Quiz Questions

Question 1

What does perceptual constancy do?

Answer 1

Allows different perspectives of the same object to be identified.

Question 2

What input does the ventral pathway have?

Answer 2

Major input from the primary visual cortex

Question 3

How does parallel processing help the speed and accuracy of the visual system?

Answer 3

Rods -> magnocellular -> IVC alpha -> interblobs -> interstriate V2

Question 4

A lesion in the optic radiation leaving the LGN in the temporal lobe (Meyer’s loop) would result in what?

Answer 4

Upper contralateral quadrantic anopsia

Question 5

What is a population code?

Answer 5

A sum of many neurons all responding differently to a stimulus

Question 6

Cones are colour sensitive; what can cause colour-blindness?

Answer 6

Multiple possible mutations in the pigment gene

Question 7

Primary visual cortex has distinct compartmentalisation

Answer 7

Ocular dominance columns are created by input from specific layers of the LGN

Question 8

What can lead to prosopagnosia?

Answer 8

Lesions in the temporal cortex

Question 9

Phototransduction occurs in all photoreceptors; what is the result of light response?

Answer 9

Light response results in increase phosphodiesterase reducing cGMP gated channels

Question 10

Feedback projections in the visual system…

Answer 10

Includes feedback from the cortex to the thalamic nuclei

Question 11

In the retina, the predominate photoreceptor are rods, which have…

Answer 11

High spatial frequency

Question 12

Optic tracts have many targets including…

Answer 12

Crossed fibres from nasal retina and ipsilateral fibres from temporal retina

Question 13

Saccades help direct eyes to image of interest; what controls them?

Answer 13

Cortical control is in the parietal cortex

Question 14

Visual search and attention…

Answer 14

Improves with training

Question 15

Retinal ganglion cells receptive fields include…

Answer 15

Transient and sustained responses

Question 16

In terms of hearing, which actions generates an action potential that causes the release of neurotransmitter?

Answer 16

Movement of hair cells

Question 17

What information does the trigeminal nerve convey from the tongue?

Answer 17

Somatosensory input from fungiform and foliate papillae

Question 18

If olfaction could simplistically be thought of as involving only 3 elements, which would these be?

Answer 18

Olfactory receptors, olfactory relay neurons, cortical pyramidal cells

Question 19

Input from olfactory sensory neurons within certain zones of the olfactory epithelium converges on specific glomeruli within the olfactory bulb. What is the advantage of this?

Answer 19

Provides a mechanism which insures that odorants can be detected regardless of their concentration or the fact that the olfactory neurons which typically express their receptor is undergoing renewal.

Question 20

If activation of all odorant receptors causes depolarisation of an olfactory sensory neuron, what is important for discrimination of olfactory input to the nervous system?

Answer 20

Each odorant activates a unique pattern of olfactory receptors and therefore sensory neurons

Question 21

What contributes to detecting flavour?

Answer 21

Retronasal passage of aromatic compounds to olfactory epithelium
Activation of somatosensory afferent fibres (nerves IX and V)

Question 22

What characterises microtia?

Answer 22

Pinna is absent or malformed

Question 23

The tympanic membrane is part of the…

Answer 23

Middle ear

Question 24

Which tastants can be detected by tastebuds located in fungiform papillae?

Answer 24

Umami mostly,

Sweet at high concentrations

Question 25

What change results if the connection to the vomernasal organ is severed?

Answer 25

Loss of ability to detect pheromones

Question 26

The transmission of sound waves through the tympanic cavity occurs through what?

Answer 26

Bone

Question 27

What does the pinna assist with?

Answer 27

Localising in the vertical plane

Question 28

What does otitis media follow?

Answer 28

Eustachian tube dysfunction

Question 29

What are taste cells?

Answer 29

Electrically excitable cells contained within taste buds

Question 30

What specific auditory processing skills are needed to listen to announcements at a busy train station?

Answer 30

Frequency Temporal Intensity and timing differences Elevation cues

Question 31

What is pitch?

Answer 31

The perceptual correlate of the frequency organisation and precise frequency equivalent

Question 32

Where is the sound signal processed?

Answer 32

At the cochlea and auditory cortex levels

Question 33

What is the role of nuclei in sound processing?

Answer 33

Maintaining the signal, not processing

Question 34

What type of aphasia is non-fluent?

Answer 34

Transcortical motor

Question 35

What is the primary action of the styloglossus?

Answer 35

Tongue retraction | Raising of tongue sides

Question 36

Broca's aphasia is often associated with...

Answer 36

Right upper limb hemiparesis

Question 37

What are the cranial nerves associated with speech?

Answer 37

``` V - trigeminal VII - facial IX - glossopharyngeal X - vagus XI - accessory XII - hypoglossal ```

Question 38

How does information regarding sound travel to the cortex?

Answer 38

Medulla Midbrain Thalamus Auditory cortex

Question 39

What is the primary action of the genioglossus?

Answer 39

Tongue protrusion and lateralisation

Question 40

Why is the concept of missing fundamental informative?

Answer 40

It clarifies that frequency encoding is dependent on other processes such as periodicity

Question 41

In Wernicke's aphasia...

Answer 41

The prosody (intonation) is impaired

Question 42

What are formants?

Answer 42

Bands of resonant energy characterising speech sounds

Question 43

Organise the consonant manners of articulation from most to least constricted.

Answer 43

Stop Fricative Approximant

Question 44

What is narcolepsy?

Answer 44

A sleep disorder in which an awake person suffers from repeated, sudden, irresistible REM sleep attacks

Question 45

As sleep cycles progress during the night, the amount of time spent in REM sleep...

Answer 45

Increases

Question 46

Why is beta brain wave activity not a reliable indicator of being awake?

Answer 46

This brain wave pattern also appears during sleep

Question 47

What biological function does NOT occur during sleep?

Answer 47

Memory acquisition

Question 48

Chronic insufficient sleep can lead to...

Answer 48

Cognitive impairment

Question 49

Addictivity of a substance is greatly enhanced by...

Answer 49

Intravenous administration

Question 50

For drug addiction, the main neurotransmitter released to produce drug craving is...

Answer 50

Glutamate

Question 51

Inactivation of which brain region was shown to reduce craving in rat models?

Answer 51

Dorsal prefrontal cortex

Question 52

List side effects of psychostimulants

Answer 52

Paranoia, neurotoxicity, depression

Question 53

How are the stages of sleep easily distinguished?

Answer 53

Changes in the electrical activity of the brain

Question 54

How does cocaine enhance dopamine in the synaptic cleft?

Answer 54

Blockade of DAT

Question 55

Brain areas that show positive reinforcement are

Answer 55

Nucleus accumbens, median forebrain bundle, lateral hypothalamus

Question 56

Which brain region is associated with perception of 'rush' in drug taking (increased dopamine release)?

Answer 56

Ventral striatum

Question 57

Morphine is a ________

Answer 57

Naturally occurring mu-opioid receptor agonist

Question 58

Opioid agonists produce reward by...

Answer 58

Reducing GABA release onto VTA dopamine neurons

Question 59

Opioid withdrawal is associated with...

Answer 59

mu-receptor recruitment of GAT-1

Question 60

An important nucleus for integrating visual, acoustic and tactile stimuli for the control of gaze is...

Answer 60

Superior colliculus

Question 61

For matching visual and acoustic stimuli the most important feature is...

Answer 61

The coherence in timing between the stimuli

Question 62

Multisensory integration assists in...

Answer 62

Increasing sensitivity to multiple weak inputs

Question 63

Is Pavlov's experiment an example of multisensory integration?

Answer 63

No

Question 64

What is the key function of monoamine oxidase?

Answer 64

To degrade catecholamines and serotonin to inactive forms

Question 65

What are negative symptoms?

Answer 65

The absence of something that should normally be there e.g. empathy

Question 66

What integrates the components that comprise fear?

Answer 66

Amygdala

Question 67

What does the increase in ventricle size in schizophrenia imply?

Answer 67

That schizophrenia is associated with brain damage

Question 68

Exposure therapy might involve asking a patient who is afraid of heights to imagine a scene where they are standing on a bridge. In this situation, the bridge is an example of a _____ for fear, and the fear itself is an example of a _____

Answer 68

CS | CR

Question 69

In explaining an individual's aggressiveness, B.F. Skinner would look for _____

Answer 69

Early learning experiences | Reinforcement history

Question 70

Last month, Donovan took Panadol to relieve his headache symptoms. Now, Donovan is more likely to take Panadol again to treat future headaches. This is an example of _____.

Answer 70

Negative reinforcement

Question 71

Learning is a change in behaviour due to experience. In social learning, the experience consists of _____.

Answer 71

Observing events

Question 72

Give an example of elaboration

Answer 72

Noting that the red chair and green table remind you of last year’s Christmas party

Question 73

The NMDA receptor controls _____ that is normally blocked by _____.

Answer 73

A calcium channel | Magnesium ions

Question 74

The perirhinal cortex receives projections from the ventral stream, with damage to this system implicated in _____.

Answer 74

Object recognition deficits

Question 75

Which biomarker ratio gives the highest sensitivity and specificity for detection of Alzheimer’s disease?

Answer 75

P-Tau: A-beta 1-42

Question 76

Which of the following constitute a major illness under umbrella term - Dementia?

Answer 76

Alzheimer's

Question 77

T or F: Genetic mutations in amyloid protein, presenilin-1 or presenilin-2 comprise some of the major risk factors for Alzheimer's disease

Answer 77

False

Question 78

T or F: Blood-based markers provide the least invasive method of early detection of Alzheimer's disease.

Answer 78

True

Question 79

What is APOE?

Answer 79

A late-onset Alzheimer's risk modifier gene