Radio Minimals Flashcards by toki pham

Distal radial Colles fracture

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Humeral surgical neck fracture

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medial( proximal) femoral neck fracture

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gonarthrosis

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bimalleolar fracture

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dilatation of the left ureter and renal pelvis

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urinary bladder rupture

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pneumoperitoneum

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nephrolithiasis( radiopaque right kidney stones)

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renal stone with acoustic shadowing

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hepatic cyst -ultrasound image

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multiple liver metastasis

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multiple liver metastasis - post-contrast CT

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gallbladder stone

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acute calculous cholecystitis

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pancreatic tail pseudocyst

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sigmoid cancer

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sigmoid diverticulosis

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hiatal hernia

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esophageal diverticulum

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aortic abdominal aneurysm

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aortic abdominal dissection

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breast neoplasm

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anterolisthesis L.IV.-V.

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spondylosis

syringomyelia

disc herniation L.IV.-V. -MRI

acute subdural hematoma

pulmonary embolism

hydrocephalus

osteoplastic vertebral metastasis

small bowel ileus

cerebral hemorrhagic contusion

acute osteomyelitis

ptx on left side

pleural effusion on right side

lung collapse on right side

pneumonia on right side

peripheral lung cancer on right side and aortic dissection

multiplex pulmonary metastasis

bilateral hilar lymphadenomegaly

lung abscess

epidural hematoma

subarachnoid hemorrhage

subacute cerebral infarction

multiple sclerosis

multiple cerebral metastasis

posterior cranial fossa tumor

osteolytic metastasis in left iliac bone

osteoporosis and vertebral compression fractures

unlike tumours, there is no perifocal oedema

Wegener-granulomatosis

parotid

L.I-II

osteoid osteoma

gastrointestinal malignancies

round atelectasis

DIP joints

Bosniak

less aerated lungs

subclavian steal syndrome

oligodendroglioma

quick rise, quick wash-out

esophagus, gastric x-ray

right ventricle

hiatus hernia

kidney

Alzheimer’s disease

4 hours

2 days

right lung: 3-2-5, left lung: 5-5

High Resolution Computer Tomography

PA or AP chest x-ray

HRCT

CT exam

chest MR

abdominal US

abdominal color-Doppler

supine position, first with arms held close to the body, and then with arms raised

1, 2, 3, 4

soft tissue

on the left side

cerebral atrophy

right lower

certain bone lesions such as chronic pressure increase caused enlarged sella or suturolysis, cancer caused usuration, destruction in the bone, to assess pathologic calcifications

foot

1895

bronchogenic cyst

pancreatitis

fracture

epistaxis

breast implant

left atrium

2,4

pneumonia

Hounsfield

bilateral pleural effusion

erosion

it is always present in only one of the breasts

it cannot cause lymphangitis

it often leads to ptx

increased lung (vascular) markings

apico-basal caliber discrepancy

wide joint space

with CT it is homogenious, and it shows mild enhancement

it is spiculated

their hila are oriented ventral

parenchymal hemorrhage

epistaxis

thymus

it is useful in the detection of emphysema

left upper

arteriosclerosis

temporal

anorectal atresia

TBC

glioblastoma multiforme

hippocampus

in all ages to assess certain types of brain tumors

MRI

metal

it can be carried out right after a breast operation, while x-ray mammography cannot because that is painful

nephropathy and lactate acidosis

hypodens

we detect the time course of contrast enhancement

elevated diaphragm

a stripe of gas in degenerated intervertebral discs

to diagnose microcalcifications

narrow external liquor space

colon between the liver and the right dome of the diaphragm

it is a type of atelectasis that may be associated with peritonitis

to decide whether a central lung tumor is operable or not

they are not using ionizing radiation

the pseudojoints that form between the spinous processes

hypertrophied renal cortex

1000

-100

20-70

in a supine position, the head is lower than the rest of the body

we perform an US or MR exam instead

lung cancer

calcifications in the HS joint capsule and in the ligaments of the muscles

non-ossifying fibroma

pericardial cyst

popcorn calcification

lead pipe sign

PCI

lead pipe sign

MRI

cardio-MRI

lead pipe sign

It often spreads across white matter commissural tracts.

Hampton’s line

liver cyst

vena cava superior

No further imaging is necessary.

Select one: a. The approximate age of this fetus is 18 week. b. A right ovary appears separate from the gestational sac. c. The gestational sac is present, and it is within the uterus. d. Color Dopler analysis demontrates no significant abnormality in the right adnexa. e. While a gestational sac is present, there is no embryo or yolk sac identified.

A right ovary appears separate from the gestational sac.

Select one: a. The axial CT image shows an additional osseous abnormality. b. There is no damage to the cervical spinal cord. c. This injury is considered stable. d. There is high incidence of tetraplegia associated with these injuries. e. There is no soft tissue injury.

There is high incidence of tetraplegia associated with these injuries.

A 23-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe colicky right flank pain, which radiates to the groin. He is afebrile, and his vital signs are stable. A urinalysis reveals hematuria. A CT of the abdomen and pelvis is obtinated. Which of the following statements is true? Select one: a. The cause of pain is most likely musculoskeletal in origin. b. This disease process is more common is women. c. There is obstructive uropathy on the right. d. Radiographs are considered sufficient to make this diagnosis. e. Inravenosus (IV) contrast should have been administered.

There is obstructive uropathy on the right.

A 23-year-old man presents to the emergency department with symptoms of malaise, dry cough, and dyspnea for several weeks. Physical examination reveals tachypnea, tachycardia, and fever, with crackles on auscultation. On further questioning , the patient admits to IV drug abuse. The chest x-ray findings (1. figure) prompt the clinician to order a chest CT study, from which is a representative section in the coronal plane is shown in the 2. figure. What is the likely diagnosis? Select one: a. Miliary tuberculosis (TB) b. Pulmonary edema c. Pneumococcal pneumonia d. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) pneumonia e. Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP)

Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP)

A 23-year-old man presents to the emergency department with fever, nausea, and vomiting and is found to have diffuse abdominal tenderness and a leukocytosis. A CT of the abdomen is performed. Which of the statements regarding the CT findings is correct? Select one: a. There is strong evidence of appendiceal perforation. b. There is an appendicolith. c. This appendix is likely to be compressible on ultrasound. d. The appendix is abnormally dilated, and its wall is abnormally enhancing. e. The pericecal fat is normal in density.

The appendix is abnormally dilated, and its wall is abnormally enhancing.

A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a history of elbow to the head during a basketball game. He lost consciousness for a few minutes.Upon regainig consciousness, he was alert and oriented, complaining of headache. By the time he arrived via ambulance , he coplained of sever headache and was vomiting. A CT scan of the head was ordered and demonstrated the above findings. There is a hyperdense, biconvex collection in the left parietal region with a subtle, nondisplaced fracture of the left parietel bone. The appearance above is most consistent with:

An acute epidural hematoma.

A 25-year-old woman is involved in a low-speed MVA and is taken to the emergency department. She is found to be stable, but is complaining of diffuse abdominal pain, and therefore a CT of the abdomen is obtained. Which of the following statements regarding the image provided is true? Select one: a. This abnormality has developed acutely. b. There is active hemorrhage in the pelvis. c. If left untreated, the salient abnormality can result in severe complications. d. There is no malignant potential of the identified abnormality. e. This abnormality is found only in the pelvis.

If left untreated, the salient abnormality can result in severe complications.

A 32-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with pain in her left elbow after falling while roller-blading 2 days ago and bracing her fall with her outstretched left arm. On physical exam, there is swelling and diffuse tenderness involving the left elbow. Radiographs are obtained. Which of the following statements is true? Select one: a. A supracondylar fracture is highly likely. b. There is no joint effusion. c. The anterior fat pad is elevated. d. The posterior fat pad is not displaced. e. There is no fracture.

The anterior fat pad is elevated.

A 33-year-old healthy man is in the operting room being prepared for inguinal hernia repair. Intubation is unexpectedly difficult, and after a traumatic intubation, the patient is noted to be hypoxic. A stat portable chest x-ray is obtained. What is the diagnosis? Select one: a. Right pneumothorax. b. Hyperaeration. c. Bilateral pneumothorax. d. Right tension pneumothorax. e. Left pneumothorax.

Bilateral pneumothorax.

A 33-year-old woman presents to the emegrency department with altered mental status and severe headache folloeing a minor motor vehicle accident (MVA) in which she was the driver. The patient has no memory of the incident. The CT scan is above.The most likely explanation of the above finding is: Select one: a. Incidental calcification within the subarachnoid space. b. Posttraumatic subarachnoid hemorrhage. c. Posttraumatic subdural hemorrhage. d. Subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) secondary to rupture of an aneurysm.

Subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) secondary to rupture of an aneurysm.

A 35-year-old Hispanic man presented to the emergency department with a history of worsening headache. While in the emergency department, the patient suffered a witnessed simple partial seizure. A CT scan of the head was obtained. What is the most likely etiology for the above CT findings? Select one: a. Toxic b. Metabolic c. Infectious d. Inflammatory e. Congenital

Infectious

A 38-year-old woman presents to her physician's office with a complaint of acute onset of blurry vision and pain in her left eye. Her medical history is otherwise unremarkable. The MRI demonstrated enhancement of the left intraorbital segment of the optic nerve on coronal postcontrast T1 imaging corresponding to optic nerve edema demonstarted on the coronal T2 imaging. Axial fluid attenuated inversion recovery (FLAIR) imaging of the brain demonstrated multiple hyperintense lesions predomintly preventricular in location. Her blurry vision is most likely related to: Select one: a. Orbital cellulitis b. Optic neuritis c. Ischemic optic neuropathy d. Orbital pseudotumor

Optic neuritis

Select one: a. Pericardial cyst b. Diaphragmatic hernia c. Teratoma d. Thymoma e. Lymphoma

Thymoma

Select one: a. Endotracheal tube (ET) tube adjustment b. Administration of IV furosemide c. NG tube placement d. A left lateral decubitus chest x-ray e. Chest tube placement

Endotracheal tube (ET) tube adjustment

Select one: a. Facial nerve schwannoma b. Acute erosive otomastoiditis c. Vestibular schwannoma d. Bell palsy (facial neuritis)

Bell palsy (facial neuritis)

A 48-year-old man presented to his primary care physician with a 6-month history of gradually increased awareness of sudden random muscular jerking. His wife reports that his thinking seems to be more clouded and there are personality changes. The MRI demonstrated symmetric signal abnormality within the cerebral cortex, caudate heads, and putamen on the T21 and diffusion-weighted images. The most likely diagnosis is Select one: a. Multiple sclerosis b. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) c. Encephalitis d. Multi-infarct dementia

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)

A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with abdominal bloating, nausea, vomiting, and no bowel movement in 4 days. Past surgical history is significant for appendectomy as a young adult. On physical exam, the abdomen is distended, and there is a paucity of bowel sounds, but there is no rebound tenderness. The patient's vital signs are stable and laboratory tests are normal. Whikle waiting for a surgical consult, abdominal radiograps are performed. Which of the following statements is correct? Select one: a. There is a small bowel obstruction. b. There is a large bowel obstruction. c. There are signs of vascular compromise. d. CT of the abdomen is unnecessary. e. Tumor is the most likely etiology.

There is a small bowel obstruction.

A 50-year-old man with no pas medical history presents to the emergency department with new yellowing of his skin and eye. He denies any abdominal pain. Aside from elevated bilirubin, his serum chemistries are normal. Based on the images from contrast-enhanced CT of the abdomen above, what is the diagnosis? Select one: a. Sclerosing cholangitis b. Portal vein thrombosis c. Adenocarcinoma of the pancreatic head d. Cholangiocarcinoma e. Obstructive choledocholithiasis

Obstructive choledocholithiasis

A 50-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain that has worsened over the course of about a week. She is also dyspneic. Her past medical history is significant for injuries sustained in an MVA 1 year ago. Pertinent physical exam findings include decreased breath sounds in the right lung base, and abdominal guarding and rebound tenderness. She is tachycardic with a borderline low blood pressure. Her serum lactate is elevated. Which of the following statements is true regarding the findings on the select images provided from CT of the abdomen? Select one: a. The patient has a good prognosis with surgical management. b. The visualized bowel is normal. c. Findings are most consistent with complicated pneumonia in the right lung base. d. This acute process is likely the sequela of remote trauma. e. The right hemidiaphragm is intact.

This acute process is likely the sequela of remote trauma.

A 50-year-old woman visits her primary care physician complaining of the gradually increasing shortness of breath. She has a history of mild asthma and has smoked one pack of cigarettes a day for 10 years. On physical examination, she has facial swelling, distended neck veins, and prominent superficial veins on her chest wall. A chest x-ray is obtained for further evaluation. What is the most likely diagnosis? Select one: a. Pulmonary embolism b. TB c. Lung cancer d. Lymphoma e. Astma exacerbation

Lung cancer

A 53-year-old man presents to the emergency department with chest pain and shortness of breath. The ECG shows elevated ST segments. A chest x-ray is obtained which shows diffuse coarsening of the interstitial markings, with Kerley A lines (straight yellow arrow), Kerley B lines (red arrows), and small bilateral pleural effusions (curved yellow arrows). What is the significance of the Kerley A and B lines on the chest x-ray? Select one: a. The patient is developing acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). b. The patient has Mycoplasma pneumonia. c. The patient has metastatic lung cancer. d. The patient has pulmonary interstitial edema. e. The patient has asbestosis.

The patient has pulmonary interstitial edema.

A 55-year-old woman with no significant past medical histrory presents to the emergency department with severe, intermittent, diffuse, abdominal pain, worsering over the course of a few days. Physical examination is pertinent for abdominal tenderness in the left lower quadrant. There is no blood per rectum. Vital signs are stable, and laboratory values are normal. A CT of the abdomen is obtained. Based on the images provided, which of the following statement is true? Select one: a. There is a small bowel obstruction. b. The emergency department physician should immediately consult the urology service. c. A predisposing condition responsible for an acute process is identified. d. The salient abnormality is within the right lower quadrant. e. Nonsurgical management is preferred.

A predisposing condition responsible for an acute process is identified.

A 55-year-old woman with a history of breast cancer is found to have an elevated alkaline phosphatase on recent blood work and is sent for a bone scan. Based on the findings of the bone scan, radiographs are obtained. Based on the images provided, which of the following statements is true? Select one: a. There is a solitary suspicious finding on the bone scan. b. The radiographs are most compatible with an old healed fracture. c. The findings on the bone scan and radiographs are disconcordant. d. There is abnormal activity in the pelvis on the bone scan. e. Bone scan are a sensitive modality for breast carcinoma metastases.

Bone scan are a sensitive modality for breast carcinoma metastases

A 58-year-old construction worker undergoing routine physical examination for life insurance evaluation is found to have decreased breath sounds at the left lung base, and a chest x-ray is oredered for further evaluation. Based on the x-ray interpretation, which of the following diagnoses must be considered? Select one: a. TB b. All of the above c. Mesothelioma d. Metastatic lung cancer

All of the above

Select one: a. Medical management (i.e., lower blood pressure) b. Watchful waiting c. Endovascular graft placement d. Aortic valve replacement e. Aortic bypass

Medical management (i.e., lower blood pressure)

A 60-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician complaints of intermittent mild bone pain, especially in the back. She has lost weight since her last visit.She is found to be mildly anemic and to have mild renal insufficiency on laboratory tests. Further testing of the patient's urine reveals the presence of Bence Jones proteins. She is sent for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the spine. She informs the MRI technologist that she long ago had a piece of metal stuck her eye after a car accident. A lateral radiograph of the skull is performed to evaluate for metallic foreign body in the orbits prior the MRI. Which of the following statements is true?? Select one: a. Findings on the radiograph suggest a process involving overactive osteoblasts and suppressed osteoclasts. b. There is intraorbital metal, an absolute contraindication to an MRI. c. If this disease involves the lumbar spine, MRI to be performed is not sensitive in identifying lesions. d. The patient likely has elevated serum calcium. e. The patient's prognosis is favorable.

The patient likely has elevated serum calcium.

A 60-year-old women presents to her primary care physician with weight loss and iron deficiency anemia. Fecal occult blood tests are positive. A double-contrast barium enema is performed for further evaluation. Which of the following statements is true regarding this disease? Select one: a. The treatment requirest surgical resection, possibly with adjuvant chemotherapy. b. Common risk factors include a hight-fiber, low-fat, and animal protein diet, inflammatory bowel disease, and positive family history. c. This condition does not usually present with obstruction. d. These lesions are not associated with bening polyps. e. This location is the most common site for this entity.

The treatment requirest surgical resection, possibly with adjuvant chemotherapy.

A 63-year-old healthy man with no smoking history has a lung nodule incidentally discovered on a preoperative chest x-ray for knee arthroscopy. Chest CT confirms a 9-mm solitary nodule (arrow) in the right middle lobe with no other abnormalities. What is the next appropiate step? Select one: a. CT guided lung biopsy b. Purified protein derivate (PPD) placement c. Follow up CT scan in 1 year d. PET scanning e. No further evaluation is needed

No further evaluation is needed

A 63-year-old man presents with a history of acute onset of the left hemiparesis and dysarthria 12 hours before his arrival to the emergency department. A CT scan was ordered. The best next step in his management is: Select one: a. Oral administration of 325 mg aspirin. b. Emergent CT perfusion study to assess for the amount of tissue at risk. c. Emergent angiographic intervention with thrombectomy. d. Emergent administration of intraarterial recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (rtPA).

Oral administration of 325 mg aspirin.

A 64-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician after tripping in her driveway and is complaining of left wrist pain and swelling. She is reffered to the local imaging center for radiographs of the wrist, and returns to her doctor with one radiograph from the study. Which of the following statements is true? Select one: a. Most of these injuries require surgery. b. An underlying advanced inflammatory arthropathy predisposed zhe patient to this injury. c. This is not expected location of injury, given the patient's age. d. No other padiographic views are necessary in this case. e. When the patient fell, she likely landed on the palm of her dorsiflexed hand

When the patient fell, she likely landed on the palm of her dorsiflexed hand.

A 69-years old woman with a history of poorly controlled hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus presented with a history of left-sided weakness and sensory deficit predominantly involving the lower limb, with hypobulia. The CT (computer tomography) scan is above. The most likely cause of the above finding is: Select one: a. Ischemic infarction secondary to hypoperfusion b. atherosclerotic occlusion of the right anterior cerebral artery (ACA) c. hypertensive intracranial hemorrhage d. atherosclerotic occlusion of the right middle cerebral artery (MCA)

atherosclerotic occlusion of the right anterior cerebral artery (ACA)

A 70-year-old women suffers a fall at home and is brought to the emergency department by a neighbor. She is unable to walk and complains of pain in her left hip. Radiographs are obtained while she is in the waiting room. Which of the following statements is true? Select one: a. This injury does not require surgery. b. This injury is often related to overuse. c. There is a pathologic fracture. d. There is an increased risk of avascular necrosis secondary to this injury. e. This injury is the last common at this anatomis location.

There is an increased risk of avascular necrosis secondary to this injury.

A 77-year-old man has a normal preoperative chest x-ray (top A and B images) prior to coronary arterial bypass graft. His hospital course proceeds uneventfully, and he is discharged for outpatient rehabilitation. At his 6-week postoperative cheskup, he reports persistent dyspnea without chest pain or palpitations, especially with exercise or when lying down. The ECG shown no changes, and the lungs sound clear on exam. A follow-up chest x-ray (bottom C and D images) is obtained for futher evaluation. What is the most likely diagnosis? Select one: a. Right lower lung collapse b. Subpulmonic effusion. c. Right phrenic nerve palsy d. Dressler syndrome. e. Congestive heart failure.

Right phrenic nerve palsy

A mother reports to the pediatrician with her 9-month-old son with a chief complaint of refusal to feed today and increased drooling. The infant is inconsolabry crying, making auscultation of the lungs difficult, but appears dyspneic, and between cries the physican hears stridor. The child is transferred to the nearest emergency department and anteroposterior (AP) and lateral chest radiographs are obtained. Which of the following statements is true? Select one: a. Dyspnea and stridor can occur in children when a foreign body is within the esophagus. b. In the setting of a suspected foreign body withinh the airways, if radiographs are normal, bronchoscopy is not indicated. c. Low-dose CT of the thorax is not helpful in evaluation for foreign bodies within both the esophagus and airways. d. The right lung is hyperinflated relative to the left. e. Based on the radiographic findings, a bronchoscopy should be performed immediately.

Dyspnea and stridor can occur in children when a foreign body is within the esophagus

An 18-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of chest discomfort. On physical examination, she is mildly tachypneic and tachycardic, with a fever os 101o F. Her past medical history is significant for a seizure disorder. Her chest x-ray is above. What is the likly diagnosis? Select one: a. Fungal pneumonia b. Lung absess c. Pulmonary embolus d. Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung e. Wegener granulomatosis

Lung absess

An 18-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of chest discomfort. On physical examination, she is mildly tachypneic and tachycardic, with a fever os 101o F. Her past medical history is significant for a seizure disorder. Her chest x-ray is above. What additional studies are indicates at this time? Select one: a. MRI scan of the chest b. CT scan of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis c. Ventilation/perfusion scan of the lungs d. CT scan of the chest e. MRI scan of the brain

CT scan of the chest

An 82-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a complaint of persistent headache for the past week following a fall from standing. Cranial nerve and mental status exams are normal. The CT scan is shown above. The finding above most likely represents: Select one: a. Subarachnoid hemorrhage b. Epidural abscess c. Epidural hemorrhage d. Subdural hemorrhage

Subdural hemorrhage

An 86-year-old woman is transferred for management of a recent stroke. She is breathing spontaneously but has difficult swallowing. A portable chest x-ray is obtained following placement of a Dobhoff tube for enteric feeding. Which os the following statements are true? Select one: a. The Dobhoff tube is in satisfactory position, after passing through a large hiatal hernia and then below the diaphragm. b. The Dobhoff tube is in the pleural space and should be removed. c. The Dobhoff tube is in satisfactory position, after passing through a gastric pull-through and then below the diaphragm. d. The Dobhoff tube is in satisfactory position in a patient with situs inversus.

The Dobhoff tube is in the pleural space and should be removed.

An asymptomatic, 50-year-old woman presents for preop testing prior to general anesthesia for knee replacement and has the chest x-ray shown above. What is the most appropiace next step? Select one: a. CT of the neck chest without contrast. b. No additional imaging is needed before knee replacement surgery. c. CT of the neck and chest with contrast. d. Barium swallow. e. Ultrasound of the neck.

CT of the neck chest without contrast.

An HIV-positive, 54-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of cough and malaise. On further questioning, he admits to IV drug abuse, and he has experienced intermittent sweats and weight loss over the last 4 months. A chest x-ray (1.image) and chest CT (1. image) were obtained. What is the likely diagnosis? Select one: a. TB b. PCP c. Metastasis d. Pneumococcal pneumonia e. Septic emboli

Following a high-speed MVA, an unrestrained 47-year-old woman passenger is transported by air to the nearest trauma center. The patient required intubation at the accident scene, but responds to commands and is found to be neurologically intact on examination. A CT of the cervical spine is performed. Based on the findings, the patient is taken for a stat MRI and then taken for surgery. An intraoperative lateral radiograph of the cervical spine is obtained. Based on the images provided, which of the following statements is true? Select one: a. The mechanism of injury producing this fracture classically is hyperflexion. b. This type of injury has been named a Jefferson fracture. c. Spinal cord edema and/or hemorrhage will definitely be seen on the MRI. d. Cervical MR angiography should be performed at the same time as the MRI. e. This type of cervical spine fracture is considered stable.

Cervical MR angiography should be performed at the same time as the MRI

Buckle/torus fracture.

Select one: a. Pneumothorax b. Hyperinflation without extra pulmonary air c. Pneumothorax and pneumomediastinum d. Pneumomediastinum e. Pneumoperitoneum

Pneumomediastinum

we change the acceleration voltage

The correct answers are: The patient’s radiation load can be significantly decreased, The contrast resolution is better, The opportunity of postprocessing

Becomes sharper, the magnifying effect is less pronounced

Increasing

Absorption of X-ray is detected

Transversal

Static magnetic field, Variable magnetic field, Radio-frequency radiation

Transmitted, Reflected, Induced

may impede, make impossible, can improve

Bone

Product

About the density of 1H atomic nuclei in one volume element, About the spin-spin relaxation time of 1H atomic nuclei, About the spin-grid relaxation time of 1H atomic nuclei

Compton scattering, pair formation, photo effect

the endurance of the radiation

Strength of the cathode current

They are absorbed easier than the long waves

Long wavelength, They’re absorbed easier compared to the short waves., It is able to depict the differentiation between soft-tissues and soft tissue-bone.

The substance of anode

Decreasing the focus-film distance

It is located between the patient and the detector (film)., It has movable and fixed types too.

Its spectrum is characteristic of the material of an anode.

It occurs at a higher acceleration voltage., It has a linear spectrum., The position of the lines doesn’t depend on the voltage, but depends on the material of the anode., As it originates from the atoms of the anode, it is characteristic of the material of the anode.

Accelerator voltage (the tube voltage)

Piezo-effect

b, a, d, c

Silver-bromide

the material of anode

Using hard rays

ionisation of the atom

Difference

Giving contrast material

is proportional to the squre root of accelerational voltage

Reflected, Scattered, Attenuated

the nature of the attenuative material

CT, MRI, Ultrasound

During detection, the examanation table moves continuously, with consistent speed, ’pitch’ is the quotient of table speed and layer thickness, if ’pitch’ is > 1.0, also the dose of radiation and the resolution of the image is lower, if ’pitch’ is ˂ 1.0, also resolving power and radiation load increases

Its thickness decreases in the case of hard rays

Electrons exit from the heated cathode., Acceleration of electrons is made with high voltage., The anode is a metal with a high melting point.

Axial, Lateral, Temporal

higher in case of the approaching border surface, lower in case of the reflector receding

DSA

absorption, scattering

Acoustic shadowing, Relative acoustic enhancement

Wavelength of the X-ray, Atomic number of the irradiated substance, Density of the irradiated substance, Thickness of the irradiated substance

Magnifying, Distorcion

1H, 13C, 15N, 31P

It utilizes electromagnetic radiation., It consists of rays with different wavelengths., Only 0,1 % of electron stream is transformed into X-ray.

ultrasound

Magnetic resonance is created if the frequency of the used radiofrequency impulse is the same what the protons process with

With increasing of the accelaration voltage the toughness of emitted X-ray increases.

It has linear spectrum

It occurs at every acceleration voltage

It has a decreasing effect on soft radiation

The spectrum of characteristic X-ray is linear and the wavelength of the spectrum’s maximum depends on the material of the anode

Ionisation that appears during the collision of electrons accelerated to high energy and electrons in the material of the anode is followed by bremsstrahlung.

The deceleration of a high energy neutron

excitation, ionisation

electromagnetic

No.1 → D, Verterbae cervicales No.6 → A, Cavitas glenoidalis No.7 → F, Collum chirurgicum humeri No.2 → B, Costa I. No.3 → E, Clavicula No.5 → C, Caput humeri No.4 → G, Acromion

A.Acetabulum B.Caput femoris C.Trochanter maior D.Os pubis E.Os ischii F.Os coccygis G.Sacrum H.Articulatio sacroiliaca I.Ala ossis ilii No: - 3,5,1,2,7,4,6,8,9

No.3 → G, Sacrum No.5 → A, Acetabulum No.1 → I,Ala ossis ilii No.2 → B, Caput femoris No.7 → C, Trochanter maior No.4 → F,Os coccygis No.6 → H, Articulatio sacroiliaca No.8 → D, Os pubis No.9 → E, Os ischii

A.Septum nasi B.n. opticus C.Bulbus oculi D.Cellulae ethmoidalis E.Lens F.m. rectus medialis G.Glandula lacrimalis H.m. rectus lateralis No: - 8,1,5,4,6,7,3,2

No.8 → G, Glandula lacrimalis No.1 → B, n. opticus No.5 → D, Cellulae ethmoidalis No.4 → H, m. rectus lateralis No.6 → E,Lens No.7 → A,Septum nasi No.3 → F, m. rectus medialis No.2 → C, Bulbus oculi

A. Falx cerebri B. Cerebellum C. Ventriculus lateralis cornu occipitalis D. Tentorium cerebelli E. Ventriculus tertius F. Myelon G. Ventriculus quartus No: - 5,2,7,4,6,1,3

No.5 → G, Ventriculus quartus No.2 → C, Ventriculus lateralis cornu occipitalis No.7 → F, Myelon No.4 → B, Cerebellum No.6 → D, Tentorium cerebelli No.1 → A, Falx cerebri No.3 → E, Ventriculus tertius

A. Putamen B. Insula C. Globus pallidus D. Caput nuclei caudati E. Claustrum F. Corpus pineale G. Nucleus lentiformis H. Capsula externa I. Capsula interna J. Thalamus No: - 8,3,6,9,7,1,2,4,5,10

No.8 → E,Claustrum No.3 → I,Capsula interna No.6 → C, Globus pallidus No.9 → J, Thalamus No.7 → A, Putamen No.1 → B, Insula No.2 → H, Capsula externa No.4 → D, Caput nuclei caudati No.5 → G,Nucleus lentiformis No.10 → F, Corpus pineale

A. a. cerebri anterior B. a. cerebri media C. a. cerebri posterior D. a. communicans anterior E. a. basilaris F. a. vertebralis G. a. carotis interna No: - 1,3,6,7,5,2,4

No.1 → B, a. cerebri media No.3 → A, a. cerebri anterior No.6 → E,a. basilaris No.7 → F, a. vertebralis No.5 → G, a. carotis interna No.2 → D, a. communicans anterior No.4 → C, a. cerebri posterior

A. Processus spinosus B. Myelon C. Dura D. Filum terminale E. Discus intervertebrale F. Conus medullaris G. Liquor cerebrospinalis H. Corpus vertebrae I. Cauda equina No: - 5,9,1,2,3,6,8,7,4

No.5 → D,Filum terminale No.9 → I,Cauda equina No.1 → E, Discus intervertebrale No.2 → H, Corpus vertebrae No.3 → F, Conus medullaris No.6 → A,Processus spinosus No.8 → B,Myelon No.7 → C, Dura No.4 → G, Liquor cerebrospinalis

A. Vesica urinaria B. Ureter l.s. C. Calices D. Pyelon E. Pediculus vertebrae L. I. F. Costa XII. G. Processus spinosus vertebrae L.IV. H. Discus intervertebralis L. II-III. I. Processus transversus vertebrae L. V No: - 8,6,3,7,1,4,5,2,9

No.8 → E,Pediculus vertebrae L. I. No.6 → I, Processus transversus vertebrae L. V. No.3 → B,Ureter l.s. No.7 → A, Vesica urinaria No.1 → C,Calices No.4 → H, Discus intervertebralis L. II-III. No.5 → G, Processus spinosus vertebrae L.IV. No.2 → D,Pyelon No.9 → F, Costa XII.

A. Sinus maxillaris B. Septum nasi C. Concha nasalis superior D. Meatus nasi inferior E. Concha nasalis media F. Meatus nasi medius G. Concha nasalis inferior H. Christa galli I. Cellulae ethmoidales J. Infundibulum No: - 5,4,3,6,1,2,8,7,9,10

No.5 → G, Concha nasalis inferior No.4 → D, Meatus nasi inferior No.3 → F, Meatus nasi medius No.6 → A, Sinus maxillaris No.1 → H, Christa galli No.2 → J, Infundibulum No.8 → E, Concha nasalis media No.7 → B, Septum nasi No.9 → C, Concha nasalis superior No.10 → I, Cellulae ethmoidales

A. Sinus phrenicocostalis B. Diaphragma C. Trachea D. Truncus pulmonalis E. Costa prima F. Atrium cordis dextrum G. Atrium cordis sinistrum H. V. cava superior I. Ventriculus cordis sinister J. Clavicula K. Arcus aortae L. A. pulmonalis dextra No: - 4,12,7,10,9,3,5,1,6,11,8,2

No.4 → G, Atrium cordis sinistrum No.12 → E, Costa prima No.7 → B, Diaphragma No.10 → H,V. cava superior No.9 → L, A. pulmonalis dextra No.3 → D, Truncus pulmonalis No.5 → I, Ventriculus cordis sinister No.1 → C,Trachea No.6 → A, Sinus phrenicocostalis No.11 → J,Clavicula No.8 → F, Atrium cordis dextrum No.2 → K, Arcus aortae

Pair the numbered anatomical structures with proper anatomical designations. A. A. vertebralis sinistra B. Arcus aortae C. A. basilaris D. A. carotis communis sinistra E. A. subclavia sinistra F. A. carotis interna dextra G. A. carotis externa dextra H. Carotis bifurcatio I. A brachiocephalica J. A. subclavia dextra K. A. carotis communis dextra No: - 1,11,5,7,9,4,10,3,6,8,2

No.1 → A,A. vertebralis sinistra No.11 → C,A. basilaris No.5 → J, A. subclavia dextra No.7 → K, A. carotis communis dextra No.9 → G,A. carotis externa dextra No.4 → B, Arcus aortae No.10 → F,A. carotis interna dextra No.3 → E, A. subclavia sinistra No.6 → I,A brachiocephalica No.8 → H, Carotis bifurcatio No.2 → D, A. carotis communis sinistra

A. A. pulmonalis sinistra B. Truncus pulmonalis C. V. cava superior D. Corpus vertebrae E. Sternum F. Aorta ascendens G. Costae H. Pulmo sinister I. Bronchus principalis dexter J. Pulmo dexter K. Aorta descendens L. Bronchus principalis sinister No: - 7,6,3,10,12,2,8,5,11,9,4,1

No.7 → H, Pulmo sinister No.6 → J, Pulmo dexter No.3 → A, A. pulmonalis sinistra No.10 → D, Corpus vertebrae No.12 → L,Bronchus principalis sinister No.2 → B,Truncus pulmonalis No.8 → G,Costae No.5 → C, V. cava superior No.11 → I,Bronchus principalis dexter No.9 → E, Sternum No.4 → K, Aorta descendens No.1 → F, Aorta ascendens

A. Aorta abdominalis B. Lobus caudatus C. V. cava inferior D. Ventriculus E. Ligamentum falciforme hepatis F. Vena portae G. Corpus vertebrae H. Lobus hepatica sinistra I. Lien J. Lobus hepatica dextra No: - 2,9,1,7,5,10,4,3,8,6

No.2 → B, Lobus caudatus No.9 → C, V. cava inferior No.1 → J,Lobus hepatica dextra No.7 → A, Aorta abdominalis No.5 → D, Ventriculus No.10 → F, Vena portae No.4 → E, Ligamentum falciforme hepatis No.3 → H, Lobus hepatica sinistra No.8 → G, Corpus vertebrae No.6 → I, Lien

A. Aorta abdominalis B. Colon descendens C. Ren dexter D. Vena renalis sinistra E. Lobus hepatica sinistra F. Arteria renalis sinistra G. Ren sinister H. Ventriculus I. Vena cava inferior J. Lobus hepatica dextra No: - 3,9,4,7,10,6,1,8,2,5

No.3 → H, Ventriculus No.9 → F, Arteria renalis sinistra No.4 → B, Colon descendens No.7 → I, Vena cava inferior No.10 → D, Vena renalis sinistra No.6 → C, Ren dexter No.1 → J, Lobus hepatica dextra No.8 → A, Aorta abdominalis No.2 → E, Lobus hepatica sinistra No.5 → G, Ren sinister

A. Colon ascendens B. Colon descendens C. Ren dexter D. Uterus E. Aorta abdominalis F. Vena cava inferior G. Lien H. Ventriculus I. Hepar J. Musculus psoas No: - 5,1,6,3,2,9,10,7,4,8

No.5 → J, Musculus psoas No.1 → I, Hepar No.6 → C,Ren dexter No.3 → G, Lien No.2 → H, Ventriculus No.9 → E, Aorta abdominalis No.10 → D, Uterus No.7 → A,Colon ascendens No.4 → B, Colon descendens No.8 → F, Vena cava inferior

A. Fundus uteri B. Cervix C. Vagina D. Symphisis E. Os coccygis F. Vesica urinaria G. Rectum H. Cavitas uteri I. Sacrum No: - 3,9,2,7,5,6,1,4,8

No.3 → H, Cavitas uteri No.9 → C, Vagina No.2 → A, Fundus uteri No.7 → I, Sacrum No.5 → G, Rectum No.6 → D, Symphisis No.1 → F,Vesica urinaria No.4 → B, Cervix No.8 → E, Os coccygis

A. Patella B. Femur C. Fibula D. Tibia E. Epicondylus medialis femoris F. Eminentia intercondylaris medialis G. Epicondylus lateralis femoris H. Eminentia intercondylaris lateralis I. Condylus femoris medialis J. Condylus femoris lateralis K. Condylus tibialis medialis L. Condylus tibialis lateralis No: - 8,12,4,10,1,5,3,2,9,6,7,11

No.8 → E, Epicondylus medialis femoris No.12 → D, Tibia No.4 → L, Condylus tibialis lateralis No.10 → F, Eminentia intercondylaris medialis No.1 → J, Condylus femoris lateralis No.5 → K, Condylus tibialis medialis No.3 → A, Patella No.2 → I,Condylus femoris medialis No.9 → H, Eminentia intercondylaris lateralis No.6 → C,Fibula No.7 → G, Epicondylus lateralis femoris No.11 → B, Femur

A. Clavicula B. Cavitas glenoidalis C. Articulatio acromioclavicularis D. Collum humeri E. Acromion F. Tuberculum majus G. Caput humeri H. Collum scapulae I. Tuberculum minus J. Processus coracoideus No: - 10,1,3,8,2,6,9,7,5,4

No.10 → F, Tuberculum majus No.1 → G, Caput humeri No.3 → H, Collum scapulae No.8 → B, Cavitas glenoidalis No.2 → D, Collum humeri No.6 → A, Clavicula No.9 → I, Tuberculum minus No.7 → C, Articulatio acromioclavicularis No.5 → E, Acromion No.4 → J, Processus coracoideus

pulmonary emboli

Rheumatoid arthritis

PTX

In ARDS there is pulmonary oedema., ARDS is bilateral, ARDS may be caused by trauma or burn., ARDS may even be caused by a head trauma.

menstruation

able to judge pulmonary effusions volume

3,5 answers are true

in all cases only HRCT is suitable for the diagnosis

HRCT is necessary for the diagnosis and follow-up of diffuse lung diseases

lung

lágyrész

true

reexpansion pulmonary oedema

supracardial total pulmonary vein transposition

is usually symmetric in sarcoidosis.

contrast enhanced CT is the standard

Pancoast tumor

loss of transparency

inhomogenous loss of transparency, that spreads throughout the affected side

the assessment of the lung parenchyma

anywhere, as air-fluid level

a contrast enhanced chest CT

if a radiolucent foreign body is present it may be necessary to obtain a chest CT or to carry out bronchoscopy

chest CT angiography

pleural effusion fluid

aortic stenosis

is more common in Marfan syndrome than in the general population

It is more sensitive for the diagnosis of PTX than a chest xray.

rib fracture

Curvy aorta shadow.

Air in the soft tissues, such as the neck.

HRCT

pneumonia

atelectasis

It may be good for the diagnosis of bone metastasis in the examined region.

hiatal hernia

hiatus hernia

large volume of pleural effusion, atelectasis, tension PTX

answers 1., 3. are true

CT-examination

T2-N1-M0

1.,2.,3.

The majority of the left lung is collapsed (atelectasis)

hypertrophy of the left ventricle and poststenotic dilatation of the ascending aorta

apico-basal caliber discrepancy

to determine the existence and type of interstital lung disease

insufficient surfactant production

Echocardiography

The loss of pulmonary air content immediately next to the heartwill result that we cannot distinguish the border of this two organs

hydropneumothorax

if there is also pneumothorax present

aorto-iliacal

2., 4. are true

abscess

pneumothorax

pneumatosis intestinalis

contrast enhanced chest CT

HRCT has a significant role in the diagnosis of lung fibrosis., ARDS predisposes to lung fibrosis.

air

1,2,3,4,5 answers are true

pleural effusion

It is deﬁned as loss of lung markings beyond a bright white line.

Thoracocentesis, Transthoracal needle biopsy never causes that

fibromuscular dysplasia

pneumonia

All three of the above

a cavity with a thick wall on the bottom of which fluid layers

pneumothorax

False

True

cholecystitis acuta calculosa

acut pancreatitis

acute pancreatitis with peripancreatic exsudate

chronic pancreatitis

ductal carcinoma

Abdominal ultrasound

cyst

All of the above.

Chronic Pancreatitis

Endocrine pancreatic tumor

None of the two parts of the sentence are correct

hyperechoic pancreas

regional lymphadenopathy

thin pancreas

contracted gallbladder

Pancreatic pseudocyst

Case report: A 63 years old man patient coudn’t mention any significant disease in his history. His relatives had noticed a yellow coloration of his sclera, that’s why he went to the family doctor, who performed laboratory tests that showed the following findings: high ESR, moderate anaemia, extremely high biliribin ( mainly direct) , elevated GOT and GPT, extremely high ALP level, slightly increased serum creatinin, increased blood glucose level, normal amylase and lipase, high level of bilirubin and glucose in the urine. Which of the following imaging methods should be performed as first orienting examination by the department that hospitalises the patient? 1. Intravenous cholecystography 2. HIDA 3. Oral cholecystography 4. Abdominal ultrasound Select one: a. 1, 2, 3, 4 b. 2,4 c. 4 d. 1, 2, 3 e. 2,3

in arterial phase the mass enhances vividly, there is a typical wash-out sign in portal venous phase, it has an enhancing "pseudocapsule"

Increased through transmission

posterior acoustic shadowing

only 4. answer is true

acute pancreatitis

duodenal stenosis

central scar

FALSE

Acute cholecystitis with cholelith

Polyposis cholecystae

Chronic cholecystitis with cholelith

acoustic enhancement

Steatosis hepatis

Cirrhosis hepatis

venous phase

TRUE

FALSE

abdominal ultrasound

the pancreas is missing, there is a fatty, fibrous tissue in its location.

1, 2

The first part of the sentence is false, the second part is correct.

hypervascularised

it is the least common, benign tumor of the liver

vascular an casement

calcifications

all the answers above

Infection, liver cirrhosis, v. portae thrombosis

It may appear as diffuse hyperechogenity of the gland.

sharply demarcated, anechoic mass

false

to rule out pancreatitis

is a rare inhereted disorder, characterised by dilatation of the intrahepatic bile ducts

may positive in pancreas head malignancies, mean a nontender, palpable gallbladder

TIPS

it may cause bile duct obstruction

extrahepatic bile duct dilatation

the pancreas is thin

the pancreas is enlarged, its borders are indistinct

calcifications in the parenchyma of the pancreas may be depicted

All of the above.

Echinococcal cyst

it enhances less than the normal parenchyma

are hyperechoic, have posterior acustic shadows

Serum amilase and lipase are elevated.

is positive in acute cholecystitis, mean a painfull gallbladder pressed with the transducer

Retroperitoneal

95% are adenocarcinomas, On US, the mass appears hypoechoic, Presenting sign is the Courvoiser's sign

Hemangioma

Abdominal ultrasound

TRUE

All

all of the above

irregular wall thickening

lamellar (layered) wall structure, the sonographic Murphy-sign can be evoked

answers 1., 3. are true

Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt

needle biopsy

choledochus cyst

ERCP, abnormally wide, irregular major pancreatic duct, seen in chronic pancreatitis

MRCP, US

Anechoic, well defined area, Has posterior acustic enhancement

Color Doppler will demonstrate absence of central vascularisation

pancreatic pseudocyst

Abdominal US

abdominal US

To diagnose biliary and pancreatic pathological condition

True

False

Ultrasound, Intravenous urography, CT

this is a sign of acute hydronephrosis most commonly caused by stone

renal cyst

May affect both kidneys., . There are an increased number of cysts in the liver and in the pancreas compared to the avarage population., It may be associated with cerebral aneurysms.

Renovascular hypertonia

nephrocalcinosis

opens at the physiologic location.

May be accompanied by liver and pancreatic cysts

If excretion is delayed, late-phase (even 24 hour) images may be acquired.

based on the length of the ureter

Ultrasound

CT, MR

The abnormality is most likely in the urinary bladder or urethra

only A is true

both statements are true

2D UH and color doppler UH

PTC

treatment of urinary obstruction, treatment of urinary fistula cedure

renal subcapsular haematoma

the renal cortex is hypoechoic compared to the medulla

Antegrade pyelography, Cysto-urethrography

presence of Von Hippel Lindau disease, presence of Tuberous Sclerosis disease, smoking

ureterocele

2, 4 is true

1, 3 are true

inside the lesion fat density is detectable on CT

one ureter enters the urinary bladder on each side

1,2,4 are true

Colovesical fistula., Iatrogenic (e.g.: cystoscopy), Emphysematous cystitis

US- examination

the upper poles of the kidneys are connected

on CT the noncontrast image is best for the diagnosis

it enhances on CT

the kidney parenchyma is thinned

1, 2 and 3 are true

anechoic inner structure, relative posterior acoustic enhancement

end stage kidney

US is a highly sensitive modality in the imaging of the dilatation of the renal collecting system

1, 2, 3

it has a relatively homogenous structure with homogenous vascularisation

It is a prominent bulge ont he lateral border of the right kidney

'False'.

False'

False

True

pyloric stenosis

epiphrenic

tracheoesophageal fistula

all the answers are true

is located at the pharyngo-esophageal junction.

the cardia is not narrowed

it is common in the jejunum

the paraesophageal type is the most common

it is difficult to differentiate from a hiatal hernia

If there are no air-fluid levels on xray, that safely rules out an ileus.

irregular folds in the vincinity of the lesion

colon carcinoma

mediastinal tumor

all of the above

true

The colon is filled with a barium containing contrast agent, the majority of which is then drained, and finally air is pumped into it.

methylcellulose

false

In the diagnosis of free abdominal air a non-contrast abdominal xray is more effective than ultrasound., Eventually muscular defense and peritonitis develops.

becomes devoid of gas

becomes distended with gas and fecal material

crescent shaped free air under the dome of the diaphragm

the ganglion cells of the plexus Auerbachi are missing

false

used to stage a known malignancy

Globus hystericus (globus pharyngis)

apple-core sign on Barium swalllow

6 cm

contrasted CT

Gastroscopy

Hiatus hernia

air-fluid niveau formation

as a collapsed organ containing some air

false

the patient cannot eat, but he or she can drink water if necessary

in case of duodenal perforation

Fistula formation is not typical.

adenocarcinoma of colon

Answers 2., 4. are true

all the layers of the esophagus are part of the diverticulum

if there are more than one

all of the above are true

2, 5 are true

all of the above are true

If ileus is suspected, this is the first imaging test that we perform.

Answers 1., 2., 3. are true

it occurs in the upper part of the esophagus, in the pharingo-oesophageal junction

the kidney parenchyma is thinned

it may be diagnosed with US in all cases

gastroscopy

Kaposi sarcoma

mucosa

gastric ulcer

the superior mesenteric artery

duodenum atresia

it may appear anywhere along the GI tract , It may affect the GI tract in a segmental fashion

It may cause symptoms outside of the GI tract, It most commonly affects the terminal ileum

Double bubble sign

3 mm

The diameter of the appendix is greater than 8 mm, There is some free fluid int he vicinity of the appendix., There is surrounding fatty stranding.

polyp

Mesenteric adenitis

toxic megacolon

fluoroscopy (barium swallow)

contrast enhanced CT

ultrasound

abdominal ultrasound

adhesions

water soluble contrast agent

lesser curvature

rectosigmoid colon

stricture

ultrasound

serosa

stiff wall and mild dilatation of the lumen

answers 2., 4. are true

during an ultrasound scan the lumen of the appendix is compressible

appendicitis

endosonography

Crohn’s disease is more common in the left colon and in the rectum

the most common region affected by ulcerative colitis is the terminal ileum

If ileus is suspected, a non-contrast abdominal xray is the first imaging test that we perform.

Free air does not always collect under the diaphragm

Irrigoscopy is a double contrast test.

If a hiatal hernia is suspected, a barium meal study should be carried out.

intussusception

Barium enema is the best test of choice to assess colorectal tumours

is originally discribed in ulcerative colitis

To demonstrate free abdominal air

double bubble sign

False

True

False

pre-existing cyst, now inflamed

ultrasound

imaging microcalcifications

intraductal papilloma

superior-lateral

adipose

screening the population

1.,2.,3. answers are true

homogenously high density of leasion

crushed, casting

spiculated contour

cystic laesions, intracystic masses

fibroadenoma

microcalcification

macrocalcification

mediolateral-oblique, cranio-caudal

well-defined margins

1.,2.,4. answers are true

sclerotizing duct hyperplasia

By cannulating a milk duct on mamilla, we fill it with contrast material to make any intraluminal growth (i.e. papilloma) visible on mammography.

after mammography, ultrasound, biopsy if needed

fibroadenoma

atypical ductal hyperplasia

cysts

Ultrasound imaging

cluster, linear

polulation screening

eggshell or macrocalcification

45-65 years

mammography

True

Paget disease

prostata carcinoma

trimalleolar fracture of the ankle

it usually means, that the bony fragments are not fixed correctly

osteochondritis dissecans

Mass of atypical plasma cells

MRI

osteolysis

Subperiosteal new bone formation

1., 2., and 3. are true

Fracture of the vertebral arch of the affected vertebra.

4 view films

osteosarcoma

It is common during childhood

osteophyte generation

Often starts with sacroileitis., The ligaments become calcified., Syndesmophytes form.

it can occur only in adults

Erosions in the small joints., Striped osteoporosis., Soft tissue swelling.

MR-exam

conventional radiography

osteoid osteoma

radius

aseptic necrosis of the femoral head

Osteosarcoma

1., 3. are true

it begins in young age

it most commonly occurs in the metaphysis of long bones

2., 4. are true

Stress fracture

osteochondrosis of the femoral head - morbus Kienböck

there is an ulnar dislocation of the fractured ulnar head

callus formation in a fracture usually leads to aggressive periosteal reaction

the underlying pathophysiology is the same as in Scheuermann disease

X-ray has a higher diagnostic value, than MRI

It is common in the long bones

The facial bones are usually involved.

it appears with a laminated (onion skin) periosteal reaction, and Codman’s triangle

It can be caused by immobility.

A four-view X-ray examination is necessary for diagnosing a scaphoid bone fracture.

no sclerosis can be seen

This type of fracture occurs in adults.

False

True

NEU-1.121. → D, NEU-1.122. → C, NEU-1.123. → E, NEU-1.119. → B, NEU-1.120. → A

also called as normotensive hydrocephalus

pars interarticularis

Cranial CT

increased lordosis of cervical spine

3rd ventricle

Glioblastoma Multiforme

acute subdural haematoma

hypoplasia of the mesencephalon

midline shift

noncontrasted MRI

subarachnoidal hemorrhage

Spondylolysis

plain head CT

2 years

Schizencephalia

Tuberous sclerosis

congenital obstructive hydrocephalus (Aqueductal stenosis)

Sturge-Weber syndrome

MR is more sensitive than CT for the diagnosis of an acute SAH

focal dilatation of the external liquor space

Digital Substractional Angiography (DSA)

2., 4. answers are true

vascular malformation in the central nervous system

usually, there is no neighbouring edema.

in the periventricul white matter

into the subarachnoid space

DSA

1., 3. answers are true

Multiple sclerosis

anterolisthesis

2., 4. are true

1., 2., and 3. are true

MRI

1., 3. answers are true

arachnoid cyst

Part of the cerebellum falls into the foramen magnum

dilatation of the IV. ventricle and hypoplasia of the cerebellum

rapidly growing tumor

it shows mild enhancement on contrast enhanced MR

intradural, extramedullar tumor

it is the advanced stage of spina bifida

on a plain CT scan liquor is hyperdense

Guillan-Barre syndrome

the territory of the occluded artery appears as a hypodense area

the arches are usually not fused

they usually never grow out from the hypophyseal fossa.

the causes are usually extra-spinal

it is characterised by syringomyelia, due to compression to the spinal cord

oligodendroglioma

Because the scar enhances contrast media.

True

False

True

False

Radio Minimals Flashcards

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