Random Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following are the three key attributes of the salience model?

A) Influence, Authority, and Need
B) Power, Legitimacy, and Urgency
C) Control, Importance, and Time-sensitivity
D) Strength, Rightfulness, and Criticality

A

Power, Legitimacy, and Urgency

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2
Q

The stakeholder salience model was proposed by which of the following groups of researchers?

A) Kotter and Schlesinger
B) Freeman and Reed
C) Mitchell, Agle, and Wood
D) Porter and Kramer

A

Mitchell, Agle, and Wood

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3
Q

In the salience model, stakeholders are prioritized based on:

A) Their financial contribution to the project
B) The number of stakeholders in each group
C) Their attributes of power, legitimacy, and urgency
D) The chronological order of their involvement

A

C) Their attributes of power, legitimacy, and urgency

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4
Q

Urgency’ in the salience model is determined by:

A) The stakeholder’s level of interest in the project
B) The stakeholder’s ability to affect the project’s outcomes
C) The time sensitivity of the stakeholder’s needs and the criticality of their claims
D) The stakeholder’s geographic proximity to the project

A

C) The time sensitivity of the stakeholder’s needs and the criticality of their claims

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5
Q

What does the Performance Measurement Baseline (PMB) primarily consist of?

A) Scope, Schedule, and Cost Baselines
B) Risk, Quality, and Procurement Plans
C) Stakeholder, Communication, and Resource Plans
D) Change Management Plan and Configuration Management Plan

A

A) Scope, Schedule, and Cost Baselines

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6
Q

Direct purchasing is typically characterized by:

A) Long-term supplier relationships
B) Immediate payment terms
C) Buying directly from the manufacturer
D) High-volume transactions

A

C) Buying directly from the manufacturer

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7
Q

In project purchasing, the procurement statement of work should be:

A) Flexible to allow for changes
B) As detailed as possible
C) General to encourage innovation
D) Based solely on price

A

B) As detailed as possible

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8
Q

Vendor-based purchasing focuses on:

A) Lowest price acquisition
B) Strategic relationship building
C) Centralized procurement decisions
D) Short-term contracts

A

Strategic relationship building

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9
Q

The main advantage of decentralized purchasing is:

A) Cost savings from bulk buying
B) Consistency in purchasing decisions
C) Faster response to local needs
D) Simplified supplier management

A

C) Faster response to local needs

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10
Q

A Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS) is used to:

A) Quantify risk impacts
B) Identify project risks
C) Assign risk owners
D) Monitor risk triggers

A

B) Identify project risks

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11
Q

Work logic in project management refers to:

A) The sequence of activities
B) The delegation of tasks
C) The work breakdown structure
D) The logical relationships between tasks

A

D) The logical relationships between tasks

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12
Q

Constrained logic in scheduling refers to:

A) Limitations due to resource availability
B) Constraints imposed by project stakeholders
C) Legal constraints affecting project execution
D) Technical dependencies between tasks

A

A) Limitations due to resource availability

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13
Q

Hard logic in a project schedule denotes:

A) Mandatory dependencies
B) Discretionary dependencies
C) External dependencies
D) Resource-driven dependencies

A

A) Mandatory dependencies

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14
Q

Which of the following best describes a supportive PMO?

a) The PMO has full control over the project resources.
b) The PMO provides support in the form of expertise, templates, and best practices.
c) The PMO directly manages the projects within the organization.
d) None of the above.

A

b) The PMO provides support in the form of expertise, templates, and best practices.

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15
Q

In a supportive PMO, the level of control over projects is:

a) High
b) Low
c) Moderate
d) None

A

b) Low

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16
Q

A directive PMO:

a) Provides project management templates and tools.
b) Directly controls and manages projects.
c) Has no control over projects and only offers advice.
d) None of the above.

A

b) Directly controls and manages projects.

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17
Q

In a directive PMO, the level of control over projects is:

a) High
b) Low
c) Moderate
d) None

A

a) High

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18
Q

A controlling PMO:

a) Provides support and requires compliance with specific processes.
b) Directly manages and controls projects.
c) Provides templates but does not require their use.
d) None of the above.

A

a) Provides support and requires compliance with specific processes.

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19
Q

In a controlling PMO, the level of control over projects is:

a) High
b) Low
c) Moderate
d) None

A

c) Moderate

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20
Q

Roles in Project Management: Which of the following statements is true?

A. The Project Manager is responsible for the product backlog.
B. The Scrum Master is responsible for the project budget.
C. The Project Sponsor is typically a senior executive in the organization with interest in the outcome of the project.
D. The Agile Coach is responsible for the day-to-day management of the project team.

A

Answer: C. The Project Sponsor is typically a senior executive in the organization with interest in the outcome of the project.

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21
Q

Organizational Structures: In which type of organizational structure does a team member report to both a functional manager and a project manager?

A. Functional
B. Project-oriented
C. Composite
D. Matrix

A

Answer: D. Matrix

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22
Q

Analysis Models: Which of the following statements is true?

A. The Kano Model focuses on classifying product attributes based on how they are perceived by customers and their impact on customer satisfaction.
B. The MoSCoW analysis is a prioritization technique used in project management to reach a common understanding with stakeholders on the importance of delivering certain requirements.
C. Both A and B are correct.
D. Neither A nor B is correct.

A

Answer: C. Both A and B are correct.

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23
Q

Roles in Agile Methodology: Which of the following roles is responsible for maximizing the value of the product resulting from the work of the Development Team?

A. Scrum Master
B. Product Owner
C. Team Lead
D. Facilitator

A

Answer: B. Product Owner

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24
Q

Composite Organizational Structure: In a composite organizational structure, who does a team member report to?

A. Only to the Functional Manager
B. Only to the Project Manager
C. Both the Functional Manager and the Project Manager
D. Neither the Functional Manager nor the Project Manager

A

Answer: C. Both the Functional Manager and the Project Manager

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25
Q

MoSCoW Analysis: In MoSCoW analysis, what does the “C” stand for?

A. Could have
B. Can have
C. Can’t have
D. Could not have

A

Answer: A. Could have

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26
Q

Kano Model: In the Kano Model, which category of needs refers to the attributes that users expect by default?

A. Performance needs
B. Basic needs
C. Excitement needs
D. Indifferent needs

A

Answer: B. Basic needs

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27
Q

A project manager is working on a project that is behind schedule. The project manager decides to add more resources to the project to adhere to the schedule. This is an example of which of the following schedule compression techniques?

A. Crashing
B. Fast Tracking
C. Resource Leveling
D. Lead Time

A

Answer: A. Crashing

Explanation: Crashing is a technique used to shorten the schedule duration for the least incremental cost by adding resources. It usually involves reducing the time it takes to complete an activity by adding resources to it.

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28
Q

During the execution phase of a project, a project manager notices that team members are not working synergistically. They are focused on their individual tasks and are not communicating effectively with each other. Which of the following should the project manager use to improve the situation?

A. Resource Histogram B. RACI Matrix C. Pareto Chart D. Ishikawa Diagram

A

Answer: B. RACI Matrix

Explanation: A RACI matrix defines roles and responsibilities and can help improve communication. RACI stands for Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed. It’s a simple tool for clarifying roles and responsibilities in cross-functional/departmental projects and processes.

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29
Q

The project sponsor has just signed off on the project charter. What is the next step in the project initiation process?

A. Develop the project management plan
B. Identify stakeholders C. Begin executing the project plan
D. Conduct a project review

A

Answer: B. Identify stakeholders

Explanation: After the project charter is approved, the next step in the project initiation process is to identify stakeholders. This is important because it helps the project manager understand who will be affected by the project and who has a vested interest in the project.

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30
Q

Which of the following is NOT typically a responsibility of a project sponsor?

A. Providing funding for the project
B. Making key business decisions related to the project
C. Managing the day-to-day operations of the project
D. Championing the project within the organization

A

Answer: C. Managing the day-to-day operations of the project

Explanation: The project sponsor is typically a senior executive in the organization with a vested interest in the project. They provide funding, make key business decisions, and champion the project within the organization. However, managing the day-to-day operations of the project is typically the responsibility of the project manager, not the project sponsor.

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31
Q

A project manager is preparing a project schedule and needs to estimate the duration of activities. Which of the following techniques would be the MOST useful?

A. Parametric Estimating B. Analogous Estimating C. Bottom-Up Estimating
D. Three-Point Estimating

A

Answer: D. Three-Point Estimating

Explanation: Three-Point Estimating is a technique that uses the optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimates to determine the best estimate. It is often used when there is uncertainty about the estimates.

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32
Q

During the project execution, a project manager finds that there is a variance between planned and actual results. What should the project manager do FIRST?

A. Adjust the baseline
B. Analyze the variance C. Inform the stakeholders
D. Change the project plan

A

Answer: B. Analyze the variance

Explanation: The first thing a project manager should do when a variance is detected is to analyze the variance. This involves understanding why the variance occurred and what its impact is on the project. Only after this analysis can appropriate corrective actions be determined.

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33
Q

In an Agile project, who is primarily responsible for prioritizing the product backlog?

A. Project Manager
B. Product Owner
C. Scrum Master
D. Team Lead

A

Answer: B. Product Owner

Explanation: In an Agile project, the Product Owner is responsible for managing and prioritizing the product backlog. They ensure that the team is working on the most valuable features and tasks.

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34
Q

Which of the following best describes the role of a project team?

A. Making strategic decisions about the project direction
B. Managing the project schedule and budget
C. Performing project tasks and producing deliverables
D. Resolving conflicts between stakeholders

A

Answer: C. Performing project tasks and producing deliverables

Explanation: The primary role of the project team is to perform the tasks necessary to produce the project deliverables. They are the ones who do the actual work of the project.

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35
Q

In a project, who is typically responsible for facilitating communication between the team and the stakeholders?

A. Project Sponsor
B. Team Member
C. Team Lead
D. Customer

A

Answer: C. Team Lead

Explanation: The Team Lead often acts as a liaison between the team and the stakeholders. They facilitate communication, manage expectations, and help resolve issues that may arise.

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36
Q

In a Scrum team, who is responsible for ensuring that the team adheres to Scrum theory, practices, and rules?

A. Product Owner
B. Scrum Master
C. Team Lead
D. Project Manager

A

Answer: B. Scrum Master

Explanation: The Scrum Master is responsible for ensuring that the team follows Scrum theory, practices, and rules. They act as a servant-leader for the Scrum Team and help everyone understand Scrum.

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37
Q

Which role is primarily responsible for guiding teams in the implementation of Agile methodologies, providing training, mentoring, and feedback?

A. Scrum Master
B. Agile Coach
C. Product Owner
D. Team Lead

A

Answer: B. Agile Coach

Explanation: An Agile Coach is responsible for guiding teams in the implementation of Agile methodologies. They provide training, mentoring, and feedback to help the team improve their Agile practices.

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38
Q

In a meeting, who is typically responsible for guiding the process, ensuring that the agenda is followed, and that everyone has an opportunity to participate?

A. Project Manager
B. Scrum Master
C. Facilitator
D. Team Lead

A

Answer: C. Facilitator

Explanation: A Facilitator guides the process during meetings. They ensure that the agenda is followed and that everyone has an opportunity to participate. They help the group make decisions and reach consensus.

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39
Q

In which type of organizational structure does a team member have more than one boss?

A. Functional
B. Project-oriented
C. Composite
D. Matrix

A

Answer: D. Matrix

Explanation: In a Matrix organizational structure, team members report to both the functional manager and the project manager, effectively having two bosses.

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40
Q

Which organizational structure is characterized by team members being grouped by specialty (e.g., all engineers in one department, all marketers in another, etc.)?

A. Functional
B. Project-oriented
C. Composite
D. Matrix

A

Answer: A. Functional

Explanation: In a Functional organizational structure, employees are grouped by their similar skills and expertise, which allows for a high degree of specialization.

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41
Q

In which type of organizational structure are resources dedicated to specific projects and project managers have a great deal of independence and authority?

A. Functional
B. Project-oriented
C. Composite
D. Matrix

A

Answer: B. Project-oriented

Explanation: In a Project-oriented organizational structure, teams are organized around the project. The project manager has a great deal of independence and authority, and resources are dedicated to specific projects.

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42
Q

Which organizational structure is a hybrid of functional and project-oriented structures, where team members might report to two bosses, but still stay within the same functional divisions?

A. Functional
B. Project-oriented
C. Composite
D. Matrix

A

Answer: C. Composite

Explanation: A Composite organizational structure is a combination of functional and project-oriented structures. It allows for the benefits of both structures, with team members possibly reporting to two bosses, but still staying within their functional divisions.

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43
Q

In MoSCoW analysis, which category represents requirements that are considered nice to have but not necessary for delivery?

A. Must have
B. Should have
C. Could have
D. Won’t have

A

Answer: C. Could have

Explanation: In MoSCoW analysis, “Could have” requirements are those that are considered nice to have but are not necessary for delivery. They are typically low-cost improvements that can enhance system functionality without significantly impacting the system’s overall functionality.

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44
Q

Which of the following best describes the Kano Model?

A. A prioritization framework used to categorize requirements into Must have, Should have, Could have, and Won’t have.
B. A model used to predict customer satisfaction with various product features.
C. A model used to manage project risks and prioritize risk mitigation strategies.
D. A framework used to map the stakeholders of a project and analyze their influence and interest.

A

Answer: B. A model used to predict customer satisfaction with various product features.

Explanation: The Kano Model is a theory of product development and customer satisfaction developed by Professor Noriaki Kano. It classifies customer preferences into five categories: Attractive, One-Dimensional, Must-Be, Indifferent, and Reverse.

45
Q

In MoSCoW analysis, which category represents requirements that are not planned into delivery timeframes but are considered for future deliveries?

A. Must have
B. Should have
C. Could have
D. Won’t have

A

Answer: D. Won’t have

Explanation: In MoSCoW analysis, “Won’t have” requirements are those that are not planned into delivery timeframes but are considered for future deliveries.

46
Q

Which category in MoSCoW analysis represents requirements that are important but not necessary for delivery?

A. Must have
B. Should have
C. Could have
D. Won’t have

A

Answer: B. Should have

Explanation: In MoSCoW analysis, “Should have” requirements are those that are important but not necessary for delivery.

47
Q

In MoSCoW analysis, which category represents requirements that must be met for the project to be considered a success?

A. Must have
B. Should have
C. Could have
D. Won’t have

A

Answer: A. Must have

Explanation: In MoSCoW analysis, “Must have” requirements are those that must be met for the project to be considered a success.

48
Q

What does the ‘S’ in MoSCoW stand for?

A. Should
B. Shall
C. Someday
D. Sometimes

A

Answer: A. Should

Explanation: The ‘S’ in MoSCoW stands for “Should”, as in “Should have”. This represents requirements that are important but not necessary for delivery.

49
Q

Which of the following best describes MoSCoW analysis?

A. A model used to predict customer satisfaction with various product features.
B. A prioritization framework used to categorize requirements into Must have, Should have, Could have, and Won’t have.
C. A model used to manage project risks and prioritize risk mitigation strategies.
D. A framework used to map the stakeholders of a project and analyze their influence and interest.

A

Answer: B. A prioritization framework used to categorize requirements into Must have, Should have, Could have, and Won’t have.

Explanation: MoSCoW analysis is a prioritization technique used in project management and business analysis. It helps stakeholders understand the importance of each requirement, making it easier to decide what to focus on. The term MoSCoW itself is an acronym, where:
* M stands for Must: These are requirements that must be satisfied in the final solution.
* S stands for Should: These are important but not necessary requirements.
* C stands for Could: These are nice-to-have requirements.
* W stands for Won’t: These are requirements that won’t be implemented in this delivery, but may be considered for the future.

50
Q

What is the communication model?

A

Sender, Encoder, Medium, Decoder, Receiver, Acknowledgement

51
Q

In the communication model, who is responsible for transforming the message into a suitable format for transmission?

A) Sender
B) Encoder
C) Medium
D) Decoder
E) Receiver

A

Answer: B) Encoder

52
Q

Which component of the communication model is the means by which the message is transmitted from the sender to the receiver?

A) Sender
B) Encoder
C) Medium
D) Decoder
E) Receiver

A

Answer: C) Medium

53
Q

In the communication model, who is responsible for interpreting the received message and extracting its meaning?

A) Sender
B) Encoder
C) Medium
D) Decoder
E) Receiver

A

Answer: D) Decoder

54
Q

Complexity within projects is a result of the organization’s _____ behavior, _____ behavior, and the __ __ __ in the organization or its environment

A

Complexity within projects is a result of the organization’s system behavior, human behavior, and the uncertainty at work in the organization or its environment

55
Q

In PERT analysis, what does the abbreviation PERT stand for?

A) Project Evaluation and Resource Tracking
B) Program Evaluation and Resource Technique
C) Project Evaluation and Review Technique
D) Program Evaluation and Review Tool

A

Answer: C) Project Evaluation and Review Technique

56
Q

In PERT analysis, what are the three estimates used to calculate the Expected Duration of an activity?

A) Most Likely Time, Optimistic Time, and Pessimistic Time
B) Average Time, Best Time, and Worst Time
C) Mean Time, Median Time, and Mode Time
D) Critical Time, Baseline Time, and Benchmark Time

A

Answer: A) Most Likely Time, Optimistic Time, and Pessimistic Time

57
Q

Which statistical distribution is commonly used in PERT analysis to calculate the Expected Duration of an activity?

A) Normal Distribution
B) Poisson Distribution
C) Binomial Distribution
D) Exponential Distribution

A

Answer: A) Normal Distribution

58
Q

___ diagrams allow large numbers of ideas to be classified for review and analysis.

A

Affinity diagrams allow large numbers of ideas to be classified for review and analysis.

59
Q

ChatGPT
You would use an Affinity diagram primarily for which of the following purposes?

A) Identifying critical paths in a project schedule
B) Organizing large amounts of unstructured data or ideas
C) Calculating the expected duration of project activities
D) Monitoring resource utilization in a project

A

Answer: B) Organizing large amounts of unstructured data or ideas

60
Q

In which phase of the project management process is an Affinity diagram most likely to be utilized effectively?

A) Project Execution
B) Project Initiation
C) Project Monitoring and Controlling
D) Project Planning

A

Answer: D) Project Planning

61
Q

In which phase of the project management process is a cause-and-effect diagram commonly used to identify potential root causes of a problem or issue?

A) Project Execution
B) Project Initiation
C) Project Monitoring and Controlling
D) Project Planning

A

Answer: D) Project Planning

62
Q

What is the primary purpose of a cause-and-effect diagram?

A) Organizing large amounts of unstructured data or ideas
B) Identifying critical paths in a project schedule
C) Identifying potential root causes of a problem or issue
D) Monitoring resource utilization in a project

A

Answer: C) Identifying potential root causes of a problem or issue

63
Q

Which tool is most appropriate for organizing a brainstorming session aimed at identifying the causes of a quality problem within a project?

A) Gantt chart
B) Pareto chart
C) Cause-and-effect diagram
D) Scatter diagram

A

Answer: C) Cause-and-effect diagram

64
Q

What does a zero float in a project schedule signify?
A. The project is behind schedule
B. The project is ahead of schedule
C. There is no flexibility in the schedule
D. The project has been completed

A

C. There is no flexibility in the schedule

65
Q

Which of the following is true about free float?
A. It is the total time that you can delay a task without delaying the project more than its targeted finish date
B. It is the total time that you can delay a task without delaying the start of any immediate successor tasks
C. It is the total time for which a project can be delayed without delaying the project completion date
D. None of the above

A

B. It is the total time that you can delay a task without delaying the start of any immediate successor tasks

66
Q

Float is calculated as:
A. Early Start - Early Finish
B. Late Start - Early Start
C. Late Finish - Early Finish
D. Early Finish - Late Start

A

C. Late Finish - Early Finish

67
Q

Which of the following best describes slack time in project management?
A. The total time that you can delay a task without delaying the project more than its targeted finish date
B. The earliest time at which a task can start
C. The difference between the time available to complete a task and its duration
D. The latest time by which a task has to be completed

A

A. The total time that you can delay a task without delaying the project more than its targeted finish date

68
Q

If a task has a slack of 10 days, which of the following is true?
A. The task can be delayed by up to 10 days without delaying the project
B. The task must be completed in 10 days
C. The task is critical to project completion
D. The task has no dependencies

A

A. The task can be delayed by up to 10 days without delaying the project

69
Q

Slack is calculated as:
A. Early Start - Early Finish
B. Late Start - Early Start
C. Late Finish - Early Finish
D. Early Finish - Late Start

A

C. Late Finish - Early Finish

70
Q

Total float is owned by:
A. The project manager
B. The project team
C. The project stakeholders
D. All of the above

A

A. The project manager

71
Q

If the total float of a project is zero, then:
A. The project is on schedule
B. The project is ahead of schedule
C. The project is behind schedule
D. The project schedule cannot be determined

A

A. The project is on schedule

72
Q

Total float is calculated as:
A. Late Finish - Early Finish
B. Late Start - Early Start
C. Early Start - Late Finish
D. Early Finish - Late Start

A

A. Late Finish - Early Finish

73
Q

The critical path of a project:
A. Is the sequence of tasks that must be completed on time for the project to meet its deadline
B. Can have slack time
C. Is always the shortest path through the project
D. Is the sequence of tasks with the most resources assigned

A

A. Is the sequence of tasks that must be completed on time for the project to meet its deadline

74
Q

If a task on the critical path is delayed, what will be the impact on the project?
A. The project will be delayed
B. The project cost will increase
C. The project scope will change
D. The project risk will increase

A

A. The project will be delayed

75
Q

Which of the following statements about the critical path is true?
A. There can be multiple critical paths in a project
B. The critical path cannot change once it is determined
C. The critical path always includes all the tasks in the project
D. The critical path is always the path with the fewest tasks

A

A. There can be multiple critical paths in a project

76
Q

____ is the amount of float that can be delayed without affecting the early start of a
successor activity.

A

Free float

77
Q

___ is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without affecting the project completion date.

A

Total float

78
Q

What is a composite organizational structure?
A. A structure where employees report to multiple managers
B. A structure where employees report to a single manager
C. A structure that combines functional and project organizational structures
D. A structure that is flat with few levels of management

A

C. A structure that combines functional and project organizational structures

79
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of a composite organizational structure?
A. It allows for specialization
B. It reduces the workload of managers
C. It eliminates the possibility of conflicts
D. It simplifies decision making

A

It allows for specialization

80
Q

In a composite organizational structure, who does a team member report to?
A. The project manager only
B. The functional manager only
C. Both the project manager and the functional manager
D. Neither the project manager nor the functional manager

A

Both the project manager and the functional manager

81
Q

What does the Kano model help to understand?
A. The financial viability of a project
B. The risks associated with a project
C. The customer’s perception of a product’s features
D. The project team’s performance

A

C. The customer’s perception of a product’s features

82
Q

In the Kano model, which category of needs leads to dissatisfaction when not fulfilled but does not lead to satisfaction when fulfilled?
A. Performance needs
B. Basic needs
C. Excitement needs
D. Indifferent needs

A

B. Basic needs

83
Q

According to the Kano model, over time, excitement needs become:
A. Basic needs
B. Performance needs
C. Indifferent needs
D. Unspoken needs

A

A. Basic needs

84
Q

All of the following options are key concepts of value stream mapping except?
1. It typically consists of creating two maps: the “as is” map and the “to be” map
2. It is a “pull-oriented tool”, used to track the status of stories or tasks
3. It is used to systematically eliminate waste and deliver value to the customer faster and more sustainably
4. It visually maps all actions from initial customer request through delivery

A

B. It is a “pull-oriented tool”, used to track the status of stories or tasks
Explanation: This description is related to Kanban.

85
Q

What is velocity in the context of Agile project management?
A. The speed at which a team completes work
B. The direction in which a team is moving
C. The amount of work a team can complete in a specific time period
D. The number of tasks a team can handle at once

A

C. The amount of work a team can complete in a specific time period

86
Q

How is velocity calculated in Scrum?
A. By dividing the total number of story points completed by the number of sprints
B. By multiplying the total number of story points completed by the number of sprints
C. By adding the total number of story points completed to the number of sprints
D. By subtracting the total number of story points completed from the number of sprints

A

A. By dividing the total number of story points completed by the number of sprints

87
Q

What does a high velocity indicate in an Agile project?
A. The team is overworked
B. The team is not working hard enough
C. The team is able to complete a large amount of work in a short time
D. The team is struggling to complete tasks

A

C. The team is able to complete a large amount of work in a short time

88
Q

Which of the following documents assesses changes in team members’ skills, staff turnover metrics, tangible signs of interdependence (e.g. members assisting one another, sharing information), and overall team competencies?

A

Team performance assessment

Explanation:The team performance assessment examines overall team effectiveness by assessing changes in team members’ skills, staff turnover metrics, tangible signs of interdependence (e.g. members assisting one another, sharing information), and overall team competencies. Substandard performance results in modified plans to increase team effectiveness such as coaching, training, or other changes.

89
Q

According to Derby and Larsen (2006), what are the five sequential stages of conducting an effective retrospective to Maximize Inspection and Adaptation?

A

Set the stage, gather data, generate insights, plan responses, close the retrospective

Explanation: These are the correct, sequential phases described in the authors’ book.

90
Q

The team is designing a new version of the accounts payable system. They decide to create two diagrams. First, they’ll create one that shows the current system, as this will help to identify strengths and sources of waste. Then, they’ll create a second diagram that shows the system to be developed. Which of the following tools is the team most likely using?

A

Value stream mapping

Explanation: Value stream mapping is a tool that visually maps all actions from initial customer request through delivery. The goal is to systematically eliminate waste and deliver value to the customer faster and more sustainably.

91
Q

What is the primary purpose of Value Stream Mapping?
A. To visualize the flow of materials and information through the organization
B. To create a detailed project schedule
C. To assign roles and responsibilities within the team
D. To calculate the budget for a project

A

A. To visualize the flow of materials and information through the organization

92
Q

In Value Stream Mapping, what does the term ‘takt time’ refer to?
A. The total time available for work
B. The rate at which a finished product needs to be completed in order to meet customer demand
C. The amount of time it takes to complete one cycle of a process
D. The time it takes for a product to move from one workstation to the next

A

B. The rate at which a finished product needs to be completed in order to meet customer demand

93
Q

Which of the following is NOT a typical component of a Value Stream Map?
A. Material and information flow paths
B. Timeline of process steps
C. Data boxes with process metrics
D. Organizational chart

A

D. Organizational chart

94
Q

Which of the following is NOT typically included in a Benefits Management Plan?

A. The benefits owner who is responsible for realizing the benefits
B. The metrics used to measure the benefits
C. The detailed project schedule
D. The timeframe for realizing the benefits

A

Answer: C

95
Q

You are a project manager and your project is nearing completion. The Benefits Management Plan was created at the beginning of the project. What should be your next step with respect to the Benefits Management Plan?

A. Archive the Benefits Management Plan as the project is nearly complete
B. Review and update the Benefits Management Plan to reflect the current state of the project
C. Use the Benefits Management Plan to create the project’s final report
D. Hand over the Benefits Management Plan to the project sponsor and close the project

A

Answer: B

96
Q

What does Free Float in project scheduling represent?

A. The total amount of time that you can delay a task without delaying the project
B. The amount of time that you can delay a task without delaying its successor tasks
C. The amount of time a project has been delayed due to unforeseen circumstances
D. The total amount of time a task can be extended without affecting the project cost

A

Answer: B

97
Q

If a task has a Free Float of 0 days, what does this imply?

A. The task is not critical and can be delayed without affecting the project schedule
B. The task is critical and any delay will affect the project schedule
C. The task can be delayed without affecting its successor tasks
D. The task has no successor tasks

A

Answer: B

98
Q

You are managing a construction project. Task A has a Free Float of 5 days, and Task B, which is dependent on Task A, has a Free Float of 3 days. If Task A is delayed by 4 days, what will be the impact on Task B?

A. Task B will be delayed by 4 days
B. Task B will be delayed by 1 day
C. Task B will not be delayed
D. Task B will be delayed by 2 days

A

Answer: C

99
Q

You are the project manager of a software development project. During a project review, you notice that a critical task has a Free Float of 0 days. What should be your immediate course of action?

A. Delay the task to adjust the project schedule
B. Start the task immediately to avoid any delay in the project
C. Ignore the Free Float as it does not impact the project schedule
D. Assign more resources to the task to complete it faster

A

Answer: B

100
Q

What does Total Float in project scheduling represent?

A. The total amount of time that you can delay a task without delaying the project
B. The amount of time that you can delay a task without delaying its successor tasks
C. The amount of time a project has been delayed due to unforeseen circumstances
D. The total amount of time a task can be extended without affecting the project cost

A

Answer: A

101
Q

If a task has a Total Float of 0 days, what does this imply?

A. The task is not critical and can be delayed without affecting the project schedule
B. The task is critical and any delay will affect the project schedule
C. The task can be delayed without affecting its successor tasks
D. The task has no successor tasks

A

Answer: B

102
Q

You are managing a construction project. Task A has a Total Float of 5 days, and Task B, which is dependent on Task A, has a Total Float of 3 days. If Task A is delayed by 4 days, what will be the impact on Task B?

A. Task B will be delayed by 4 days
B. Task B will be delayed by 1 day
C. Task B will not be delayed
D. Task B will be delayed by 2 days

A

Answer: A

103
Q

You are the project manager of a software development project. During a project review, you notice that a critical task has a Total Float of 0 days. What should be your immediate course of action?

A. Delay the task to adjust the project schedule
B. Start the task immediately to avoid any delay in the project
C. Ignore the Total Float as it does not impact the project schedule
D. Assign more resources to the task to complete it faster

A

Answer: B

104
Q

What does Project Float in project scheduling represent?

A. The total amount of time that you can delay the project without delaying the project end date
B. The amount of time that you can delay a task without delaying its successor tasks
C. The amount of time a project has been delayed due to unforeseen circumstances
D. The total amount of time a task can be extended without affecting the project cost

A

Answer: A

105
Q

If a project has a Project Float of 0 days, what does this imply?

A. The project is not critical and can be delayed without affecting the project end date
B. The project is critical and any delay will affect the project end date
C. The project can be delayed without affecting its successor tasks
D. The project has no successor tasks

A

Answer: B

106
Q

You are managing a construction project. The project has a Project Float of 5 days. If a critical task is delayed by 4 days, what will be the impact on the project end date?

A. The project end date will be delayed by 4 days
B. The project end date will be delayed by 1 day
C. The project end date will not be delayed
D. The project end date will be delayed by 2 days

A

Answer: C

107
Q

You are the project manager of a software development project. During a project review, you notice that the project has a Project Float of 0 days. What should be your immediate course of action?

A. Delay the project to adjust the project schedule
B. Start the critical tasks immediately to avoid any delay in the project
C. Ignore the Project Float as it does not impact the project schedule
D. Assign more resources to the project to complete it faster

A

Answer: B

108
Q
A