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Quizlet Questions Flashcards

1
Q

T/F US Appearance for CAM is a cystic looking structure in the fetal chest

A

True

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2
Q

What is a defect in spine due to lack of fusion of two halves of the vertebral arch?

A

Spins bifida

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3
Q

Which form of spins bifida involves protrusion of only the meninges?

A

Meningocele

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4
Q

What is the most common location for meningocele and meningomyocele?

A

Lumbar sacral area

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5
Q

What is the most common location for cystic hygroma?

A

Posterior portion of the neck

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6
Q

What is a common type of hydrocephalus?

A

Arnold Chiari Malformation

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7
Q

Banana sign, lemon sign, dilation of lateral ventricles, batwing sign, partial absence of CSP, are all US appearance signs for?

A

Arnold Chiari Malformation

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8
Q

5% of Choroid Plexus Cysts are associated with which Trisomy?

A

Trisomy 18

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9
Q

Bilateral Cyst that may be transient and resolve by the end of the second trimester are called what?

A

Choroid plexus cysts

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10
Q

Failure of prosencephalon (forebrain) to divide into double lobes of cerebral hemispheres is a definition of what?

A

Holoprosencephaly

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11
Q

What are the 3 kinds of holoprosencephaly?

A

Alobar
Semilobar
Lobar

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12
Q

Caused by incomplete cleavage of prosencephalon, horseshoe shaped, and thalami are fused are all signs for?

A

Holoprosencephally

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13
Q

Nearly complete separation of the cerebral hemispheres is the US appearance for which form of holoprosencephaly?

A

Lobar

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14
Q

A single horseshoe shaped ventricle is the US sign for which type of holosencephaly?

A

Alobar

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15
Q

Which form of holoprosencephaly is associated with cleft palate and has the occipital love present?

A

Semilobar

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16
Q

What is thought to be caused by bilateral blockage of internal carotid arteries?

A

Hydranencephaly

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17
Q

What is something that anencephaly, cephalocele, diaphragmatic hernia,, fetal hydrops, fetal skeletal, dysplasias, thanatophoric dysplasia, neural tube defects, and genitourinary tract, anomalies all have in common?

A

They are associated with polyhydramnios

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18
Q

Absence of cerebral hemispheres and overlying skull and scalp is the definition of?

A

Anencephaly

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19
Q

At what week are we able to see anencephaly, and with which probe?

A

9-10, transvag

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20
Q

What is the most common congenital anomaly of the CNS, is more common in females than males, and is common in areas of the world where spina bifida is common?

A

Anencephaly

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21
Q

Cranial vault absence, intracranial contents absence, orbits and face present, bulging eyes, short neck, and polyhydramnios are the US appearances for?

A

Anencephaly

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22
Q

What has a poor prognosis and may be caused by intrathoracic masses, abdominal masses, oligohydramnios, and small thorax related to skeletal dysplasia?

A

Pulmonary hypoplasia

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23
Q

What may cause amputation of digits, occurs when amnion ruptures and wraps around the fetal structures, and may entangle or wrap around fetal structures?

A

Amniotic band syndrome

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24
Q

What has a 50%-80% chance of mortality due to pulmonary hypoplasia, may be associated with other congenital anomalies, and is caused by improperly fused or formed diaphragm?

A

Diaphragmatic hernia

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25
With which disease do bowel and abdominal organs herniate into the thoracic cavity?
Diaphragmatic hernia
26
What is a rare defect in the abdominal wall where the heart protrudes through the extrathoracic sac and is covered by skin or membrane?
ectopic cordis
27
What are three aka's for dandy walker malformation?
Dandy walker cyst, dandy walker syndrome, dandy walker variant
28
What is a congenital brain malformation that is characterized by formation of cerebellar vermis, dilation of the fourth ventricle, and enlargement of posterior fossa?
Dandy walker
29
What is thought to be the result of obstruction of foramina and Luschka and Magendie?
Dandy walker
30
Cystic enlargement of the fourth ventricle, dilated third ventricle, variable dilation of lateral ventricles, and cerebellar lobes split apart and are abnormal in shape are the US appearances for?
Dandy walker
31
At waht level of the brain should dandy walker be imaged?
at the cerebellum
32
What is an abnormal development of the cartilage and bones?
skeletal dysplasia
33
The bones may be _____, _____, _____, _____, with skeletal dysplasia?
Shortened Deformed Thinned Absent
34
T/F skeletal dysplasias are associated with oligohydramnios
False, they are associated with poly
35
Which short-limb skeletal dysplasia is defined to be shortening of proximal extremity?
rhizomelia
36
Which short-limb skeletal dysplasia is defined to be middle limb segment shortening
mesomelia
37
With rhizomelia, which extremities and shortened?
humerus, femur
38
With mesomelian which extremities are shortened?
radius, ulna, tibia, fibula
39
Which short-limb skeletal dysplasia is defined as distal extremity shortening?
acromelia
40
Which short-limb skeletal dysplasia is defined as shortening of the entire extremity?
micromelia
41
With acromelia, which extremities are shortened?
phalanges and metacarpals
42
Which skeletal dysplasia is the most common, lethal has severely flattened vertebral bodies, extreme rhizo and micromelia, bowed long bones, and narrow thorax with protruding abdomen?
Thanatophoric dysplasia
43
Macrocephaly with protruding forehead, horseshoe kidney and cloverleaf skull abnormalities associated with?
Thanatophoric dysplasia
44
What is the NL measurement for the placenta?
1.5 - 5cm
45
A thickened placenta may measure at what?
6cm
46
What is lack of adequate communication between duodenum and stomach?
duodenal atresia
47
Half of cases of duodenal atresia are associated with what 3 things?
VACTERL, Bowel malrotation, Trisomy 21
48
The double bubble sign is associated with?
Duodenal atresia
49
What occurs in male fetuses, results when thing leaflets obstruct fetal urethral and features an enlarged bladder, thickened bladder wall, oligohydramnios and dilated ureters?
PUV
50
The keyhole appearances is associated with?
PUV
51
What is the most common cause for fetal hydronephrosis?
UPJ
52
When the renal pelvis is dilated > 8mm, what can we expected to see?
hydronephrosis
53
What is an AKA for omphalocele?
exomphalos
54
What is herniation of abdominal contents into base of the umbilical cord located at the midline, covered by amnion/ peritoneal sac and can be associated with GI tract and cardiac anomalies 29-66% of the time?
omphalocele
55
What is less serious than omphalocele usually to the right of the midline and involves herniation of the viscera through a fissure of the midline?
gastroschisis
56
A hypoechoic ring around the abdominal wall that represents the muscles of the abdominal wall would be a sign of?
pseudoascites
57
What is a congenital defect of abdominal wall that develops over the bladder, may cause a lack of visualization of the bladder and an echogenic mass protruding from the abdominal wall in close association with abdominal arteries?
Bladder extrophy
58
What are two types of diaphragmatic hernias?
Morgagni and Bochdalek
59
Where is bochdalek hernia located?
Posterolateral to the left
60
Where is morgagni hernia located?
anterior to the diaphragm
61
A cysts within the brain would be?
Choroid plexus cyst
62
What is a bony defect in calvarium, with herniation of brain and/ or meninges that may occur in the occipital region, frontal, or parietal and associated with polyhydramnios?
cephalocele
63
What is an AKA for a cephalocele that includes brain matter?
encephalocele
64
T/F hydrocephalus is present with cephalocele?
True
65
Deficient abdominal musculature, cryptorchidism, and GU tract anomaly (PUV) are all part of what?
Prune belly triad
66
Distended fetal abdomen with wrinkled appearance would be the definition for?
Prune belly triad
67
What which disease would the thalami be fused?
holoprosencephaly
68
What two things could cause the fetal heart to displace to the right?
diaphragmatic hernia and situs inversus
69
What disease may not manifest until the end of the 2nd trimester?
skeletal dysplasia
70
WHat does the LS ratio determine?
Lung maturity
71
What is a small head whose AC measures greater than 3 standard deviations below normal that is caused by trisomies, uterine infections, and exposure to environmental teratogens and can be associated with mental retardation?
microcephaly
72
Inadequate RhoGAM dosage could be the cause for?
possible maternal sensitization
73
An adequate dose of RhoGram within 72 hours of delivery of RH+ baby would prevent?
maternal sensitization
74
At which week of pregnancy could RhoGAM be given?
28th
75
Which treatment must be replaced with each pregnancy, miscarriage, and abortion, amniocentesis, and chorionic villi sampling?
RhoGAM
76
Erythroblastosis Fetalis is aka?
RH disease
77
What is caused by an incompatibility between the blood of mother and fetus, and causes jaundice, anemia, brain damage, heart failure and death in the fetus?
Immune related hydrops
78
The most severe form of fetal hemolytic disease is called?
erythroblastosis fetalis
79
What is the most common tumor in the neonate that is made up from all 3 germ layers and is seen as a mass extending from the sacrum?
Sacrococcygeal teratoma
80
T/F a sacrococcygeal teratoma is always benign
False, it can be either benign or Malignant
81
T/F a sacrococcygeal teratoma is associated with the spine?
False
82
WHat does PUV stand for?
Posterior urethral valves
83
What do pulmonary hypoplasia, bilateral renal agenesis, PUV infantile polycystic kidney disease, and club foot all have in common?
They're all associated with oligohydramnios
84
Abnormalities of the fetal thorax is associated with?
Fetal hydrops
85
Pleural effusion can be associated wit?
fetal Hydrops
86
Fetal ascites may be associated with?
fetal hydrops
87
What is an excessive accumulation of clear, watery fluid in any of the tissues or cavities of the body; synonymous, according to its character and location, with ascites, anasarca, edema, etc?
fetal hydrops
88
what are the two types of fetal hydrops?
immune and non-immune
89
A thickened placenta, polyhydramnios, fetal skin, edema, pleural effusion, scalp, edema, etc are all US signs for?
Fetal hydrops
90
What is the most common cause for immune related hydrops?
RH disease (erythroblastosis fetalis)
91
Which form of hydrops can be caused by over 40 conditions?
non-immune
92
What is an AKA for hydrocephalus?
Ventriculomegaly
93
Abnormal increase in fluid in cerebral ventricles is the definition for?
hydrocephalus
94
Aqueductal stenosis, communicating hydrocephalus, and over production of CSF are classification for?
hydrocephalus
95
Turtle sign is the sign for?
male fetus
96
Failure of lip fusion prior to 35 days from conception is defined to be what?
facial clefts
97
What is an inherited disorder production or secretion of collagen, that is associated with bones that can be fractured or deformed easily, and possible stillbirth due to cranial fracture?
Osteogenesis imperfecta
98
Which form of osteogenesis imperfecta is the most lethal?
type 2
99
What form of osteogenesis imperfecta is the mildest form/
type 4
100
Which limb abnormality would someone have if they have more than 5 fingers or toes?
polydactyl
101
Polydactyl is associated with which trisomies?
13, 18, and 21
102
What does VACTERL stand for?
``` vertebral anal cardiac tracheoesophageal renal limb ```
103
Who is VACTERL common in?
diabetic mothers
104
Over 20 cm range for AFI would be considered what?
Polyhydramnios
105
Less than 5cm for an AFI range would be considered what?
Oligohydramnios
106
Thalami, and CSP are landmarks for?
BPD
107
THe fetal stomach, 3 ossifications of the spine and the portal vein are the 3 landmarks for what?
AC
108
What is a rare, lethal autosomal recessive or sporadic rare disease in which shortening and bowing of long bones of legs, narrow chest, large calcarium with small face and hypoplastic scapula are involved?
campomelic dysplasia
109
Champagne cork appearance is associated with?
Thanatophoric dysplasia

Ultrasound OBGYN 3 (3 decks)

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