Radiology Flashcards

(49 cards)

1
Q

What would MRIs show?

A
  • Bone outlines (less detailed)
  • soft tissue pathologies
  • bone marrow
  • discs
  • ligaments
  • spinal cord
  • nerves
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the 3 normal curvatures of the spine?

A
  • cervical lordosis
  • thoracic kyphosis
  • lumbar lordosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the smallest vertebrate region?

A
  • Cervical
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the 2 main sections of each vertebrate?

A
  • vertebral body

- posterior arch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the posterior arch of a vertebral body composed of?

A
  • 2 pedicles
  • 2 laminae
  • 1 spinous process
  • 2 transverse processes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What lies inferior to the pedicle?

A
  • Neural foramen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is transmitted in the neural foramen?

A
  • spinal nerve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is unique about the C1 vertebrate?

A
  • no vertebral body
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is unique about the C2 vertebrate?

A
  • has an odontoid process which projects superiorly to C1
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Explain the appearance of a brust fracture on x-ray?

A
  • Loss of vertebral height compared to normal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What causes a burst fracture?

A
  • axial compression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a potential consequence of a burst fracture?

A
  • Bone retro-pulsed into spinal nerves

- can compress the cauda equina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is responsible for spinal stability?

A
  • the intervertebral ligaments
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How can ligaments be seen?

A
  • MRI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Explain intervertebral disc disease?

A
  • healthy discs are pliable and contain water

- discs may dehydrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Explain disc herniation

A
  • disc material may herniate through the disc lining into the spinal canal
  • may press on spinal nerves
  • nerve pressure produced sciatica
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Define primary osteoarthritis?

A
  • OA in an expected joint

- e.g. spine, hip, knee, thumb base or DIP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Define secondary osteoarthritis?

A
  • OA in an unexpected joint
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the radiological features of osteoarthritis?

A
  • Asymmetrical joint space reduction
  • osteophytes
  • sclerosis
  • cyst formation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the common joints affected by rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • MCP
  • MTP
  • PIP
  • Wrists
21
Q

What are the radiological features of rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • synovial effusion
  • hyperaemia (bone demineralisation)
  • pannus erosion
  • deformity
22
Q

Seronegative arthritides comprise of what 2 main clinical features?

A
  • synovitis

- enthesitis

23
Q

Define enthesitis?

A
  • inflammation at sites where ligaments and tendons attach to bone
24
Q

What are the radiological features of the Seronegative arthritides

A
  • sacro-iliac joint involvement
  • enthesitis
  • ankylosis
25
Explain an isotope bone scan
- injection of radioactive material | - inflamed joints receive more isotope and look 'hot'
26
Elbow effusion will appear as what?
- visible fat pad sign posterior
27
Children's fractures?
- soft so prone to bend or bow | - greenstick (incomplete fracture)
28
Bucket fracture and plastic bowing is associated with what age group?
- Children
29
What is the weakest region of developing bone?
- growth plate (physis)
30
What classification system is used for children's fractures?
- Salter-harris classification
31
Bony ring injuries expect to see___
- 2 or more injuries
32
Elderly women falls onto outstretched hand? What fracture most likely?
- Colles fracture
33
Explain the affect of colles fracture
- dorsal angulation of radius
34
Intra-capsular femoral fracture risk?
- risk to blood supply | - Avascular necrosis risk
35
What type of femoral fracture has a AVN (avascular necrosis risk)
- intra-capsular
36
How do you treat an intra-capsular femoral fracture
- hemiarthroplasty
37
How do you treat a extra-capsular femoral fracture?
- internal fixation
38
Explain an acute avulsion fracture
- a small chunk of bone attached to a tendon or ligament gets pulled away from the main part of the bone
39
Where are some normal anatomy sites that may mimic an avulsion fracture?
- sesamoid bones - accessory ossification centres - old non-united fractures
40
A visible posterior fat pad is always abnormal. True or false?
- TRUE
41
What is a Salter-Harris fracture?
- Fracture to the growth plate
42
A young to middle aged man with pain in the anatomical snuffbox. What fracture?
- scaphoid fracture
43
Surgical neck of humerus fracture may have what complication?
- damage to axillary nerve
44
What radiograph view must be performed in a suspected posterior shoulder dislocation?
- oblique vire
45
What fracture are you assessing when you check the humerocapitellar alignment?
- supracondylar fracture | - injury to the narrowest part of the humerus
46
What is the name of the line that marks the point between intra-capsular and extra-casual femoral fractures?
- Inter-trochanter line - proximal = intra-capsular - distal = extra-capsular
47
What would a knee effusion appear like on x-ray?
- effusion will fill the normal suprapatellar fat pad, deep to the quadriceps tendon
48
What is a 'bumper injury'?
- tibial plateau fracture | - valgus force with foot planted
49
What must be remembered when examining a foot x-ray?
- the 5th metatarsal has an accessory ossification centre | - should not be confused with a vertical fracture