Random qs Flashcards
Thrombus formation in the venous side of the circulatory system is most
commonly attributable to
A. vessel endothelium injury.
B. increased blood flow.
C. decreased blood flow.
D. disseminated intravascular coagulation.
Virchow’s triad
C. Thrombus formation is due to three factors known as Virchow’s triad: injury
or abnormality of the endothelial wall of the vessel, decreased blood flow, and
changes in the normal process of coagulation. On the venous side, blood
pressure is lower (as compared to arterial blood) and most thrombi are formed
because of decreased blood flow.
Which of the following occurs in a patient experiencing hypovolemic shock?
A. Cardiac output is decreased, and systemic vascular resistance is increased.
B. Cardiac output is normal, and systemic vascular resistance is decreased.
C. Cardiac output is increased, and systemic vascular resistance is increased.
D. Cardiac output is decreased, and systemic vascular resistance is
decreased.
A. Hypovolemic shock is due to an inadequate volume of circulating blood,
thereby causing a decrease in venous return, which decreases cardiac output.
As compensation for the reduced cardiac output, vasoconstriction occurs, thus
increasing systemic vascular resistance.
COD~~~SVRi
Hypovolemic shock~CO decreased and SVR increased
What is a developmental defect resulting from an abnormality in the cellular organization or arrangement called? A. Disruption B. Malformation C. Dysplasia D. Deformation
C. Dysplasias are defects resulting from an abnormality in the cellular
organization or arrangement.
CODA
Cellular Organization~Dysplasia A
Neoplasms are the result of alterations or mutations in the DNA sequence by
carcinogens, which disrupt normal cell regulation. Tumor suppressor genes
are an example of a regulatory gene found in the body. Which of the following
alterations in the tumor suppressor gene may cause the development of a
neoplasm?
A. Mutation of both alleles of the tumor suppressor gene, causing
overexpression of the protein product
B. Mutation of one allele of the tumor suppressor gene, causing
overexpression of the protein product
C. Mutation of one allele of the tumor suppressor gene, causing inactivation of
the protein product
D. Mutation of both alleles of the tumor suppressor gene, causing inactivation
of the protein product
D. Tumor suppressor genes are recessive, so both alleles must be mutated for
neoplastic growth to occur.
mutation of both tumor suppressor gene alleles=inactivation of protein product
Which of the following substances released by endothelial cells is a potent vasodilator? A. Endothelin B. Vasopressin C. Dopamine D. Nitric oxide
D. Nitric oxide is a potent vasodilator released by the endothelial cells in
response to changes in blood pressure.
Which of the following substances released by endothelial cells is a potent vasoconstrictor? A. Nitric oxide B. Endothelin C. Renin D. Aldosterone
B. Overstimulation of the production of endothelin may cause hypertension.
Which patient will benefit most from atorvastatin 80 mg daily?
A. An 88-year-old man without diabetes with an ASCVD 10-year risk of 15%
and history of myopathies
B. A 55-year-old woman with diabetes and LDL-C 125 mg/dL and a 10-year
risk of 9.5%
C. A 65-year-old man without diabetes with a 10-year risk of 7.5% and LDL-C
69 mg/dL
D. A 32-year-old woman with no pertinent medical history and ASCVD score of
6% and LDL-C 90 mg/dL
B. A 55-year-old woman with diabetes and LDL-C 125 mg/dL and a 10-year
risk score of 9.5% meets criteria for benefiting from high-intensity statin
therapy.
How often should colorectal cancer screening by colonoscopy occur in men
and women older than 50 years if deemed to have an average risk?
A. Every 2 years
B. Every 5 years
C. Every 10 years
D. Every 20 years
C. A colonoscopy should occur every 10 years for colorectal cancer screening
in patients who have been determined to have an average risk.
Average Risk Colonoscopy 10 yrs
Goal fasting blood glucose levels for a diabetic patient should be between A. 80 and 130 mg/dL. B. 100 and 150 mg/dL. C. 90 and 200 mg/dL. D. 60 and 90 mg/dL.
A. The recommended goal fasting blood glucose levels for a patient with
diabetes should be between 80 and 130 mg/dL without symptoms of
hypoglycemia.
BO13O
A patient’s medical history does not include which of the following?
A. Chief complaint and history of patient illness
B. Treatment plan
C. Past medical history of patient and family
D. Social history of patient
B. Medical history should include chief complaint, history of patient illness, past
medical history of the patient and his or her family, and his or her social history.
It will not include the treatment plan; this plan should be in the SOAP notes.
In the patient’s physical assessment, inspection includes
A. observing the patient’s general physical and behavior appearance.
B. checking the patient’s blood pressure.
C. writing the SOAP notes.
D. obtaining the patient’s family history.
A. In the patient’s physical assessment, inspection includes observing the
patient’s general physical and behavior appearance before the next step of
examination of vital signs.
Which medication class does not potentially cause a false high glucose level? A. Loop diuretics B. Corticosteroids C. ACE inhibitors D. Isoniazid
C. A false high glucose level is associated with loop diuretics, corticosteroids,
and isoniazid but not with ACE inhibitors.
false DIC glucose
What is a normal blood pressure? A. Less than 140/90 mmHg B. Less than 130/80 mmHg C. Less than 120/70 mmHg D. Less than 120/80 mmHg
D. The recommended normal blood pressure should be less than 120/80
mmHg.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial therapy for a patient with
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease in addition to a prn short-acting inhaled
β2-agonist?
A. Inhaled corticosteroid
B. Theophylline
C. Long-acting inhaled anticholinergic
D. Short-acting inhaled anticholinergic
C. A long-acting anticholinergic (or a LABA) should be started with a prn
SABA. Short-acting anticholinergics have been replaced by long-acting agents.
Theophylline and ICS are reserved for more refractory patients.
An adult patient presents to your clinic with community-acquired pneumonia.
She does not require hospital admission and has no drug allergies or
significant comorbidities. Which of the following is the most appropriate
treatment?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Clindamycin
C. Doxycycline
D. Levofloxacin
C. Doxycycline is a first-line agent for treating outpatient CAP in adults without
comorbidities. Azithromycin or clarithromycin would also be acceptable.
Neither amoxicillin nor clindamycin has a broad enough spectrum for empiric
CAP treatment. Levofloxacin is reserved for patients with comorbidities or
other special situations (e.g., relapses, resistant pneumococcus).
Outpatient CAP doxy
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for a severe case of
Clostridium difficile–associated diarrhea in a hospitalized patient?
A. Oral metronidazole
B. IV metronidazole
C. Oral vancomycin
D. IV vancomycin
C. The therapy of choice for severe CDAD is po vancomycin. IV vancomycin is
not used in CDAD because it does not generate significant vancomycin levels
in the lumen of the GI tract. IV or po metronidazole is used for nonsevere
cases of CDAD.
Which of the following toxin antidotes and toxins are correctly matched? (Mark
all that apply.)
A. Atropine and anticholinesterase insecticides
B. Hydroxocobalamin and cyanide
C. Succimer and digoxin
D. Activated charcoal and lead
A, B. Atropine and hydroxocobalamin are correctly matched. Succimer is used
for lead poisoning, and activated charcoal does not significantly adsorb heavy
metals like lead.
Which of the following medications are not required to be packaged or
dispensed in a child-resistant container (safety cap)? (Mark all that apply.)
A. Acetaminophen with hydrocodone tablets
B. Nitroglycerin tablets
C. Aspirin tablets
D. Corticosteroid ointment
B, D. Child-resistant containers, also known as safety caps, are required for all
oral prescription drugs with the exception of drugs such as nitroglycerin.
Ointments do not require caps.
Which of the following antidotes would be categorized as one that reacts with a toxic metabolite of a drug? A. Acetylcysteine B. Activated charcoal C. Naloxone D. Pralidoxime
A. One of the major actions of acetylcysteine is to provide sulfhydryl groups in
the liver to detoxify an intermediary toxic metabolite of acetaminophen, Nacetyl-p-benzoquinoneimine.
Which of the following drugs for substance use disorder is an extendedrelease
IM injection or an intradermal implant? (Mark all that apply.)
A. Naltrexone
B. Buprenorphine
C. Methadone
D. Acamprosate
A, B. Naltrexone can be given as an IM injection monthly, and buprenorphine
is available as an implantable pellet that lasts for 6 months. The other drugs
are available in oral forms.
Which of the following is a treatment option for exposures to infectious
biological terrorist substances? (Mark all that apply.)
A. Administration of the appropriate antibiotic
B. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy
C. Decontamination of exposed skin with soap and water
D. Hemodialysis
A, C. The appropriate antibiotic, if one is available for the infectious agent, is
the best choice. If the person’s skin has been exposed to the infectious agent,
decontaminating the skin is also important to prevent further absorption and to
protect health care personnel. Methods of decontamination in addition to soap
and water may be needed. The other answer choices are not relevant for this
type of exposure unless other toxins or conditions exist.
Which of the following statements correctly defines epidemiology?
A. Epidemiology is the study of how disease is distributed in populations and what factors influence the disease
distribution.
B. Epidemiology is the study of how disease is distributed in sentinel sites and what factors influence the disease
development.
C. Epidemiology is the study of what factors cause a specific disease in populations.
D. Epidemiology is the study of causal relationships between diseases and their risk factors in populations.
A. Epidemiology is the study of how disease is distributed in populations and what factors influence the disease
distribution. Sentinel sites are an important component of active surveillance, but they are only a component of
pharmacoepidemiology. Though risk factors for disease are important, there are three components of disease: the host, the agent, and the environment. Epidemiological studies are not designed to identify causal relationships.
Epidemiology Distribution and factors for distribution
Which of the following is not part of the epidemiologic triad? A. Host B. Environment C. Agent D. Vector
D. The epidemiologic triad consists of the host, the agent, and the environment.
Which of the following measures the risk that a certain disease newly develops in a given population within a specified period? A. Incidence B. Prevalence C. Mortality D. Morbidity
A. Incidence measures the risk of developing a new disease. Prevalence is a measure of both new and old cases of
disease in a population at risk. Mortality is defined as death; whereas, mortality rate is a special type of incidence.
Morbidity is the negative effects of a disease, but it is not a rate.
