Quiz 2 Flashcards

(47 cards)

1
Q

Following NPO guidelines assures gastric emptying has occurred?

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Medication can be taken PO with up to 150 cc of water in the hour preceding anestheia induction?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Demerol will cause a hypertensive crisis if patient is on a MAO-I?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What medication is contraindicated in Acute intermittent porphyria?

A

-All barbiturates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Anesthesia procedures may proceed without consent in emergency situations?

A

True - this is called “Implied Consent”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A medico-legal document in permanent hospital record should contain?

A
  • Date and time of interview
  • Planned procedure
  • Description of extraordinary circumstances
  • Allergies, medication , Labs
  • Disease processes/treatments
  • ASA status
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the standards for Nurse anesthesia Practice Standard 2?

A

Informed consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the standards for nurse anesthesia practice standard 3?

A

Formulate a patient specific plan for anesthesia care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What pre-anesthesia machine checks should be standard before administering anesthetics? SOAP-M

A
S-suction
O-oxygen
A-airway
P-positive pressure ventilation/laryngoscope
M-monitors/medication
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the three anesthetic options?

A
  • General Anesthesia
  • Regional Anesthesia
  • Monitored Anesthesia Care (MAC)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the 3 types of general anesthesia?

A
  • inhalation
  • intravenous (TIVA)
  • Combination
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are some sites for regional anesthesia?

A
  • Spinal/subarachnoid Block(SAB)/Intrathecal
  • Epidural
  • Blocks (Upper and lower extremities)
  • –> Bier, Axillary
  • –> Femoral Nerve, Ankle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the types of monitored anesthesia care (MAC)?

A
  • Conscious sedation

- Deep sedation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the pre-op medication goals?

A
A-anxienty relief
S-sedation
A-analgesia
A-Amnesia
A-antisialagogue (control secretions)
A-attenuate sympathetic nervous system response
D-decrease anesthetic requirements
P-prevent bronchospasm
P-prophylaxis against allergy
D-decrease PONV
I-increase gastric fluid pH (Bicitra)
D-decrease gastric fluid volume
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

GABA is the principle inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How do benzodiazepines work on the receptor?

A

Enhance the affinity of the receptors for GABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If you do surgery on someone without a signed consent, what could you be charged with? (Informed Consent in Anesth p 2)

A

Battery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

With informed consent, are you required to inform the patient of every concievable risk of anesthesia? (Informed Consent in Anesth p 4)

A

No, that’s impossible. You should give them the most likely scenarios that could happen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

With informed consent, if a pt asks what their chances of a bad outcome due to anesthesia could be, what could you tell them? (Informed consent in Anesth p 5)

A

Recent studies show anesthesia related mortality rates are around 1:185,000 - 280,000

20
Q

What should an informed consent for anesthesia contain (6 items) (Informed consent in Anesth p 2)

A
  1. Diagnosis
  2. Nature and purpose of treatment
  3. Risks and consequences of procedure
  4. Probability of success
  5. Alternative treatment
  6. Prognosis if treatment is not given
21
Q

Will alcoholics require more or less anesthetic?

A

May require MORE anesthetics since they may have a tolerance built up to them. Although during Acute intoxication, pts may require less sedatives/analgesics

22
Q

For persons taking beta blockers, which pressor might be better for them during surgery, Ephedrine or Norepi?

A

Ephedrine - because it will affect both HR and BP. Norepi will decrease HR while increasing BP

23
Q

When planning an epidural or spinal, is it OK for the pt to recieve Heparin prior to the procedure?

A

NO. In fact, coags (PT, PTT, INR) should be reviewed prior to a spinal or epidural.

24
Q

If someone is allergic to eggs, which anesthetic induction agent should you avoid?

25
If someone is allergic to lotions and cosmetics, which anesthesia induction drug should you avoid?
Rocuronium
26
If someone has a reported allergy to anesthesia, which are the more likely suspects?
Inhalents and Succ
27
What is the medication used for Malignant Hypertension?
Dantroline
28
What people are at increased risk of Malignant Hypertension?
persons with neuromuscular problems or a family history of Malignant Hypertension
29
What should ALL women of childbearing age have done before a procedure?
Urine HCG - anesthetic agents can affect uterine blood flow and can be teratogenic
30
If a pt has skin breaking on their back where you were going to be placing an epidural, what should you do?
Don't perform the epidural. You should not do any blocks or spinal procedures through skin breakdown or cellulitis
31
Is a Hgb/Hct required on all presurgical patients?
No. If they are healthy, they don't require a current H&H and can get to a Hgb of 7 before they need transfusion.
32
What patients should not be allowed to have a lower hgb or hct during surgery?
Pt with a history of CAD
33
What 3 surgeries have the highest incidence of postoperative awareness?
- Trauma - Open Heart Surgery - Emergency C-Section
34
What is the structure of Midazolam that gives it stability in an aqueous solution and rapid metablolism?
The imidazole ring
35
How long does it take for Midazolam to take effect?
0.9 - 5.6 minutes, give time for dose to take effect before you redose
36
Midazolam is metabolized by CYP450 enzyme. What other common drugs are also metabolized there and what is the result of giving midazolam with these drugs?
Other drugs: Cimetidine, Erythromycin, Cal Channel Blockers, Antifungal drugs. Giving together could result in unexpected CNS depression
37
What is the IV and IM doses of Midazolam? Onset? Peak? Duration?
Dosing - IV: 1-5mg - IM: 2.5-5mg Onset: 30-60 sec Peak: 3-5 min Duration: 15-80 min
38
Opiods: Morphine dose Fentanyl dose
Morphine 5-15mg IV | Fentanyl 25-100mcg IV
39
Antihistamines: Benadryl dosage
12.5 - 25mg PO or IV
40
Alpha 2 agonists: Clonidine dosage
0.1-0.3 mg PO or patch
41
Antiemetics dosage: Droperidol Dolasetron Ondansetron
Droperidol 1.25mg IV Dolasetron 12.5mg IV Ondansetron 4mg IV
42
Anticholinergics dosage: Glycopyrolate (Robinul) Atropine
Glycopyrolate 0.1mg IV | Atropine 0.3-0.6mg IV
43
H2 antagonists dosage: Cimetidine Ranitidine Famotidine
Cimetidine 200-300mg PO Ranitidine 100mg PO Famotidine 20-40mg PO
44
Proton Pump Inhibitors dose: Omeprazole Pantoprazole
Omeprazole (Prilosec) 20mg PO | Pantoprazole (Protonix) 40mg IV
45
GI Stimulants dose: | Metoclopramide (Reglan)
Reglan 10mg PO or IV
46
Not getting an informed consent before surgery would be an example of what?
Breach of Duty
47
What are Mendelson's Criteria (3 items) for severity of aspiration?
> 25 ml pH < 2.5 Particulate vs clear