quiz 5 Flashcards

1
Q

incidence in gen pop of: twinning?

monozygotic twins?

A

1 in 90;

1 in 250;

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2
Q

the perinatal morbidity in multifetal gestation is how many times higher than for a comparable singleton preg?

A

3-4

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3
Q

avg time of delivery of twin preg?

A

35wks

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4
Q

Dx of multiple gestation is usually made by?

A

U/S

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5
Q

in multiple gestation, periodic U/S are done approx every 4wks begining at about?

A

16wks

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6
Q

in what percent of twin gestations is each member of the twin pair in cephalic presentation at the beginning of labor

A

40

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7
Q

chorionicity can first be determined at what gestational age

A

9-10wks

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8
Q

bronchial asthma is encountered in what percent of preg pts

A

4-8

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9
Q

severe asthma is assoc w less than what percent FEV1 or peak flow?

A

60

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10
Q

pts w which cardiac disease is it best advised not to become preg?

A

uncorrected TOF

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11
Q

in nml pts, CO increases in preg by approx

A

40%

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12
Q

Sxs of NYHA class 1 ?

A

no cardiac decompensation or limitation of physical activity

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13
Q

Sxs of NYHA class 2?

A

no Sxs of cardiac decompensation at rest, minor limitations of physical activity

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14
Q

Sxs of NYHA class 3?

A

no Sxs of cardiac decompensation at rest, marked limitations of physical activity

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15
Q

Sxs of NYHA class 4?

A

Sxs of cardiac decompensation at rest, increased discomfort w any physical activity

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16
Q

fetuses of pts w fxnlly sign cardiac disease are at increased risk for ?

A

low birth weight

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17
Q

OB pts w cardiac disease are most likely to die in what period?

A

postpartum

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18
Q

characteristic of pts at increased risk for peripartum cardiomyopathy

A

Hx of preeclampsia

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19
Q

what percent of offspring of pts w Marfans will inherit the disease?

A

50

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20
Q

about this percent of pts w rheumatic HD have mitral stenosis

A

90

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21
Q

MOA of thiazides

A

decreased plasma vol and CO

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22
Q

MOA of methyldopa

A

false neurotransmission, CNS effect

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23
Q

MOA of nefedipine

A

Ca channel blocker

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24
Q

MOA of hydralazine

A

direct peripheral vasodilation

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25
Q

serum conc in mg/dL magnesium sulfate is assoc w decreased patellar reflexes

A

8-12

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26
Q

what percent of eclamptic seizures happen before overt proteinuria?

A

10

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27
Q

appropriate management of preeclampsia at 31 wks ?

additional management at 34 wks?

A

biweekly biphysical profiles ;

antihypertensive med

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28
Q

% of preg women w ASx cervical colonization by beta-hemolytic strep?
what % of infants exposed will become colonized

A

30!! ;

50

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29
Q

what incr in serologic titers for syphilis is an indication for further therapy?

A

fourfold

30
Q

sucessful Tx of neonatal gonococcal ophthalmia in newborn of a women w N. gon?

A

Tetracycline

31
Q

which is NOT assoc w congenital rubella

A

MSK anomalies ie phocomelia

32
Q

most classic eye finding in fetal congenital rubella

A

cataracts

33
Q

what % of americans infected w HIV are women?

A

30

34
Q

what % of pediatric HIV is d/t breastfeeding w an infected mother?

A

50

35
Q

C-section indicated when lesion consist of HSV and…

A

the suspected infection is recurrent

36
Q

type of Hepatitis MC in the US?

A

E

37
Q

type of Hepatitis that is waterborne?

A

E

38
Q

latency period from HIV to AIDS is about … yrs

A

11

39
Q

Tx for HPC lesions during preg includes all BUT

A

podophylin and 5-FU

40
Q

antiviral HIV Tx should decr risk of perinatal trsnmsn to as low as …
planned c-sec is recomended at … wks if viral load is greater than ..

A

1-2%;
38;
1,000

41
Q

RR of devel breast ca. in woman w fibroadenoma is …

A

1.0

42
Q

woman living in US has what lifetime risk of devel breast ca..

A

1 in 8

43
Q

BI-RADS cat 1 report in a 55y should be followed up w mammogram in?

A

12mos

44
Q

53 yo w category 4 BI-RADS next step..

A

biopsy

45
Q

explain category 0 BI-RADS report

A

a finding is noted tat warrants further imaging

46
Q

2cm breast tumor, stage is..

A

T4

47
Q

what portion of ejaculate contains greatest density of sperm?
results of semen analysis excludes a male cause for infertility in what % of cases?

A

first quarter;

90%

48
Q

bilateral proximal tubal occlusion, best option for conception is

A

invitro

49
Q

Fecundability is what? in a healthy young couple it is estimated to be ?

A

a live birth in one menstrual cycle;

20-25%

50
Q

ovulation occurs how long after detectable LH surge

A

24hrs

51
Q

% of pts w an STD that have more than one STD?

A

20-50%

52
Q

first lesions seen in primary genital herpes

A

vesicles

53
Q

when do sxs appear after initial infection w N. gon?

lower genital tract infections are c/b?

A

3-5 DAYS;

purulent discharge

54
Q

after single infection w N gon probability of infertility is ?
after 3 episodes of N gon salpingitis risk of infertility is?

A

15%;

75%

55
Q

HPV types 16 and 18 acct for what % cervical ca

A

66

56
Q

condyloma acuminatum may be confused w ?

A

SECONDARY SYPHILIS

57
Q

HPV found in what % of sexually active women

A

80

58
Q

what makes pt more resistant to therapy for condyloma acuminatum

A

diabetes

59
Q

most contagious stage of syphilis ? what us characteristic of this stage?

A

secondary;

rash of palms/soles…. low grade fever, HA, malaise, sore throat, anorexia, lymphadenopathy

60
Q

incubation period for new herpes

A

2-3days

61
Q

incubation period for primary syphilis

A

10-60days

62
Q

causative agent of chancroid

A

Haemophilis ducreyi

63
Q

causative agent of lymphogranuloma venerum

A

chlamydia trachomatis

64
Q

causative agent of granuloma inguinale

A

klebsiella

65
Q

3cm condyloma best treated w

A

laser

66
Q

when is false positive test for AIDS more likely

A

pt taking OCP

67
Q

risk for ectopic incr by how much after salpingitis

A

7-10times

68
Q

19yo w suspected gonorrhea most likely confirmed through

A

culture

69
Q

response to syphilis therapy monitered by

A

VDRL

70
Q

admitted for TOA, inital therapy

A

parenteral ABX

71
Q

greatest RF for PID

A

prior PID