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Spinal 2 > Quiz Set 1 > Flashcards

Quiz Set 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

which mammals do not have seven cervical vertebrae

A

the two toed sloth, manatee, ant bear, and three toed sloth

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2
Q

differences in the number and morphology of vertebrae within the population based on age or developmental variation is identified as which type of variation

A

ontogenetic variation

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3
Q

which variations account for the disparity in number and morphology of vertebrae within a population

A

gender variation or sexual dimorphism, ontogenetic variation, geographic or population based variation, and idiosyncratic variation

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4
Q

what is the length of a typical male spinal column

A

about 70 cm or 28 in

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5
Q

what is the length of the male cervical region

A

about 12 cm or 5 in

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6
Q

what is the length of the male thoracic region

A

about 28 cm or 11 in

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7
Q

based on the numbers for individual region of the vertebral column, what is the length of the male spine

A

about 58 cm or 23 in

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8
Q

distinguish between motion and locomotion

A

motion is movement without travel

locomotion is movement to a new site/ location

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9
Q

what organ(s) are specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull

A

the eye and the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear

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10
Q

what is the general shape of the vertebral body at each region of the spine

A

cervical- rectangular
thoracic- triangular
lumbar- reniform

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11
Q

what is the name given to the cartilage found at the superior and inferior surface of a developing vertebral body

A

superior epiphyseal plate, inferior epiphyseal plate

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12
Q

what are the ages of appearance and the events occurring at each step in the formation of bone at the superior and inferior surface of the vertebral body

A

ages 7-9 years, appearance of epiphyseal plate centers of ossification
age 12 years, formation of the epiphyseal ring
age 15 years, formation of the epiphyseal rim

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13
Q

what is the generic orientation of the pedicle at each region of the spine

A

cervical- posterolateral
thoracic- posterior, slight lateral
lumbar- posterior

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14
Q

what is the name given to the abnormal bone at the attachment site of the ligamentum flavum

A

para-articular process

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15
Q

what is the name given to the overlap of laminae seen on x-ray

A

shingling

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16
Q

what is the name given to the lamina- pedicle junction at each region of the spine

A

cervical- articular pillar

thoracic and lumbar- pars interarticularis

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17
Q

what is the generic orientation of the transverse process or transverse apophysis at each region of the spine

A

cervical- anterolateral
thoracic- posterolateral
lumbar- lateral

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18
Q

what will cause the transverse process/ transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the cervical region

A

cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward to form the cervical and brachial nerve plexuses thus remodeling the transverse process to accommodate their new position

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19
Q

what will cause the transverse process/ transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the thoracic region

A

the growth of the lungs remodel the shape of the ribs which in turn push the transverse processes backward

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20
Q

what is the name given to the joint formed by the articular facets of a vertebral couple

A

the zygaphophysis

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21
Q

what will form the posterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen

A

the inferior articular process/ post-zygapophysis, the superior articular process/ pre-zygapophysis, capsular ligament, and the ligamentum flavum

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22
Q

what will form the superior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen

A

inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure

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23
Q

what will form the anterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen

A

vertebral body of the segment above, the vertebral body of the segment below, the intervertebral disc, and the posterior longitudinal ligament

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24
Q

what is the name given to the normal overlap of spinous processes or spinous apophyses as seen on x-ray

A

imbrication

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25
what is the orientation of the spinous process/ spinous apophysis at each region of the spine
cervical- slight angle inferiorly thoracic- noticeable angle inferiorly lumbar- no inferior angle
26
what is the name given to the union of all vertebral foramina into an apparent vertical cylinder
vertebral canal or spinal canal
27
what neural structures will occupy the vertebral foramen until the level of L2
spinal cord/ spinal medulla/ medulla spinalis, the proximal part of the peripheral nerve system, and the meninges
28
what is the typical shape/ outline of the vertebral foramen at each region of the spinal column/ vertebral column
cervical- triangular thoracic- oval lumbar- triangular sacrum- triangular
29
identify the meninges of the spinal cord/ spinal medulla/ medulla spinalis and the commonly accepted meaning of each
dura mater- tough mother arachnoid mater- spider mother pia mater- tender or delicate mother
30
name and locate each space formed between the osseous vertebral foramen and the spinal cord/ spinal medulla/ medulla spinalis
epidural space- between the vertebral foramen and the dura mater subdural space- between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater subarachnoid space- between the arachnoid mater and pia mater
31
which of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the vertebral body
anterior spinal canal artery & plexus anterior internal vertebral venous plexus basivertebral vein recurrent meningeal/ sinu-vertebral, sinus vertebral nerve posterior longitudinal ligament Hoffmann ligaments
32
what are the branches of the spinal artery
osseous arteries, anterior spinal canal artery, posterior spinal canal artery, anterior medullary feeder arteries, posterior medullary feeder arteries, neural artery
33
what forms the arterial vasa corona below C6
a median anterior spinal artery, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 4 communicating arteries
34
which vessel will supply the dorsal/ posterior nerve root ganglion
posterior distal radicular artery
35
what arterial vasa corona branches supply gray matter and most of the spinal cord
ventral/ central/ sulcal perforating arteries
36
the continuation of pia mater below the conus medullaris is called
filum terminale internum
37
what are the spinal cord enlargement locations and the name given to each
C3-T1, cervical enlargement | T9-T12, lumbar/ lumbosacral enlargement
38
what is a generic cord level of origin- vertebral level combination for the lumbar/ lumbosacral enlargement
L1, L2 cord levles in T9 vertebra; L3, L4 cord levels in T10 vertebra; L5, S1 cord levels in T11 vertebra; S2, S3 cord levels in T12 vertebra
39
what spinal nerves originate from the conus medullaris
typically S4, S5, and Co1
40
what is the name given to the caudal attachment of the meninges
coccygeal medullary vestige
41
what is the name given to the condition where the conus medullaris is located below L1 and the filum terminale is thickened
tethered cord syndrome
42
what is the relationship between spinal nerve number, rib number and vertebral number in a thoracic intervertebral foramen
the spinal nerve number relates to the upper segment number in the vertebral couple. The rib number relates to the lower segment number in the vertebral couple Ex. T3 nerves exits the intervertebral foramen formed by T3/T4, rib 4 joints with this same vertebral couple
43
what is the appearance of the typical cervical vertebral body from the lateral view
posterior height is greater than anterior height by a few millimeters
44
at which vertebral couple will the cervical curve again increase intervertebral disc height
C5/C6
45
what is the joint classification for the anterior lip- posterior groove articulation
amphiarthrosis syndesmosis
46
what is the joint classification for the uncinate process- lateral groove articulation
modified diarthrosis sellar
47
what is the joint classification for the spongy bone- intervertebral disc articulation
amphiarthrosis symphysis
48
how many joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical
ten
49
what is the name given to the uncinate process-lateral groove articulation
joint of Luschka or uncovertebral joint
50
what muscle attaches to the typical cervical vertebral body
longus colli muscle
51
what is the orientation and angulation of the pedicle of a typical cervical
posterolateral, 45 degrees
52
what ligament attaches to the lamina of a typical cervical
ligamentum flavum
53
the greatest frequency of osteophytes associated with the vertebral body occurs at which typical cervical vertebral couple
C5/C6
54
list, in order, the osseous parts of the typical cervical vertebra transverse process beginning at the vertebral body
costal element, anterior tubercle, costotransverse bar, posterior tubercle, true transverse process
55
what muscles will attach to the anterior tubercle of a typical cervical vertebra
anterior scalene, longus capitis, longus colli, anterior intertransverse muscles
56
what muscles will attach to the costotransverse bar
middle scalene and posterior intertransverse muscles
57
what is the orientation and angulation of a typical cervical transverse process
60 degrees anterolaterally (from midsagittal plane), 15 degrees inferiorly (from the horizontal plane)
58
what is the name given to the modification of the anterior tubercle of the C6 transverse process
carotid tubercle
59
what will occupy the typical cervical vertebra transverse foramen
vertebral artery, vertebral venous plexus and postganglionic sympathetic motor nerve fibers
60
what muscles will attach to typical cervical articular processes
``` longissimus capitis longissimus cervicis semispinalis capitis semispinalis cervicis multifidis rotators ```
61
what muscles blend with the capsular ligament of cervical zygapophyses
semispinalis capitis multifidis rotator longus
62
the greatest range of flexion- extension among the typical cervical vertebrae occurs at which vertebral couple
typically C5/C6
63
what motions are coupled in the cervical spine
lateral bending and axial rotation
64
ranges of coupled motion among the typical cervical vertebrae will be similar for what cervical vertebral couples
the C5/C6 vertebral couple
65
what are the three responses of bone which allow it to be described as "living"
it has the ability to heal, to remodel under stressors and to age
66
what is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme
intramembranous ossification
67
what part of the skull is derived from endochondral ossification
chondrocranium
68
which bone of the appendicular skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification
clavicle
69
what are examples of short bones
most of the bones of the carpus and tarsus
70
what are examples of pneumatic bone
frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid and temporal
71
what are consistent examples of sesamoid bones
patella and pisiform
72
what are the types of rounded osseous elevations
tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber, or tuberosity and malleolus
73
what is the definition of an osseous foramen
an ostium passing completely through a thing region of bone
74
what is the definition of an osseous canal
an ostium passing completely through a thick region of bone
75
what is the definition of an osseous meatus
a blind-ended passageway which does not completely penetrate through a bone
76
what is the definition of an osseous fissure
an irregular slit-like or crack- like appearance between the surfaces of adjacent bones
77
what are teh categories of rounded osseous facets
articular heads and articular condyles
78
what are the categories of bone forming the typical adult skull
neurocranium, splanchnocranium or facial skeleton and the auditory ossicles
79
what are the four subclassifications of synarthrosis joints
suture, gomphosis, schindylesis and syndesmosis
80
what are the sutura vera
true sutures demonstrating interlocking of the adjacent bone surfaces; typically formed by intramembranous ossification
81
what are the sutura notha
false sutures lacking interlocking of adjacent bone surfaces; typically formed by endochondral ossification
82
what are examples of permanent amphiarthrosis synchondrosis
costochondral joints or the first sternochondral joint
83
what are the characteristics of an amphiarthrosis symphysis
limited motion, median plan location, support ligaments both anterior and posterior to the joint, more permanent in longevity than synchondrosis and they occur between bones developing by endochondral ossification
84
which example of amphiarthrosis symphysis is temporary
symphysis menti
85
what are the characteristics of the type 1 articular receptors
located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule, resemble Ruffini endings, most numerous in cervical zygaphophyses and they monitor the joint "at rest"
86
what are the characteristics of type 2 articular receptors
they resemble Pacinian corpuscles, located in deeper strata of the fibrous capsule, most numerous in the cervical spine and monitor the joint during normal range of motion
87
what are the characteristics of type 3 articular receptors
resemble Golgi tendon organs, are present in collateral and intrinsic ligaments, not initially observed along the vertebral column and monitor extreme joint motion
88
what are the three modifications of articular synovial membrane
synovial villi, articular fat pads or Haversian glands & synovial menisci and intra-articular discs
89
what are the three classifications of synovial membrane
articular, vaginal, and bursal synovial membrane
90
what is the specific function of type B synovial cells
secrete proteinaceous substance and hyaluronic acid
91
what are the primary constituents of articular cartilage
water, cells, collagen type 2 fibers and proteoglycan gel
92
what is the primary function of bound glycosaminoglycans in articular cartilage
form a network for water retention
93
what is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties
cartilage can deform and return to original volume rapidly, a time independent property
94
what is implied when cartilage is said to have viscoelastic properties
cartilage can deform but returns to original volume slowly, a time dependent property
95
identify and describe the three theories of joint lubrication
weeping theory- implies fluid lost from cartilage joins synovial fluid to produce the viscosity of the film boosted theory- implies water driven into cartilage results in increase viscosity of the remaining synovial fluid boundary theory- implies that the lubricant within synovial fluid is adsorbed onto the cartilage surface and is never fully removed
96
what are the properties of synovial fluid
it is yellow-white, viscous, slightly alkaline and tastes salty
97
what are the classifications of diarthroses based on the number of articulating surfaces
simple, compound, and complex synovial joints
98
what is a complex diarthrosis
articulating surfaces are separated by an articular disc or meniscus
99
what are the classifications of ribs 1 and 2 in the typical adult skeleton
atypical ribs, true ribs, costa verae, and vertebrosternal ribs
100
what are the classifications of ribs 8 and 9 in the typical adult skeleton
typical ribs, false ribs, costa spuriae, and vertebrochondral ribs
101
what morphological classification of synovial joints would be classified as uniaxial
diarthrosis ginglymus and diarthrosis trochoid
102
what morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as biaxial
diarthrosis bicondylar, diarthrosis condylar, diarthrosis ellipsoidal and diarthrosis sellar
103
what are examples of diarthrosis arthrodia joints
most zygapophyses of the vertebral column intercarpal, carpometacarpal and intermetacarpal jts of the hand intercuneiform, tarsometatarsal and intermetatarsal jts of foot
104
what are examples of diarthrosis ginglymus joints
humero-ulnar joint of the elbow and interphalangeal joints of the fingers and toes
105
what are the examples of diarthrosis trochoid joints
median atlanto-axial joint and proximal radio-ulnar joint
106
what are examples of diarthrosis sellar joint
carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, talocrural joint of the ankle and the calcaneocuboid joint of the foot
107
what are the regions/ divisions of the internal carotid artery
cervical, petrous, cavernous and cerebral
108
what are the segmental arteries of the thoracic spine
the deep cervical artery, highest (superior) intercostal artery, posterior intercostal artery and subcostal artery
109
what vessels form the retromandibular vein
superficial temporal and internal maxillary vein
110
what is the purpose of lymphatic capillaries
remove excess plasma proteins from the interstitial space and prevent edema
111
what characteristics of lymph capillaries were stressed in the text
they begin as blind-ended sacs, have a greater lumenal diameter than blood capillaries, are more variable in lumenal diameter than blood capillaries and are more layered in plexus arrangements than blood capillaries
112
what are the names of the ducts of the lymphatic system
right lymphatic duct and thoracic duct
113
what parts of the body will the right lymphatic duct drain
the right side of the head, neck and thoracic parietal wall, as well as the right upper extremity, right lung and convex (diaphragmatic) surface of the liver
114
what is the location and structural origin for the thoracic duct
L2 from the cisterna chyli
115
what are examples of aggregate lymph nodules
the tonsils and Peyer's patches of the small intestine
116
what is the function of lymph nodules
perpetuation of the lymphocyte cell line and to aid in the immune response
117
what is the function of lymph nodes
they primarily filter lymph but also are involved in lymphocytopoiesis and they do participate in the immune response

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