. Thyrotrophin releasing hormone
D. Thyroxine
E. Tri-iodothyronine

Correct response: B

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40
Q

Benign enlargement of the prostate gland can narrow the bladder neck and impede the outflow of urine. This drug relaxes the smooth muscle of the bladder neck region and improves urine flow.

A. Acetylcholine
B. Nicotine
C. Pancuronium
D. Propranolol
E. Tamsulosin

A

Benign enlargement of the prostate gland can narrow the bladder neck and impede the outflow of urine. This drug relaxes the smooth muscle of the bladder neck region and improves urine flow.

A. Acetylcholine
B. Nicotine
C. Pancuronium
D. Propranolol
E. Tamsulosin

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41
Q

Describe the MoA of tamsulosin [1]

A

alpha 1 adrenoreceptor blocker of the prostate: by blocking these adrenoceptors, smooth muscle in the prostate is relaxed and urinary flow is improved.

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42
Q

In frequency or urge incontinence the bladder muscle is in a hypercontractile state. These contractions and the resulting incontinence can be prevented by giving this drug.

A. Amiloride
B. Neostigmine
C. Oxybutinin
D. Pancuronium
E. Spironolactone

A

In frequency or urge incontinence the bladder muscle is in a hypercontractile state. These contractions and the resulting incontinence can be prevented by giving this drug.

A. Amiloride
B. Neostigmine
C. Oxybutinin
D. Pancuronium
E. Spironolactone

43
Q

Describe the MoA Of oxybutinin [1]

A

M3 antagonist at bladder: relaxes and stops contractions of the bladder

44
Q

Which drug does this description apply to? [1]

muscarinic agonist used to treat postoperative and postpartum nonobstructive functional urinary retention and neurogenic atony of the bladder with retention

A

Bethanechol

45
Q

13 What factor does the shape of stools depend on and correlate with?

A. Depends on correct anal sphincter function and correlates with the peristaltic wave
B. Depends on fibre content and correlates with the length of the peristaltic wave
C. Depends on fibre content and correlates with transit time
D. Depends on water content and correlates with fat metabolism
E. Depends on water content and correlates with transit time

A

13 What factor does the shape of stools depend on and correlate with?

A. Depends on correct anal sphincter function and correlates with the peristaltic wave
B. Depends on fibre content and correlates with the length of the peristaltic wave
C. Depends on fibre content and correlates with transit time
D. Depends on water content and correlates with fat metabolism
E. Depends on water content and correlates with transit time

46
Q

After surgical removal of the pituitary gland in a 35 year-old female, which hormone must be given to avoid serious ill-health?

A adrenocorticotrophic hormone
B growth hormone
C follicle stimulating hormone
D luteinising hormone
E prolactin

A

After surgical removal of the pituitary gland in a 35 year-old female, which hormone must be given to avoid serious ill-health?

A adrenocorticotrophic hormone
B growth hormone
C follicle stimulating hormone
D luteinising hormone
E prolactin

47
Q

Which vitamin should be given to patients with alcoholic cirrhosis, to prevent possibility of Wernicke-Korsakoff encephalopathy?

A. vitamin A
B. vitamin B1
C. vitamin B6
D. vitamin B12
E. vitamin K

A

Which vitamin should be given to patients with alcoholic cirrhosis, to prevent possibility of Wernicke-Korsakoff encephalopathy?

A. vitamin A
B. vitamin B1
C. vitamin B6
D. vitamin B12
E. vitamin K

48
Q

Pyridoxine deficiency would refer to a lack of

A. vitamin A
B. vitamin B1
C. vitamin B6
D. vitamin B12
E. vitamin K

A

Pyridoxine deficiency would refer to a lack of

A. vitamin A
B. vitamin B1
C. vitamin B6
D. vitamin B12
E. vitamin K

49
Q

Isoniazide could cause a deficiency in

A. vitamin A
B. vitamin B1
C. vitamin B6
D. vitamin B12
E. vitamin K

A

Isoniazide could cause a deficiency in

A. vitamin A
B. vitamin B1
C. vitamin B6
D. vitamin B12
E. vitamin K

Importantly, deficiency of B6 can cause nerve damage, leading to burning, shooting and tingling pain in the arms, legs, hands, and feet.

50
Q

Lack of which of the following could cause microcytic anaemia

A. vitamin A
B. vitamin B1
C. vitamin B6
D. vitamin B12
E. vitamin K

A

Lack of which of the following could cause microcytic anaemia

A. vitamin A
B. vitamin B1
C. vitamin B6
D. vitamin B12
E. vitamin K

51
Q

Which of the following B vitamins is thiamine?

A B9
B B2
C B1
D B6
E B12

A

Which of the following B vitamins is thiamine?

A B9
B B2
C B1
D B6
E B12

52
Q

Which of the following B vitamins is folic acid?

A B9
B B2
C B1
D B6
E B12

A

Which of the following B vitamins is folic acid?

A B9
B B2
C B1
D B6
E B12

53
Q

Which of the following does Pabrinex give a supply of?

A B9
B B2
C B1
D B6
E B12

A

Which of the following does Pabrinex give a supply of?

A B9
B B2
C B1 - treats Wernicke’s encephalopathy with high dose thiamine
D B6
E B12

54
Q

State the two principle problems associated with hypophosphataemia:

A

There are two principle problems associated with hypophosphataemia:

  1. Reduced 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (DPG): this is important for the release of oxygen to peripheral tissue. Reduced levels leads to less release from haemoglobin in peripheral gas exchange.

2. Reduced adenosine triphosphate (ATP): this is the cellular energy currency. Without ATP, energy-rich cellular functions fail.

55
Q

Why would you not give salbutamol to someone in labour? [1]

A

Beta-adrenergic agonists, such as salbutamol, are tocolytic agents that prevent uterine contractions.

56
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding obstetric haemorrhage is true?

A Obstetric haemorrhage is a common cause of maternal death in the UK
B Obstetric haemorrhage is the leading cause of maternal death in the UK
C Obstetric haemorrhage is the leading cause of maternal death worldwide
D Obstetric haemorrhage kills around two women per year in the UK
E Obstetric haemorrhage is always maternal blood and never fetal in origin

A

Which one of the following statements regarding obstetric haemorrhage is true?

A Obstetric haemorrhage is a common cause of maternal death in the UK
B Obstetric haemorrhage is the leading cause of maternal death in the UK
C Obstetric haemorrhage is the leading cause of maternal death worldwide
D Obstetric haemorrhage kills around two women per year in the UK
E Obstetric haemorrhage is always maternal blood and never fetal in origin

57
Q

Secondary PPH is defined as vaginal bleeding from [] hrs postpartum to [] weeks postpartum.

A

Secondary PPH is defined as vaginal bleeding from 24 hrs postpartum to 12 weeks postpartum.

58
Q

Which of the following values would be considered a normal APGAR score?

A 0
B 2
C 4
D 6
E 8

A

Which of the following values would be considered a normal APGAR score?

A 0
B 2
C 4
D 6
E 8

The APGAR score is a ‘vitality index’ that is measured in virtually every newborn at one and five minutes with a ‘normal’ score being between 7 and 10

59
Q

Explain how post-hepatic obstructive jaundice may cause i) pale stools and ii) dark urine [2]

A

i) Conjugated bilirubin cannot access the gut (½ mark ) and be converted to stercobilin which causes colouration of faeces (½ mark).

ii) Conjugated bilirubin refluxes back into general circulation (½ mark) where unlike bilirubin, it can be excreted in urine which causes dark colouration of urine (½ mark).

60
Q

Label A & B

A
61
Q

Name three triggers to TRH release

A

Triggers:
* Circadian rhythm
* Cold
* Acute pyschosis

Inhibits:
* Severe stress

62
Q

1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D is

Calcidiol
Cholecalciferol
Calcitriol
Ergocalciferol

A

1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D is

Calcidiol
Cholecalciferol
Calcitriol
Ergocalciferol

63
Q

25-hydroxyvitamin D is

Calcidiol
Cholecalciferol
Calcitriol
Ergocalciferol

A

Calcidiol

64
Q

ii. To further investigate the low cortisol levels, what additional test would you ask the biochemistry laboratory to perform and why? (2 marks)

A

(ii) Measure ACTH to differentiate between primary and secondary adrenal failure.

65
Q

(i) Where is IGF-1 secreted from? (ii) High levels of IGF-1 in the blood are indicative of what condition? [1 mark]

A

(i) The liver (1/2 mark)
(ii) Acromelagy or growth hormone excess (½ mark)

66
Q

9 Why do many diets display a significant initial weight loss and then the rate slows? [1 mark]

A

Initial weight loss is due to reduction in body glycogen stores (and their associated water) (1 mark)

67
Q
  • Hydrolysis of triacylglycerol in liver / adipose tissue releases [].
A
  • Hydrolysis of triacylglycerol in liver / adipose tissue releases glycerol.
68
Q

12 Amino acids can be glucogenic and/or ketogenic. Name two amino acids, which are ketogenic. [1 mark]

A

Leucine, Lysine, Isoleucine, Phenylalanine, Threonine, Tyrosine, Tryptophan (½ mark each – max 1]

69
Q
  1. Mutations inactivating p53 occur in many cancers. What type of protein is p53?

A Cell adhesion molecule
B Non-receptor tyrosine kinase
C Secreted ligand
D Small G protein
E Transcription factor

A
  1. Mutations inactivating p53 occur in many cancers. What type of protein is p53?

A Cell adhesion molecule
B Non-receptor tyrosine kinase
C Secreted ligand
D Small G protein
E Transcription factor

70
Q
  1. Which one of the following can be a physiological mechanism associated with systemic paraneoplastic syndrome?

A Production of cross reacting antibodies
B Nodal metastases
C Distant organ metastases
D Local tumour invasion
E Tumour extravasation

A
  1. Which one of the following can be a physiological mechanism associated with systemic paraneoplastic syndrome?

A Production of cross reacting antibodies
B Nodal metastases
C Distant organ metastases
D Local tumour invasion
E Tumour extravasation

71
Q
  1. Imatinib (also called Glevec or Gleevec) is used to treat Philadelphia chromosome-positive chronic myeloid leukemia (CML). Which tyrosine kinase is preferentially inhibited by imatinib?

A. ABL
B. EGFR
C. ERBB2
D. FAK
E. SRC

A
  1. Imatinib (also called Glevec or Gleevec) is used to treat Philadelphia chromosome-positive chronic myeloid leukemia (CML). Which tyrosine kinase is preferentially inhibited by imatinib?

A. ABL
B. EGFR
C. ERBB2
D. FAK
E. SRC

72
Q
  1. What is the tissue of origin of a papilloma?

A Embryonic
B Epithelial
C Hematopoietic
D Mesenchymal
E Neuroectodermal

A
  1. What is the tissue of origin of a papilloma?

A Embryonic
B Epithelial
C Hematopoietic
D Mesenchymal
E Neuroectodermal

73
Q

Inactivation of E-cadherin contributes to the development of which hallmark of cancer?

A. Evading apoptosis
B. Insensitivity to anti-growth signals
C. Invasion and metastasis
D. Self-sufficiency of growth signals
E. Sustained angiogenesis

A

Inactivation of E-cadherin contributes to the development of which hallmark of cancer?

A. Evading apoptosis
B. Insensitivity to anti-growth signals
C. Invasion and metastasis
D. Self-sufficiency of growth signals
E. Sustained angiogenesis

74
Q

13 During familial colon cancer formation, what is the result of inactivating the APC gene allele?

A. Transition from in situ carcinoma to invasive carcinoma
B. Transition from normal epithelium to hyperplastic epithelium
C. Transition from hyperplastic epithelium to benign adenoma
D. Transition from benign adenoma to in situ carcinoma
E. All of the above

A

13 During familial colon cancer formation, what is the result of inactivating the APC gene allele?

A. Transition from in situ carcinoma to invasive carcinoma
B. Transition from normal epithelium to hyperplastic epithelium
C. Transition from hyperplastic epithelium to benign adenoma
D. Transition from benign adenoma to in situ carcinoma
E. All of the above

75
Q

14 Which one of the following is a class of chemotherapeutic agents targeting cellular DNA?

A. Alkylating agents
B. Anti-CD20 antibodies
C. Aromatase inhibitors
D. Selective oestrogen receptor modulators
E. Tyrosine kinase inhibitors

A

14 Which one of the following is a class of chemotherapeutic agents targeting cellular DNA?

A. Alkylating agents
B. Anti-CD20 antibodies
C. Aromatase inhibitors
D. Selective oestrogen receptor modulators
E. Tyrosine kinase inhibitors

76
Q

The virus associated with primary hepatocellular cancer is:

A. Epstein Barr Virus
B. Hepatitis A
C. Hepatitis B
D. Hepatitis C
E. Hepatitis E

A

The virus associated with primary hepatocellular cancer is:

A. Epstein Barr Virus
B. Hepatitis A
C. Hepatitis B
D. Hepatitis C
E. Hepatitis E

77
Q

Which cancer chemotherapy drug causes DNA crosslinking?

A cisplatin
B doxorubicin
C imatinib (also called Glivec or Gleevec)
D methotrexate
E vincristine (a vinca alkaloid)

A

Which cancer chemotherapy drug causes DNA crosslinking?

A cisplatin

ability to crosslink with the urine bases on the DNA to form DNA adducts, preventing repair of the DNA leading to DNA damage and subsequently induces apoptosis within cancer cells.

78
Q

17 Usually, what is considered to be the weight of the smallest clinically detectable tumour mass?

A. 0.01 g
B. 0.1g
C. 1g
D. 10g
E. 100g

A

17 Usually, what is considered to be the weight of the smallest clinically detectable tumour mass?

A. 0.01 g
B. 0.1g
C. 1g
D. 10g
E. 100g

79
Q

5 Name the specific drainage system through which prostate cancer normally metastasizes through to the lumbar vertebrae. (1 mark)

A

Answer: lower paravertebral venous plexus (Batson’s plexus) (1 mark)

80
Q

6 Name one type of imaging that could be used to show the bone metastases in the lumbar vertebra before there are any bony changes seen on a plain radiograph, and explain why this imaging modality would be more sensitive than a plain radiograph. (2 marks)

A

One from
bone scintingraphy (radionucleotide, bone scan) shows areas of increased uptake in rapidly dividing cells (cancer cells)

MRI metastatic lesions show up in the vertebrae as bone cells react to the cancer (see inside the bone rather than just the outside of the bone

CT scan (contrast) (multidetector CT) focal dense bone lesion can be picked up as you get better resolution than a plain radiograph

81
Q

9 What is the mode of action of the carboplatin?

A

It binds to DNA becoming incorporated between bases along the DNA strand changing the structure. (1 mark) Thus preventing DNA synthesis the induction of mutations and inhibiting transcription. (1 mark)

82
Q
  1. Imatinib is used to treat

ALL
AML
CML
CLL

A
  1. Imatinib is used to treat

ALL
AML
CML
CLL

83
Q

A 24 year-old woman who is 7 weeks pregnant with no complaints presents for routine prenatal care and undergoes transvaginal ultrasonography which reveals that there is no gestational sac, yolk sac or embryo seen in the uterus. Serum quantitative hCG level is 4500 mIU/mL. What is this patient’s most likely diagnosis?
A. Complete abortion
B. Ectopic pregnancy
C. Incomplete abortion
D. Missed abortion
E. Threatened abortion

A

A 24 year-old woman who is 7 weeks pregnant with no complaints presents for routine prenatal care and undergoes transvaginal ultrasonography which reveals that there is no gestational sac, yolk sac or embryo seen in the uterus. Serum quantitative hCG level is 4500 mIU/mL. What is this patient’s most likely diagnosis?
A. Complete abortion
B. Ectopic pregnancy
C. Incomplete abortion
D. Missed abortion
E. Threatened abortion

84
Q

An 18 month-old boy attends for a routine developmental check. Which of the following features would suggest a developmental problem?
A. bottom shuffles
B. holds objects with a palmar grasp
C. only says 7 words
D. only understands simple instructions such as ‘clap hands’
E. still in nappies by day and night

A

An 18 month-old boy attends for a routine developmental check. Which of the following features would suggest a developmental problem?
A. bottom shuffles
B. holds objects with a palmar grasp
C. only says 7 words
D. only understands simple instructions such as ‘clap hands’
E. still in nappies by day and night

85
Q

What type of nerves are responsible for causing the relaxation of the smooth muscle and the resultant increased blood flow into the penis that causes an erection?
A. Cranial nerve X (vagus)
B. Parasympathetic cholingeric
C. Parasympathetic non-adrenergic/non-cholingeric
D. Somatic
E. Sympathetic adrenergic

A

What type of nerves are responsible for causing the relaxation of the smooth muscle and the resultant increased blood flow into the penis that causes an erection?
A. Cranial nerve X (vagus)
B. Parasympathetic cholingeric
C. Parasympathetic non-adrenergic/non-cholingeric
D. Somatic
E. Sympathetic adrenergic
Answer: C parasympathetic non-adrenergic/non-cholinergic

86
Q

What is the predominant enzyme that converts testosterone to dihydrotesterone in the prostate gland.
A. 5-α-reductase type I
B. 5-α-reductase type II
C. Phosphodiesterase type 5
D. Prostaglandin E1
E. Prostate specific antigen (kallikrein-3)

A

What is the predominant enzyme that converts testosterone to dihydrotesterone in the prostate gland.
A. 5-α-reductase type I
B. 5-α-reductase type II
C. Phosphodiesterase type 5
D. Prostaglandin E1
E. Prostate specific antigen (kallikrein-3)

87
Q

What is the difference between gestational hypertension and pre-eclampsia? [2]

A

Gestational HTN: 140/90 BP after 20 weeks
Pre-eclampsia: 140/90 BP after 20 weeks + proteinuria and haemolysis

88
Q

When performing a digital rectal examination with the index finger, how many index finger breaths should a prostate gland be normally?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

A

When performing a digital rectal examination with the index finger, how many index finger breaths should a prostate gland be normally?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

89
Q

A 32 year old woman presents with primary subfertility. She has a history of sexually transmitted disease in the past, which was asymptomatic in her, but caused urethritis in her partner, who eventually informed her. The organism concerned cannot be grown in culture, and is treated with erythromycin or tetracycline. What is the most likely organism?

A. Candida albicans
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D. Toxoplasma gondii
E. Treponema pallidum (syphilis)

A

A 32 year old woman presents with primary subfertility. She has a history of sexually transmitted disease in the past, which was asymptomatic in her, but caused urethritis in her partner, who eventually informed her. The organism concerned cannot be grown in culture, and is treated with erythromycin or tetracycline. What is the most likely organism?

A. Candida albicans
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D. Toxoplasma gondii
E. Treponema pallidum (syphilis)

90
Q

2 This sexually transmitted agent causes female infertility, and ophthalmitis in the newborn child.

A. Herpes simplex type 1
B. Human papilloma virus
C. Neisseria meningitidis
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E. Toxoplasma gondii

A

2 This sexually transmitted agent causes female infertility, and ophthalmitis in the newborn child.

A. Herpes simplex type 1
B. Human papilloma virus
C. Neisseria meningitidis
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E. Toxoplasma gondii

91
Q

5 Name two different methods of assessing the degree of fetal distress during the third trimester of pregnancy and indicate in each case what is being measured. (2 marks)

A

Fetal heart rate: cardiotocography – pattern of variation indicates the degree of distress

Doppler ultrasound of umbilical arteries – measures umbilical artery flow

Volume of amniotic fluid; Oligohydramniosis may indicate reduced placental function

92
Q

6 Name two long-term characteristic complications in children who were premature and/or small for dates and received intensive care. In each case briefly indicate what the mechanism of the complication is. (2 marks)

A

2 from:
Retinopathy of prematurity – retinal damage due to high O2 tension during ventilation
Bronchopulmonary displasia – lung damage due to artificial ventilation
Cerebral palsy – brain damage aused by bleeding, anoxia or suboptimal nutrition

93
Q

10 In the fetus, name the blood vessels that contains blood with the highest and lowest oxygen tension 2 marks

A

Highest = (umbilical vein)
Lowest = superior vena cava

94
Q

What % and L of oxygen would you give a pregnany mother to decrease the chance of IGUR mortality? [1]

A

55% O2 at 8L/min round the clock decreases perinatal mortality rate

95
Q

A 60-year-old gentleman presents to his GP with a nodule on his scrotum. A biopsy result shows it to be a squamous cell carcinoma of the scrotum.

Which set of regional lymph nodes are the primary site of lymphatic spread of this tumour?

External iliac
Inguinal
Internal iliac
Para-aortic
Sacral

A

A 60-year-old gentleman presents to his GP with a nodule on his scrotum. A biopsy result shows it to be a squamous cell carcinoma of the scrotum.

Which set of regional lymph nodes are the primary site of lymphatic spread of this tumour?

External iliac
Inguinal
Internal iliac
Para-aortic
Sacral

96
Q

Describe this growth deformity depicted [1]
Name two diseases that a patient might suffer from if they have this syndrome [2]

A

Madelung deformity

  • Idiopathic short stature [1]
  • leri-weill dyschondrosteosis [1]
97
Q

Which of the following drug induces labour by causing the myometrium to contract?

Oxytocin
Misoprostol
Carboprost
Mifepristone

A

Which of the following drug induces labour by causing the myometrium to contract?

Oxytocin
Misoprostol
Carboprost
Mifepristone

98
Q

Listeria is a gram [] bacteria.
Listeria is [] shaped

A

Listeria is a gram positive bacteria.
Listeria is rod shaped

99
Q

What is this pathogen, ampicillin is the treatment?

A

Listeria

100
Q

What is the treatment for syphilis? [1]

Is it gram negative or positive? [1]

A

Gram negative
Treat w/ benzylpenicllin

101
Q

Which of the following methods is the correct way to calculate the estimated date of delivery (EDD)?

Last day of LMP + 8 months and 1 week

First day of last menstrual period (LMP) + 8 months and 1 week

First day of LMP + 9 months

First day of LMP + 9 months and 1 week

A

Which of the following methods is the correct way to calculate the estimated date of delivery (EDD)?

Last day of LMP + 8 months and 1 week

First day of last menstrual period (LMP) + 8 months and 1 week

First day of LMP + 9 months

First day of LMP + 9 months and 1 week

102
Q

Oestrogen causes an increase in which NT? [1]

A

serotonin

103
Q

Retinoblastoma

MDM2 or MDM4 over-expression or amplification - leads to inactivation of which gene?

A

TP53

104
Q

Which of the following is anaerobic?

Bacillus
Listeria
Clostridium
Corynebacterium

A

Which of the following is anaerobic?

Bacillus
Listeria
Clostridium
Corynebacterium

105
Q

Common neonatal problems:
Which of the following is a cause of jaundice in the
first 24 hours of life?

Hepatitis B
Biliary atresia
Physiological
jaundice
ABO immune
haemolysis
Breastmilk jaundice

A

Common neonatal problems:
Which of the following is a cause of jaundice in the
first 24 hours of life?

Hepatitis B
Biliary atresia
Physiological
jaundice
ABO immune
haemolysis
Breastmilk jaundice

106
Q

This diagram shows the inguinal canal of a 3-week old baby. What abnormality is shown?

Hydrocoele
Complete inguinal hernia
Ectopic testis
Intra-abdominal testis
Teratoma

A

This diagram shows the inguinal canal of a 3-week old baby. What abnormality is shown?

Hydrocoele
Complete inguinal hernia
Ectopic testis
Intra-abdominal testis
Teratoma

Yr 2 EOYS ^2 (42 decks)

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