random mcq questions Flashcards
1
Q
what decreases the gypsum setting reaction?
A
potassium sulphate
2
Q
what speeds up the GI setting reaction?
A
tartaric acid
3
Q
sinners circle
A
time, temperature, mechanicals, chemicasl;
4
Q
which bacteria causes pseudomembranous collitis?
A
c.diff
5
Q
what is produced in bone marrow?
A
erythrocytes
6
Q
Starling’s Law
A
Increases in venous return cause the heart’s chambers to fill with more blood, which then causes the heart to stretch and contract more forcefully, and pump more blood out to the rest of the body.
7
Q
What is Koch’s Postulate
A
The microorganism must be found in abundance in all organisms suffering from the disease, but should not be found in healthy organisms.
8
Q
What type of bonding is GI to tooth surface?
A
ionic
9
Q
what cystic fibrosis enzymes are replaced?
A
pancreatic = lipase, protease, amylase
10
Q
what is type 1 diabetes?
A
insulin deficiency
11
Q
bioavailability is?
A
is the fraction (%) of an administered drug that reaches the systemic circulation after the first pass metabolism
12
Q
amalgam thermal coefficient expansion?
A
22-28
13
Q
what can you get out of stress/strain graph?
A
Stress strain curves visually display the material’s deformation in response to a tensile, compressive, or torsional load
14
Q
what is measured force per unit?
A
stress
15
Q
highest force in teeth?
A
largest root surface in molars
16
Q
what is confidence intervals in stats?
A
the mean of your estimate plus and minus the variation in that estimate
17
Q
hiv cd4 count?
A
over 500 is good
healthy is 1500-500
18
Q
what causes chronic myeloid leukaemia?
A
philadelphia chromosome
19
Q
trismus is caused by injecting which muscle?
A
medial pterygoid
20
Q
Which part doesn’t play a significant role in protecting larynx during swallowing
A
soft palate
21
Q
when does full masticatory function develops?
A
2 years
22
Q
Number of Words understood by 1 year old
A
50 words
23
Q
Colon cancer metastasis organ
A
liver
24
Q
Which sugar causes highest caries
A
sucrose
25
Medium grit bur band colour
blue
26
Structure used in voice articulation
tongue
26
Structure used in voice articulation
tongue
27
What percentage of adult population in western world with perio disease
10-15
28
Hep b transmission
1 in 3
29
First thing you’d do when setting a treatment plan?
establish baseline
30
What dental treatment would you not do for haemophilia 8?
IDB
31
HIV is an example of
retrovirus
32
Random sample is drawn out target population. what is not true?
as sample size increases the variability of the sample man increases
33
what is not an etiological factor for dental anxiety?
high pain threshold
34
describe pattern of atrial fibrillation
irregular HR at irregular pattern
35
the reed sternberg cell is pathogenic of
hodgkin lymphoma
36
oral pigmentation can be associated with some forms of non smoking related lung cancers. this is because
ACTH is secreted by lung cancers
37
what portion of cancer are carcinomas?
90%
38
an indication for a primary molar pulpotomy
primary molar that is tender to percussion
39
sirs meaning
systemic inflammatory response syndrome
40
inflammatory cells cause breakdown of tissue
MMP
41
What is support in dentures?
The resistance to lifting away from the mucosa
42
What is retention?
The resistance to displacement of the denture away from the tissue - e.g. - how easily it moves when eating
43
what is stability
The resistance to horizontal (lateral) movement of the denture
44
what are rests?
Components that provide support for the denture from vertical opposing forces
45
what is direct retention?
Resistance to VERTICAL displacement of the denture
46
What is indirect retention?
Resistance to ROTATIONAL displacement of the denture
47
Which of the following branches of the maxillary nerve innervates the anterior part of the hard palate immediately behind the central and lateral incisors?
nasopalatine nerve
48
What drug is most likely to be given to someone having an acute myocardial infarction FIRST?
aspirin
49
what is reciprocation
it’s is an opposing element to the clasp, which prevents pressure from the clasp leading to tooth movement
50
Which of the following routes of drug administration is subject to first pass metabolism?
oral
51
In the mandibular arch, where is the primate space found?
mesial to canines
52
Where do you find the fovea palatinae
posterior to the vibrating line
53
Which direct restorative material relies on chelation between carboxyl groups and the calcium in the tooth as a major component of the bonding mechanism?
GI
54
What factor does not affect the wear of composite
tensile strength
55
Which classification of support could be considered when designing a partial denture incorporating a free-end saddle
craddock class 3
56
Agar and alginate are both
hydrocolloids
57
At what depth does the first black band on a BPE probe start
3.5 mm
58
What is the normal order of eruption of primary teeth
a b d c e
58
What is the normal order of eruption of primary teeth
a b d c e
59
What is the minimum length of a CoCr occlusally approaching clasp
15 mm
60
The RPI is a stress relieving clasp system that works by
eliminating axial rotation (torque) from the distal of the abutment tooth
61
What is the most appropriate material to place directly over a non-carious exposure in an asymptomatic tooth?
non-setting calcium hydroxide
62
A hybrid composite resin material is one that
Has quartz filler particles that range in diameter from small (<0.1um) to large (1 to 10um)
63
When a patient sues a dentist for compensation because of harm that results from clinical negligence, there are sometimes causes involving contributory negligence.
Contributory negligence applies when:
The patient’s own actions of a neglectful nature also contributed to the harm
64
Which of the following materials in an irreversible hydrocolloid?
alginate
65
What type of material is Impregum?
polyether
66
In which situation is it most appropriate to use impression compound with an alginate wash to take a master impression?
Kennedy Class I with 6 missing teeth
67
Which of the following should be checked/confirmed prior to inserting the trial cobalt chromium framework in the patients mouth?
Patient Name on Work tick/ cast matches that of your patient
68
What is the most likely cause of the framework fitting an undamaged cast but not the patient?
Faulty/distorted impression
69
Cobalt Chromium Alloy has a melting tempreature of approximately:
1400-1500 degrees centigrade
70
The recommended minimum casting thickness for cobalt chromium frameworks is:
0.5 mm
71
Conventional cobalt chromium framework construction requires a refractory model to be produced, what material is this refractory model made from?
Phosphate bonded investment material
72
Conventional cobalt chromium framework construction requires a refractory model to be produced, what material is this refractory model made from?
Phosphate bonded investment material
73
What do you use to check for premature occlusal contacts when delivering finished dentures?
thin articulating paper
74
You should check the fit surface of a finished denture with a gloved finger to identify:
acrylic blebs and pearls
75
Which of the following statements about non-carious tooth surface loss is correct:
Erosion is tooth surface loss by non-bacterial chemical dissolution
76
Which of the following statements regarding surveying of casts for denture design is true:
It can be used to determine undercuts with regard to the path of insertion of a denture
77
Which statement regarding Acute Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis is false:
it is characterised by chronic onset
A. It is caused by Gram –ve anaerobic bacteria
B. It affects smokers more than non-smokers
C. It causes necrosis of interdental papillae
78
What pressure should be used when probing for a BPE:
25
79
Which immunoglobulin is found in greatest quantity in human serum
Ig G
g for greatest
80
Which statement regarding the differences between primary and permanent molars is correct:
Deciduous molars have thinner enamel, a more bulbous crown and larger pulp horns than permanent molars
81
What does an enamel bonding agent consist of:
unfilled resin
82
Which of the following is true about a dentine conditioner, such as phosphoric acid:
it removes smear layer
83
Which of the statements is true about a dentine primer:
It increases the surface energy (wets) dentine
Dentine primer allows the subsequent resin layer in the adhesive to flow over or “wet” the etched dentine surface. (“wetting” the surface is not the same as having a wet/moist surface. Remembers that the resin in composite is hydrophobic and so a moist surface would not improve the bond.)
The conditioner (phosphoric acid) conditions dentine/removes the smear layer/ etches the dentine.
84
What happens to a zinc-containing low copper amalgam if moisture gets into it:
the alloy expands
85
Which of these is the gamma phase of amalgam
Ag3Sn
86
Which is true of a hybrid composite:
It contains both large and small filler particles
87
What is an important property of a posterior composite:
heavily filled
88
Identify the incorrect statement regarding restorations to primary teeth:
Occlusal cavities must have a depth no greater then 2.5mm
it is 1.5 mm
89
Which of these is a reason for giving primary molar pulp therapy instead of tooth extraction:
Teeth needed as space maintainers to prevent crowing in permanent dentition
90
Which of these is false regarding pulpotomies and pulpectomies in primary teeth:
Pulpotomies are recommended where there is irreversible pulpitis and exposure of a severely hyperaemic pulp
right: Pulpotomies indicated where there are no signs of irreversible pulpitis and bleeding can be arrested by using ferric sulphate.
91
When removing radicular pulp during a pulpectomy, what is the closest distance that files should come to the apex:
2 mm
92
What is the maximum safe dose of lignocaine that can be used when injecting with 2% solution with 1:80 000 adrenaline:
4.4 mg/kg
93
Which of these statements is false:
Apexogenesis and apexification are the same thing
Apexogenesis is the stimulation of complete root formation and closure of the end of the root in a traumatized tooth with a healthy pulp.
Apexification is inducing a calcified barrier at the apex of a non-vital tooth with incomplete root formation.
94
In the primary dentition, lower teeth erupt before uppers with the exception of:
the exception is the upper central incisors, which usually erupt before the lower central incisors
95
Which primary tooth erupts at around 18 months
canine
96
Following eruption, how long does it take root completion to occur in a permanent tooth
1 year
97
A radiographic report states that a patient has “generalised severe horizontal bone loss”. Which of these statements is false:
Bone loss is equivalent to less than 30% of root length
98
In periodontitis, how much of the white cell infiltrate consists of plasma cells:
>50%
99
Which of these are the most destructive periodontal pathogens:
P. Gingivalis
T. Denticola
B. Forsythus
100
At what position would a right-handed operator sit to scale the buccal surfaces of 44-48, buccal surfaces of 14-18, and lingual surfaces of 34-38:
9 o'clock
101
Which is the least vasodilatory anaesthetic used in dentistry:
mepyvicaine
102
Which of these is false:
Using adrenaline carries no risks in patients with cardiovascular disease, hyperthyroidism, phaeochromocytomas or patients taking certain drugs
103
what is incorrect about IDB
Inferior alveolar block injections only anaesthetise molars and second premolars
IAB injections anaesthetic pulps of all teeth on that side. There may be incomplete anaesthesia in central incisors and sometimes there is crossover of nerve supply to these teeth.
The crossover issue also applies to mental nerve blocks, where premolars, canines and lateral incisors will be anaesthetised, but there may be incomplete anaesthesia of centrals.
104
Which of these is an advantage of a gold inlay or onlay:
corrosion resistant
105
Which constituent of composite resins facilitates a good bond between the glass filler particles and the resin:
silane coupling agent
106
In composite resins, adding filler particles to the resin has which effect:
decreases polymerisation shrinkage
107
Which of these ions is not released in the glass ionomer setting reaction:
magnesium
but sodium, fluoride, calcium and aluminium are
108
“A material’s ability to resist scratching or surface indentation” describes which property:
hardness
109
Which of these statements is true of amalgam:
Factors decreasing strength include corrosion, undermixing, too high Hg content, low condensation pressure and slow rate of packing
110
Syneresis and imbibition may occur with which impression material:
alginate
111
Which of these is true of elastomers compared to hydrocolloid:
A. They are more accurate
B. They are more tear resistant
C. They have better dimensional stability
112
Which impression material requires a platinum catalyst for setting and has polydimethylsiloxane in both catalyst and base pastes:
addition silicone
113
true statements about metals
A. CoCr has the highest % shrinkage of partial denture alloys
B. Type IV gold is the most ductile partial denture alloy
C. CoCr is the hardest partial denture alloy and has the highest Young’s Modulus
D. Stainless steel has the highest UTS & PL
114
which feature is visible under microscope and arises from the incremental deposition of dentine?
lines of Von Ebner
115
which feature rises from odontoblast processes extending into enamel
enamel spindles
115
which feature rises from odontoblast processes extending into enamel
enamel spindles
116
which type of dentine is translucent dentine
intra tubular (peritubular) dentine
117
which feature rises from odontoblast processes extending into enamel
enamel spindles
117
which feature rises from odontoblast processes extending into enamel
enamel spindles
118
which type of dentine is translucent dentine
intratubular (peritubular) dentine
119
the cells which form cementum are derived from which of the following tissues and cells
from cementoblasts that came from dental follicle
120
which periodontal fibre groups originate in a cervical region of a tooth and extends to the ID surface of adjacent teeth
trans-septal
121
the epithelial attachment where the junctional epithelium is attached to the tooth surface is formed by which type of junction?
hemidesmosomes
122
which characteristic applies to cellular cementum
present on the apex of the root
123
physiological mesial drift of permanent molar teeth will result in which one of the following clinical features?
broadening of contact points
124
when do you expect roots of primary teeth to be complete?
4 years
125
when would you expect upper permanent canine to erupt?
12 years
126
cleft lip is
failure of fusion maxillary and medial nasal processes
127
which bone is formed from meckel's cartilage
malleus and incus
128
difficulty swallowing
dysphagia
129
which condition is less likely to impact masticatory efficiency
loss of upper incisor and canine teeth
130
metric suture is
between two frontal bones
131
which two muscles are attached to pterygomandibular raphe
buccinator and superior constrictor
132
inflammatory response in a pulp
release of neuropeptides
133
which cells associates with an erupting tooth will give rise to the junctional epithelium
reduced enamel epithelium
134
fillers are added to composite resin to increase
wear resistance
135
alginate setting time is controlled by
the amount of sodium phosphate
136
typical features of reversible pulpitis
pain to cold, lasts a short time
hydrodynamic expression- microleakage (A-fibres)
no change in pulp blood flow
137
irreversible pulpits
spontaneous pain
negative to cold, pain to hot (C-fibres)
increase in pulpal blood flow
138
The synthesis of this clotting factor is not inhibited by warfarin.
8
but factors 2,7,9,10 and proteins C and S
139
Left side heart failure:
Dyspnoea: shortness of breath (increase of BP within lungs will cause fluid to enter into alveolar system preventing alveoli from moving oxygen into blood) (this is made worse when patient is lying flat)
Orthopnea: the sensation of breathlessness in the recumbent position, relieved by sitting or standing.
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND) is a sensation of shortness of breath that awakens the patient, often after 1 or 2 hours of sleep, and is usually relieved in the upright position.
Tachycardia: fast heart
Low BP
140
Right side heart failure
Ascites: swelling in abdominal cavity
JVP: jugular venous pressure (if raised can see pulse in neck)
Poor GI absorption: excess fluid arround tract inhibits absorption
Liver swelling
141
Which of the following Hepatitis viruses are bloodborne:
B, C, D
142
a palpable exam is not possible on what two muscles
Medial pterygoid and Lateral pterygoid
143
How is grading measaured in periodontal treatment?
Percentage bone loss / Age
144
Which type of dental material has the highest amount of compressive strength?`
amalgam
145
As a general rule, the lower teeth erupt before uppers.
This is true for primary teeth except for the ________
Thi is true for the permanent teeth except for the ________
Lateral incisor and second premolar
146
which disease of the blood is best described as a malignant proliferation of plasma cells and is common in the spine and long bones?
multiple myeloma
147
which of the following is the name for a complete blockage of a blood vessel?
infarction
148
Which kind of antibodies is a set of antibodies which respond to antigens from the core of a hepatitis virus but reduce in number after some months?
IgM
gM are anti Hbc (c for core) and respond first to the core antigens however they dwindle after 6 months and into chronic disease
IgG are also anti-HBc and respond to core and remain after IgM dwindles
Anti HBe are usually present when there is a high viral load
Anti HBs are anti-surface antigens and are important for making vaccines (e.g used in vax for hep B)
149
Which of these will cause activation of the renin-angiotensin system and can contribute to hypertension?
renal artery stenosis
150
Which Hepatitis C characteristic makes it harder to produce a vaccine?
Since hep C is an RNA virus, it has a variable genome
this means that it changes each time it is passed on to someone else
it is similar to influenza (another RNA virus) as flu requires a new vaccine each year
151
What is a typical cure strength of composite to enamel?
40 MPa
152
which cranial nerve is not involved in the gag reflex
7
5,9,10,12 are
153
Gas Exchange Failure (Type 1 respiratory failure) can be due to
Thickening of alveolar wall
Inadequate Number of alveoli (emphysema)
Mismatch between where air and blood goes in lungs- V-Q
154
Glass ionomer cement:
Long working time
Short setting time
Easy to use
Lower thermal conductivity and diffusivity than dentine
Higher compressive strength >170MPa
Most are radiopaque
Better marginal seal due to chemical bond to dentine and enamel
Only lining material to seal dentinal tubules - decreases microleakage and post op sesnitivity
RMGIC less soluble than GIC (solubility highest initially)
Fluoride release
Benzoyl iodides + benzoyl bromides are cytotoxic (kill residual cavity bacteria)
Complete cure needed for RMGIC as uncured HEMA is a chemical irritant
Only lining able to bond to restorative materials
May be possible to bond amalgam to tooth with RMGIC
155
Which of these is NOT a property of CoCr?
ductile
It is rigid so therefore not ductile. It has a high young's modulus which means it is rigid or in other words can withstand alot of stress and only experience a little strain
156
n youth, the angle of the mandible is more ______ than in adulthood until tooth loss in elderly.
acute
157
Which of the following is not an indication for anticoagulants?
thrombocythemia
excess platelets
but these are
Deep venous thrombosis (DVT)
Heart valve disease
Mechanical valves
Thrombophilia
158
Which tongue muscles are more superior?
intrinsic
159
When does the mastoid process become apparent in the developing cranium?
2 years
* conical prominence projecting from the undersurface of the mastoid portion of the
temporal bone.
* located behind the external acoustic meatus.
* distinct at around 2 years old.
160
The Suprahyoid muscles are the:
Digastric
Mylohyoid
Geniohyoid
Stylohyoid
161
The Infrahyoid muscles are the:
Sternohyoid
Sternothyroid
Omohyoid
Thyrohyoid
162
The tympanic ______ in the ear changes into the tympanic ______ with age.
ring changes into plate
163
What is achondroplasia?
Genetic defect of cartilage growth, only affects endochondrial ossification
164
Which of the following muscles is NOT innervated by CNV3:
Posterior belly of the digastric muscle
but
mylohyoid
tensor veli palatine
deep head of the medial pterygoid
and upper head of the lateral pterygoid
do
165
The medial border of the pterygopalatine fossa is:
perpendicular plate of the palatine bone
166
Which MOM matches this description:
Origin: superficial head: tuberosity of maxilla deep head: medial surface of lateral pterygoid plate
Insertion: (medial surface of) angle of mandible
Function: Protrusion and elevation od mandible
medial pterygoid
167
What is the cause of a medial cleft lip?
Incomplete fusion of medial nasal processes
168
Which of these papilla on the tongue is NOT involved in taste?
filiform
169
Which MOM matches this description:
Origin: Zygomatic arch
Insertion: Lateral surface and angle/ramus of the mandible
Function: Elevates mandible
masseter
170
What is the name of the suture between the 2 parietal bones?
saggital
Frontal + Parietal: Coronal
Parietals: Sagittal
Parietal + Occipital: Lambdoid
171
In which branch of CNV3 are there fibers from the glossopharyngeal nerve CNIX, which give parasympathetic innervation to the parotid gland?
auricotemporal nerve
172
Where is the origin of the SUPERFICIAL head of the medial pterygoid?
tuberosity of maxilla
173
Which branch of the trigeminal nerve exits the skull at the pterygopalatine fossa?
maxillary nerve
174
Which branch of the trigeminal nerve exits the skull at the infratemporal fossa?
mandibular nerve
175
Which of the following is the correct match between the nerve and the corresponding fossa?
posterior superior alveolar nerve - pterygomaxillary fissure
Greater and Lesser palatine nerves: Palatine canal
Posterior superior alveolar nerve: pterygomaxillary fissure
Infraorbital nerve: Infraorbital fissure
Nasopalatine nerve: sphenopalatine fossa
Pharyngeal nerve: palatovaginal canal
176
Which of these structures in the developing skull fuse first?
mental symphysis
1. Mental Symphysis:
unfused centre of mandible.
fusion by 7-8 months, before the 1st year
2. Metopic Suture
connective tissue structure which separates the two halves of the frontal bone of the
skull
it fuses at around the age of nine months then disappears around 6 years old
3. Anterior Fontanelle
soft diamond-shaped part at the front of the skull which allows for cranial growth
98% closed by the age of 2.
4. Occipital centres of ossification
centres of ossification fused or separated
fused by school age
5. Spheno-Occipital Synchrondosis
the cartilaginous union between the sphenoid and occipital bone at the base of the skull
closes 16 -25.
177
The mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve gives general sensory nerve innervation to the tongue (not taste), which part of the tongue does it innervate?
anterior 2/3rd
178
Which MOM matches this description?
Origin: lateral surface of lateral pterygoid plate
Insertion: superior: intra-articular disc inferior: head of the condoyle
Function: Lateral deviation and protrusion + depression
lateral pterygoid
179
Which branch of CNV3 carries special sensory fibers from the facial nerve (CN7) which give taste from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?
lingual nerve
180
Which of the following nerves are not in the posterior trunk of CNV3?
motor branches to all 4 mom
buccal nerve
181
egarding the relationship between V3 (mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve) and the facial nerve (CN VII), what is untrue about the innervation they supply?
Sympathetics to submandibular and sublingual glands via synapse at the submandibular ganglion
its PARA
and
Taste to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue
182
Which of these muscles are NOT a suprahyoid muscle?
omohyoid
but
Digastric
Mylohyoid
geniohyoid
stylohyoid
183
Which is the only muscle of mastication that doesn't elevate the mandible?
lateral pterygoid
Lateral Pterygoid function: lateral deviation and protrusion of mandible in addition to DEPRESSION of mandible
184
what is the origin of the Masseter muscle?
zygomatic arch
185
Which statement is incorrect about tooth development?
The growth of the inner and the outer enamel epithelium cells forms Hertwig's dentinal sheath, which determines the shape of the dentine.
he growth of the inner and the outer enamel epithelium cells forms Hertwig's ROOT sheath, which determines the shape of the ROOT
186
The function of the stratum intermedium includes
transportation of the nutrients to and from the enamel forming ameloblasts.
187
The function of the stellate reticulum is
to protect the underlying dental tissues and maintain the shape of the tooth.
188
What is the primary function of dental tubules with dentine?
contain odontoblast projections
189
Which of the following is not a stage of chewing?
stage ii transport
Ingestion - food from external to mouth, lips act as anterior oral seal as anteriors bite or cutlery used
Stage I transport - food gathers on the tip of the tongue which retracts to pull food to posteriors
Mechanical processing - food broken down and mixed with saliva, pre molars used too chew and soft foods squashed against hard palate by the tongue
Food processing - mandibular, supra hyoid and tongue muscles coordinate
190
What is the first movement in Posselt's envelope of motion?
rotation
191
Which of the following cranial nerves is not involved in gagging reflex?
facial
192
n which set of muscles do some of them assist in depression of the mandible?
supra hyoid
SUPRAHYOID Depressors:
Digastric
Mylohyoid
Genohyoid
non depressor: STYLOHYOID
193
Which of the Pterygoid muscles has superficial and a deep head rather than a superior and inferior head
medial
194
Which clotting factor can be released from being bound to endothelial cells by DDAVP/desmopressin?
factor 8
VIII
195
What is a normal result for the international normalised ratio (INR), when on Warfarin but with no heart valve replacements or DVT?
2-3
196
Dental aspects of Adrenal Dysfunction:
STEROID precautions may be needed
liase with physician for infections/illness
candidiasis in Cushings
oral pigmentation in Addison’s/Cushings
Crisis can occur in Addison's Disease:
Crisis:
hypotension
vomiting
eventual coma
Absence of MINERALOCORTICOID and mineralocorticoid effects of GLUCOCORTICOIDS
CRISIS takes time to develop
hypovolaemic shock
Hyponatraemia
197
Which of the following has the lowest endocarditis risk?
Atrial septal defect:
Patient with atrial septal defect will not show central cyanosis as oxygenated blood still pumped into aorta (but will increase workload)
Can cause atrium hypertrophy due to workload
Low endocarditis risk
198
In an individual with Addison's disease, which of the following combinations will be seen following adrenal disease investigations?
High ACTH & Low cortisol
199
Which is the correct order of secretion of hormones?
Cortisol releasing hormone > Adrenocorticotrophic hormone > Cortisol, Aldosterone, Dehydroepiandrosterone
200
What is the name for the disease that describes the destruction of adrenal tissue, above the kidneys (renal glands)?
addison's disease
201
excess adrenal function
cushing's
202
avoid sedatives in which thyroid problem
hypo
203
Which of the following may be found in the family history of someone with hashimoto's thyroiditis?
Type 1 diabetes
Vitiligo
Addisons disease
204
anterior pituitary
TSH - Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
ACTH - Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone
GH - Growth Hormone
LH, FSH, Prolactin
205
posterior pituitary
ADH - Anti Diuretic Hormone
Oxytocin
206
thyroidism values
Hypothyroid (pituitary cause): Low TSH and low T4
Hypothyroid (gland failure): High TSH and low T4
Hyperthyroid (pituitary cause) High TSH and high T3
Hyperthyroid (Graves or adenoma) Low TSH and high T3
207
Which of the following zones of the adrenal gland produce Cortisol?
zona fasicularis
zona glomerulosa
ALDOSTERONE (Renin/Angiotensin)
zona fasicularis
CORTISOL (Hypothalamus/Pituitary)
zona reticularis
ADRENAL ANDROGENS
208
What disease is associated with hyperkalaemia?
addison's
(high potassium due to absence of aldosterone)
209
Which condition more commonly causes a goitre?
hypothyroidism
A goitre is an enlarged/swollen thyroid gland.
Hypothyroidism is the result of an underactive thyroid gland. When the gland produces too little thyroid hormone, it is stimulated to produce more, leading to swelling.
210
Which of the following is a symptom of primary adrenal hypofunction/Addison's disease, rather than a symptom of primary adrenal hyperfunction/Cushing's disease?
hyperpigmentation
211
Which of the following treatments for hyperthyroidism gives the risk of hypothyroidism over time?
radioiodine
212
What is the definition of a D3 lesion
Clinically detectable lesions into dentine
213
Which strength of fluoride toothpaste should be given to a high risk patient under the age of 10?
1500 ppm
214
consent
Valid:
Current: patient hasnt changed mind
Recent: obtained recently enough
Specific: specific to proposed treatment
Legal:
Informed: Patient has enough info to give consent
Ability: Patient has ability to make an informed decision
Voluntary: Patient has made the decision themselves
215
which of the following is not a cause for dysphagia
oral apthous ulcer
coeliac disease
216
Why would GI absorption of vitamin b12 not be possible
Gastric parietal cell antibodies
Gastric disease or atrophy
Terminal ileal Crohns disease
Ile-caecal malignancy
217
hich of the following explains how paracetamol toxicity is reached when taken too frequently
zero order kinetics
218
What best describes a stage 3 lymphoma?
Two or more lymph node regions affected, above and below the diaphragm
219
platelet values for dental treatment
Lower than 100x109/L = primary care
Lower than 50x109/L = HOSPITAL CARE
Higher than 500x109/L = primary or hospital care
220
la
Local anaesthetics decrease the duration of the action potential
221
Which of these bacteria is known to be a cause of cellulitis?
s.pyogenes
222
Vaccinating for hepatitis B will also prevent you getting which other hepatitis virus?
D
Hepatitis D requires hepatitis B to be present in the blood already in order to replicate itself, therefore if there is vaccination of hep B, it won't be present and therefore hepatitis D won't be able to replicate in the blood
223
which virus is DNA virus?
hep b
Hep B is a DNA virus (partially double stranded)
Hep C is an RNA virus (single stranded)
HIV is also an RNA virus
224
Which type of hepatitis virus is commonly treated with direct-acting antiviral agents (DAA's)?
hep C
225
socrates
S - site
O - onset
C - character
R - radiation
A - associated symptoms
T - time
E - exacerbating factors
S - severity
226
Which statement is incorrect about burs?
Coarser burs have a lighter colour band around the neck of a bur.
The incorrect statement is C.
Coarser burs have a darker colour band around the neck of a bur.
The general colour coding for burs is as follows:
White = Super Fine
Yellow = Extra Fine
Red = Fine
Blue = Standard
Green = Coarse
Black = Super Coarse
227
What is the elastic modulus of hybrid composite?
14 GPa
228
Which statement about primary teeth is false?
There is some posterior spacing desired if there is to be no crowding in the permanent dentition
Occlusion
* Some ANTERIOR spacing in the primary dentition is desired if there is to be no crowding in the permanent
dentition.
* Leeway space is extra mesio-distal space occupied by the primary molars which are wider than the premolars which will replace them. Usually equates to 1.5mm per side on the upper arch and 2.5mm per side in the lower arch.
* Deciduous incisors are upright, which permanent incisors are ‘proclined’ leading to an increase in A-P arch length.
229
Which primary teeth can be called replicas/copies of permanent teeth?
2nd primary molars
230
In deciduous eruption, Teeth of the same series normally erupt within _______ months of their contra-lateral tooth.
3 months
231
What is also known as antrophoid space?
primate space
Antrophoid space is also known as primate space in primary teeth to avoid crowding of the permanent dentition.
Spacing mesial to upper canine
Spacing distal to lower canine
232
In deciduous tooth eruption, apexogenesis is complete around ________ years after eruption.
1,5 years
233
What is a contra indication for pulp treatment among children?
there is a root resorption
234
What is considered rapid attachment loss over a 5-year period?
> 2 mm
235
staging of perio
Bone loss at worst site
grading = age/worst site
