Quizzes Flashcards by M E

Which of the following statements about drug interactions is true?

a. They always result in harmful effects

b. They may lead to either toxicity or lack of efficacy

c. They are primarily concerned with food interactions

d. They only occur with over-the-counter medications

b. They may lead to either toxicity or lack of efficacy

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Which route of administration typically leads to the fastest drug action?

a. Intravenous

b. Rectal

c. Oral

d. Topical

a. Intravenous

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Which drug schedule requires a new prescription for each refill?

a. Schedule V

b. Schedule III

c. Schedule II

d. Schedule IV

c. Schedule II

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What term describes the maximum effect a drug can achieve, regardless of the dose?

a. Bioavailability

b. Potency

c. Efficacy

d. Toxicity

c. Efficacy

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What is the significance of pharmacokinetics in drug therapy?

a. It studies how a drug enters, circulates, metabolizes, and is excreted by the body

b. It focuses on the drug’s chemical structure

c. It determines the drug’s cost-effectiveness

d. It examines the social implications of drug use

a. It studies how a drug enters, circulates, metabolizes, and is excreted by the body

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Which type of drug reaction is an exaggerated response to a drug’s normal effect?

a. Drug allergy

b. Side effect

c. Toxic reaction

d. Idiosyncratic reaction

c. Toxic reaction

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What phase of clinical studies involves administering the drug to a large population with the condition the drug is designed to treat?

a. Phase 4

b. Phase 2

c. Phase 3

d. Phase 1

c. Phase 3

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What is the primary role of the FDA in relation to drugs marketed in the U.S.?

a. Sets drug prices in pharmacies

b. Conducts clinical trials on drugs

c. Manufactures drugs

d. Grants approval for drugs marketed in the U.S.

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What does a black box warning indicate about a drug?

a. It highlights serious safety concerns associated with the drug

b. It indicates the drug is ineffective

c. It suggests the drug is only available with a prescription

d. It categorizes the drug as low risk

a. It highlights serious safety concerns associated with the drug

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Write a prescription for 500mg of Amoxicillin to be take three times a day for seven days

Amoxicillin 500mg

Sig: Take 1 tab PO tid x 7 days

Disp: 21

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A drug’s half-life is important for determining what aspect of pharmacotherapy?

a. The maximum dose for effective treatment

b. How long it takes for the drug concentration to decrease by half

c. The time it takes to achieve peak effects

d. The frequency of dosing required

b. How long it takes for the drug concentration to decrease by half

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Motrin is an example of a

a. Generic Name

b. Trade Name

c. Brand Name

b. Trade Name

c. Brand Name

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Hydrocodone/APAP 5/325mg
Sig: Take 1 tab po q6h prn
Disp: 12

What is the maximum prescribed dose of Hydrocodone per day?

a. 20mg

b. 1300mg

c. 330mg

d. 1320mg

a. 20mg

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Hydrocodone/APAP 5/325mg
Sig: Take 1 tab po q6h prn
Disp: 12

What is the route of administration?

a. Parenteral

b. None of the above

c. Enteral

d. All of the above

c. Enteral

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Hydrocodone/APAP 5/325mg
Sig: Take 1 tab po q6h prn
Disp: 12

This drug should be taken every 6 hours for 12 total doses. This drug has been prescribed to manage pain.

a. Both statements are true

b. Only the first statement is true

c. Only the second statement is true

d. Both statements are false

c. Only the second statement is true

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Which adrenergic receptor type primarily causes vasoconstriction?

a. Alpha (α) receptors

b. Beta (β) receptors

c. Nicotinic receptors

d. Muscarinic receptors

a. Alpha (α) receptors

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The vagus nerve is involved in the parasympathetic nervous system.

a. True

b. False

a. True

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Which class of medication blocks the effects of acetylcholine at parasympathetic nerve endings?

a. Adrenergic agonists

b. Sedative-hypnotics

c. Anticholinergic agents

d. Cholinergic agents

c. Anticholinergic agents

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Cholinergic drugs generally promote rest and digest responses.

a. True

b. False

a. True

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NSAIDs are used to reduce inflammation and relieve pain.

a. True

b. False

a. True

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What is the effect of adrenergic β2 receptors primarily involved in?

a. Bronchodilation

b. Salivation

c. Heart rate increase

d. Vasoconstriction

a. Bronchodilation

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What is the primary action of cholinergic agents at the neuromuscular junction?

a. Inhibit nerve impulse transmission

b. Stimulate acetylcholine receptors

c. Increase norepinephrine release

d. Block acetylcholine receptors

b. Stimulate acetylcholine receptors

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In which condition is pilocarpine particularly beneficial?

a. Hypertension

b. Xerostomia

c. Parkinson’s disease

d. Asthma

b. Xerostomia

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Which cranial nerve is associated with lacrimation in the parasympathetic nervous system?

a. Vagus nerve (X)

b. Oculomotor nerve (III)

c. Facial nerve (VII)

d. Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)

c. Facial nerve (VII)

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Which of the following is a common adverse effect of anticholinergic agents? a. Bradycardia b. Xerostomia (dry mouth) c. Increased salivation d. Hypotension

b. Xerostomia (dry mouth)

What is the therapeutic effect of using salbutamol (an adrenergic agent)? a. Hypotension b. Cough suppression Bronchodilation c. Increased saliva production

c. Increased saliva production

Which type of adrenergic receptor is primarily responsible for stimulating cardiac output? a. Beta-2 (β2) receptors b. Nicotinic receptors c. Beta-1 (β1) receptors d. Alpha-2 (α2) receptors

c. Beta-1 (β1) receptors

What is a significant adverse effect of the drug class known as NSAIDs? a. Euphoria b. Respiratory depression c. Bradycardia d. Gastrointestinal bleeding

d. Gastrointestinal bleeding

Which type of cyclooxygenase (COX) is primarily responsible for the production of inflammatory mediators? a. COX-3 b. Lipoxygenase c. COX-1 d. COX-2

d. COX-2

Which neurotransmitter is primarily released at postganglionic sympathetic nerve endings? a. Norepinephrine (NE) b. Acetylcholine c. Dopamine d. Serotonin

a. Norepinephrine (NE)

What does mydriasis refer to in pharmacology? a. Pupil constriction b. Pupil dilation c. Increased heart rate d. Dry mouth

b. Pupil dilation

Which of the following types of agents is used to reverse opioid overdoses? a. Benzodiazepines b. NSAIDs c. Opioid antagonists (e.g., Naloxone) d. Opioid agonists

c. Opioid antagonists (e.g., Naloxone)

Which part of the autonomic nervous system is responsible for the 'fight-or-flight' response? a. Parasympathetic Autonomic Nervous System (PANS) b. Sympathetic Autonomic Nervous System (SANS) c. Cranial Nerves d. Adrenal Medulla

b. Sympathetic Autonomic Nervous System (SANS)

Bradycardia refers to an increased heart rate. a. True b. False

b. False

What is a common side effect of using opioids? a. Increased energy b. Diarrhea c. Weight loss d. Constipation

d. Constipation

Clavulanic acid serves what purpose in antibiotic therapy? a. It enhances protein synthesis b. It initiates bacterial DNA replication c. It inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes. d. It blocks folic acid synthesis

c. It inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes.

Which antibiotic is particularly associated with the risk of Clostridium difficile infection? a. Erythromycin b. Amoxicillin c. Clindamycin d. Vancomycin

c. Clindamycin

What is the main reason for the increasing difficulty in developing new antibiotics? a. Low profitability b. High research costs c. Lack of public health focus d. Antibiotic resistance

d. Antibiotic resistance

Which of the following antibiotics is effective against C. difficile infections? a. Vancomycin b. Penicillin c. Amoxicillin d. Clindamycin

a. Vancomycin

What is the primary mechanism of action for penicillin? a. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis b. Inhibition of protein synthesis c. DNA disruption d. Folic acid synthesis inhibition

a. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

Which antibiotic is considered a last-resort treatment for infections caused by MRSA? a. Metronidazole b. Clindamycin c. Vancomycin d. Amoxicillin

c. Vancomycin

Which of the following is a common cause of localized dental infections? a. Periodontal disease b. Dermatitis c. Viral infections d. Fungal infections

a. Periodontal disease

Which class of antifungal agents is primarily used to treat oropharyngeal candidiasis? a. Penicillins b. Aminoglycosides c. Fluoroquinolones d. Imidazoles

d. Imidazoles

What is the primary action of nystatin in treating fungal infections? a. It enhances the immune response against fungi. b. It binds to sterols in the fungal cell membrane. c. It disrupts the DNA replication in fungi. d. It inhibits bacterial protein synthesis.

b. It binds to sterols in the fungal cell membrane.

Which antianxiety medication is typically prescribed for short-term management of anxiety? a. Suvorexant b. Benzodiazepines c. Buspirone d. Zaleplon

b. Benzodiazepines

What is the primary action of benzodiazepines in the central nervous system? a. They inhibit the action of GABA. b. They stimulate the release of serotonin. c. They block dopamine receptors. d. They enhance the action of GABA, an inhibitory neurotransmitter.

d. They enhance the action of GABA, an inhibitory neurotransmitter.

Which drug is a well-known melatonin receptor agonist used to treat insomnia? a. Diazepam (Valium) b. Ramelteon (Rozerem) c. Zolpidem (Ambien) d. Buspirone (BuSpar)

b. Ramelteon (Rozerem)

Which benzodiazepine is commonly used for its muscle relaxant properties? a. Fluoxetine (Prozac) b. Ramelteon (Rozerem) c. Diazepam (Valium) d. Buspirone (BuSpar)

c. Diazepam (Valium)

What are the two main subunits of the bacterial ribosome? a. 20S and 80S b. 40S and 60S c. 50S and 90S d. 30S and 50S

d. 30S and 50S

What is the primary role of the bacterial ribosome? a. Cell wall formation b. DNA replication c. Protein synthesis d. Energy production

c. Protein synthesis

Bactericidal agents kill bacteria, while bacteriostatic agents merely inhibit their growth. a. True b. False

a. True

The risk of antibiotic resistance is heightened by the overuse and misuse of existing antibiotics. a. True b. False

a. True

Benzodiazepines can lead to tolerance and physical dependence with prolonged use. a. True b. False

a. True

Metronidazole is primarily used to treat aerobic bacterial infections. a. True b. False

b. False

All antibiotics are equally effective against various bacterial strains. a. True b. False

b. False

Articaine is primarily metabolized in which part of the body? a. Blood b. Liver c. Lungs d. Kidneys

a. Blood

Which vasoconstrictor is commonly added to local anesthetic solutions? a. Dopamine b. Histamine c. Epinephrine d. Norepinephrine

c. Epinephrine

Which of the following is NOT a property of an ideal local anesthetic? a. High cost b. Rapid onset c. Absence of allergic reactions d. Satisfactory duration

a. High cost

What is the mechanism of action common to most local anesthetics? a. Enhancing calcium influx b. Blocking sodium channels c. Stimulating nerve regeneration d. Inhibiting neurotransmitter release

b. Blocking sodium channels

What effect does a vasoconstrictor have when used with local anesthetics? a. Decreases anesthesia quality b. Increases onset speed c. Decreases local toxicity d. Increases duration of action

d. Increases duration of action

Which of the following local anesthetics was introduced first? a. Lidocaine b. Procaine c. Articaine d. Cocaine

d. Cocaine

Which local anesthetic is known for its long duration of action? a. Mepivacaine b. Articaine c. Procaine d. Bupivacaine

d. Bupivacaine

What are the potential effects of local anesthetics on the cardiovascular system? a. Increased heart rate only b. Reduced respiratory rate c. Arrhythmias and blood pressure changes d. Dilation of blood vessels only

c. Arrhythmias and blood pressure changes

Which local anesthetic is known for having a rapid onset and a medium duration of action? a. Lidocaine 2% with epinephrine b. Articaine 4% c. Bupivacaine 0.5% d. Procaine 2%

a. Lidocaine 2% with epinephrine

Which of the following anesthetics is the least soluble in blood? a. Procaine b. Lidocaine c. Nitrous oxide d. Bupivacaine

c. Nitrous oxide

Which local anesthetic is commonly known for causing allergic reactions? a. Mepivacaine b. Lidocaine c. Bupivacaine d. Procaine

d. Procaine

What major benefit did procaine (Novocain) provide compared to cocaine? a. Higher risk of allergic reactions. b. More potent analgesia. c. Longer duration of action. d. Fewer side effects and lower potential for addiction.

d. Fewer side effects and lower potential for addiction.

What is an important consideration when choosing a local anesthetic for a procedure? a. Cost of the anesthetic b. Duration of desired anesthesia c. Patient's age only d. Amount of drug absorbed

b. Duration of desired anesthesia

What is the primary mechanism of action of cocaine as a local anesthetic? a. It enhances dopamine secretion. b. It increases blood flow to the area. c. It stimulates alpha-adrenergic receptors. d. It blocks sodium channels in nerve cells.

d. It blocks sodium channels in nerve cells.

Local anesthetics can cross the blood-brain barrier. a. True b. False

a. True

High lipid solubility generally increases the potency of local anesthetics. a. True b. False

a. True

Conscious sedation can be achieved using less than anesthetic doses of certain drugs. a. True b. False

a. True

The primary action of general anesthetics is to stimulate the central nervous system. a. True b. False

b. False

Stage IV of general anesthesia can lead to death if not reversed immediately. a. True b. False

a. True

Stage II of general anesthesia is characterized by involuntary movement and excitement. a. True b. False

a. True

The primary action of general anesthetics is to stimulate the central nervous system. a. True b. False

b. False

What regulatory body manages the Controlled Substances Act? a. Federal Trade Commission (FTC) b. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) c. Centers for Disease Control (CDC) d. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)

d. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)

Metronidazole is primarily used to treat aerobic bacterial infections. a. True b. False

b. False

Cholinergic drugs generally promote rest and digest responses. a. True b. False

a. True

Benzodiazepines work by inhibiting the release of GABA in the central nervous system. a. True b. False

b. False

Which class of antifungal agents is primarily used to treat oropharyngeal candidiasis? a. Fluoroquinolones b. Imidazoles c. Aminoglycosides d. Penicillins

b. Imidazoles

What is the primary action of benzodiazepines in the central nervous system? a. They stimulate the release of serotonin. b. They block dopamine receptors. c. They enhance the action of GABA d. They inhibit the action of GABA.

c. They enhance the action of GABA

Which class of medication blocks the effects of acetylcholine at parasympathetic nerve endings? a. Adrenergic agonists b. Sedative-hypnotics c. Anticholinergic agents d. Cholinergic agents

c. Anticholinergic agents

Clavulanic acid serves what purpose in antibiotic therapy? a. It blocks folic acid synthesis b. It enhances protein synthesis c. It initiates bacterial DNA replication d. It inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes

d. It inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes

What characteristic of a drug generally correlates with its ability to cross the blood-brain barrier? a. Electrical charge b. Lipid solubility c. Molecular weight d. Protein binding

b. Lipid solubility

Which neurotransmitter is primarily released at postganglionic sympathetic nerve endings? a. Norepinephrine (NE) b. Acetylcholine c. Dopamine d. Serotonin

a. Norepinephrine (NE)

The action of a drug only depends on its dosage and not on the individual patient's response. a. True b. False

b. False

What is the primary mechanism of action for penicillin? a. DNA disruption b. Inhibition of protein synthesis c. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis d. Folic acid synthesis inhibition

c. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

What is the primary route of elimination for most drugs after intravenous administration? a. Lung excretion b. Sweat excretion c. Renal excretion d. Bile excretion

c. Renal excretion

What is a key part of a prescription that indicates the patient's instruction? a. Disp: b. Rx: c. DEA number: d. Sig:

d. Sig:

Which local anesthetic is known for its long duration of action? a. Procaine b. Bupivacaine c. Mepivacaine d. Articaine

b. Bupivacaine

Which drug is known for causing mydriasis, or pupil dilation? a. Opioids b. Beta-adrenergic agonists c. Anticholinergic agents d. Cholinergic agents

c. Anticholinergic agents

Quizzes Flashcards

(93 cards)