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Conrad Notes > Random Questions > Flashcards

Random Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Where will you find cockpit oxygen requirements?

A

Limitations

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2
Q

Why does the blue hydraulic system have a guarded switch?

A

For Emer Elec Config

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3
Q

Passenger scenario involving violence with the cabin attendants, but not breach of flight-deck

A

OMB

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4
Q

How is alternate fuel calculated?

A

MCDU is CI 0, and flight plan is 0.

  • Aircraft weight being equal to landing weight at destination
  • FL100 less than 100NM, FL220 less then 200NM otherwise FL310
  • CI = 0
  • Constant Wind, Delta ISA
  • Airway distance for company route, otherwise direct distance
  • Initial aircraft weight equal to landing weight at primary destination
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5
Q

What is perf and idle on AC status page?

A

Perf modifies fuel predictions throughout the flight and idle factor adjusts the vertical profile from TOD to the first altitude constraint DSC 22.

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6
Q

What do all the TCAS selections do?

A 
ABV =  +9900  to -2700  
BLW =  -9900 to +2700 
ALL = +/-2700
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7
Q

What is indicated on PFD when Alternate or Direct law?

A

VSW and VLS

Stall warning speed and lowest selectable speed

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8
Q

What are the required documents?

A

Part A

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9
Q

Max difference between headings on both NDs’s?

A

4 degrees

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10
Q

Max difference ALT on PFDs?

A

20ft

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11
Q

Max difference between STBY and PFD ALT?

A

300ft (no vibrator)

60ft ISIS

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12
Q

Where will you find how to operate the cargo door?

A

FCOM - PERF - LOADING

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13
Q

When will oxygen indicate Amber?

A

QRH Advisories: 400 PSI

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14
Q

What is the assumption if oil pressure is below 60 psi and there is no OIL LOW PR warning?

A

QRH Advisories: A faulty transducer can be assumed to be the problem.

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15
Q

If a DU has a diagonal line through it, what is the problem?

A

DMC Fault

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16
Q

If a fuel leak is confirmed from the engine, can you the re- open the cross feed valve?

A

QRH Fuel Leak states YES

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17
Q

How does GS mini work?

A

FCTM. Difference between Wind on ND and Wind in MCDU (reported ATIS/TWR wind).

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18
Q

Why do some of the older aircraft with no BUSS require one ADR left switched on with unreliable Airspeed?

A

Because the AOA probe info is fed directly to each individual ADR for stall information, so if they are all turned off, there will be no stall warning.

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19
Q

How many miles should an active cell be passed by?

A

FCTM: Upwind, 20 Nm

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20
Q

With a DUAL ENG FAILURE, why is the speed 280 so important?

A

To prevent engine core lock

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21
Q

How many strikers are required for the cockpit door to still be considered to be un-breachable?

A

Two Strikers

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22
Q

Explain the cargo smoke panel on the overhead panel?

A

Bottles?
Agents?
Nozzles?
Discharge Time?

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23
Q

If a passenger decides to leave the aircraft, what is then required to be done?

A

An inspection of two rows ahead and behind where the passenger was sitting, and over head lockers, if there is baggage unclaimed by remaining passengers then offload it. OMB

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24
Q

Can a passenger bring syringes onto the aircraft?

A

OMB and OMA: Yes

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25
Q

What altitude will the cabin altitude start to pulse green?

A

QRH Advisories: 8800 FPM

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26
Q

What is the significance of 200 miles?

A

If the alternate is less than 200 miles away, the level planned is FL220. If greater than 200 miles, level planned is FL 310.

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27
Q

After landing a brake temp appears XX, can we still dispatch? Is there anything we can try?

A

BSCU Reset. Refer MEL, graphs for brake temps.

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28
Q

In climb at FL 250, what would you do now if you had unreliable airspeed?

A 
"Unreliable airspeed"
AP.... OFF
FD.... OFF
A/THR.... OFF
Maintain current pitch, set THR to green doughnut or CLB

QRH states, “if the safety of flight is impacted:”

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29
Q

What colour is the MEA on a high level chart and low level chart?

A

Blue for low level and black for hi level. Navtech chart legend

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30
Q

If you have a L/G BRK Main Wheel fault why do we leave the gear down?

A

So the wheel doesn’t spin inside the fuselage

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31
Q

What is the value of VLS at take off and landing?

A

1.13 at takeoff, then 1.23 with one stage retraction, then 1.28 clean. Approach is 1.23 VS1G. PRO-SUP

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32
Q

If duty is extended through commanders discretion, how much does a rest period need to be extended by?

A

OMA Ch. 7: Rest must be extended by the same amount as extension.

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33
Q

If ice accretion configured 3, what increase will need to be made to approach speed? Any other considerations?

A

VLS+10

LDA from QRH IFL

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34
Q

Can you select backup radio navigation on the RMP in flight with causing any problems?

A

Yes

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35
Q

With dual FMGC failure, will you still have auto thrust? Anything else that we lose?

A

No.
Manually set LDG ELEV.
VREF Speeds

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36
Q

What are the requirements for SRS to engage?

A

For take off, V2 inserted into MCDU, config 1/2/3, TOGA or FLEX and on the ground for more than 30 seconds. For a go around, at least config 1 selected, TOGA selected, on the ground for less than 30 seconds.

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37
Q

What does SRS command?

A

On take off, V2 to V2 plus 10 with two engines. V2 to V2 plus 15 with one engine. DSC 22. Normal max pitch of 18 degrees and 22.5 for wind shear. DSC 22. For go around, VLS up to plus 25 max for two engines and VLS up to plus 15 max for engine out. DSC 22

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38
Q

If the thrust is locked, how often will you hear a chime?

A

Every 5 seconds. DSC 22

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39
Q

Max speed for flight with gear down?

A

235 KTS. PRO-SUP 25.

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40
Q

Can you reset a tripped circuit breaker?

A

Only when ECAM/OEB/FCOM/QRH procedure requests to reset, or System Reset Table permits.

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41
Q

How long should a reset take?

A

5 seconds for a CB, 3 seconds for a switch, unless otherwise states in QRH reset.

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42
Q

When is predictive wind shear inhibited?

A

Above 100 kt up to 50 ft.

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43
Q

Pitch call out for A320/321?

A

10 degrees 320, 7.5 degrees 321.

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44
Q

Why does the EDG chart have a higher grid lower safe?

A

Counts for Wind. Same as the flight plan MRA with the extra 1000 ft.

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45
Q

What would you do if during an auto start and 10 seconds into the dry crank the screens disappear?

A

Pull the master back, no fuel has been introduced so no need for dry crank. APU shut down?

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46
Q

Do you need to amend the load sheet if trip fuel changes due to a new ZFW?

A

If trip fuel changes by more than 200 kilos then yes.

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47
Q

At what point can you select the missed approach altitude on an RNAV?

A

When it says FINAL APP, or at FDP for Selected.

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48
Q

What speed does the anti skid start working?

A

20 kt

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49
Q

Why is only half speed brake available with the autopilot on in the A320?

A

The 320 has 40degrees speed brake deflection and is limited to 25 degrees with autopilot, the 321 has a total deflection of 25 degrees and is available with autopilot on.

50
Q

Can you take of or land in light freezing rain?

A

Yes

51
Q

If the is a release for flight and there is no maintenance in the tech log, what is the reason?

A

Entry in Cabin Log

52
Q

Can you land with the centre tank pumps feeding in the A320?

A

Yes, the limitation is only for take off.

53
Q

Can you select a PACKS OFF takeoff in the ACARS RTOW and use FLEX?

A

No, must hard tune TOGA in ACARS RTWO data

54
Q

Where can you find the reference in the QRH for SO/JFO/FO crosswind and visibility limits?

A

QRH Company procedures, wind component chart. Part A, crew qualifications

55
Q

What is the decel rate for A/BRK LOW?

A

1.7 m/s, 4 seconds after ground spoiler deployment.

56
Q

When do you have to turn the wing anti ice off?

A

If not in severe icing and selection of CONFIG FULL

57
Q

Explain the BLEED page on SD page?

A

.

58
Q

Explain the ELEC page on SD page?

A

.

59
Q

How long till the DC BUSS to take to power DC BUSS 1 in the event of an AC BUSS 1 fault?

A

5 seconds

60
Q

If the cockpit door camera is broken, what additional crew are required?

A

An additional crew member is required for the flight to ensure the door can be operated.

61
Q

How long after arrival at the gate should the APU be shut down if you have ground power?

A

5 minutes

62
Q

When is the securing the aircraft check required?

A

4 hours turnaround

63
Q

Can a pilot change the printer paper in the ACARS, and if so where is the reference?

A

Yes, PRO-SUP 46

64
Q

How can you order a new flight plan and what three options do you have?

A

PRO-SUP 46: T1/T2/T3 front page, flight and fuel log, full CFP.

65
Q

How can you contact medlink?

A

ACARS FREE TEXT TITLE: MED

66
Q

If you have left the flaps extended after landing due to runway contamination, how will you retract the flaps and how will you monitor retraction?

A

PRO NOR SUP ADVWXR P7/14 contaminated runway has the procedure, monitor retraction on Ecam page.

67
Q

Can you use the PROG page to select an MSA based on a navaid?

A

Yes, provided GPS PRIMARY

68
Q

Is an MOR required after an RA?

A

Yes

69
Q

Where can you find info regarding de icing?

A

QRH, FCOM PRO-SUP-ADVWXR and OMA

70
Q

Are hold over times valid for moderate snow?

A

Yes but not for moderate or heavy freezing rain or hail or heavy snow.

71
Q

Where can you find the description of critical aircraft surfaces?

A

PRO-NOR-SUP-ADVWXR in the exterior inspection section it has a note in brackets describing the surfaces.
Flaps/Slats, RADOME, Engine intake, some examples

72
Q

If you have briefed a manual thrust approach, when do you need it disconnected by?

A

1000ft PRO-SUP AUTOTHRUST

73
Q

When does the FMGC lock out in Appr?

A

700ft RA

74
Q

What happens when you activate appr phase?

A

speeds are based on current a/c weight

75
Q

When does flap two need to be selected by?

A

2000’ AGL SOPs, unless intercepting glidepath from below 2000’ then at 1 dot below flight path.

76
Q

What is the procedure for nose wheel steering offset?

A

It’s in pro sup. 0.5 degrees nosewheel and 3.0 degrees rudder, 1.5 degrees nose wheel and 8.8 rudder. Above that is immediate maintenance.

77
Q

How can you select max rate of climb?

A

Roughly Turb Penetration Speed 275kt

78
Q

How can you select best angle of climb?

A

CI = 0 (green dot speed)

79
Q

Below what height is TA inhibited?

A

1000ft AAL

80
Q

What happens to the REC MAX alt in the first two minutes of cruise?

A

Recalculates max alt with actual temp and weight.

81
Q

How is REC MAX calculated?

A

0.3g buffet margin, can fly level at crz rating, maintain a v/s of 300fpm at max clb thrust, flight at a speed between green dot and vmo/mmo, below aircraft certified ceiling.

82
Q

How is OPT FL calculated?

A

CI, Weight, ISA, Wind changes. FCOM/QRH gives OPT FL at given Mach number, does not consider CI

83
Q

When is VLS corrected for Mach number?

A

At 20000 feet, and has a 2g buffer.

84
Q

What thrust range does the EEC avoid stabilising?

A

60-74% to avoid fan flutter. Keep-Out-Zone.

85
Q

Can you build arrival waypoints into the flight plan and fully manage them?

A

Above MSA yes, below MSA you can laterally manage but only vertically select, additionally you can not hard select an altitude constraint below the MSA on a waypoint that has been created.

86
Q

When must the flight deck door be closed?

A

Once ground agent informs that all pax are onboard, until engines shutdown.

87
Q

Where would you find a WAT chart?

A

In the single engine circling checklist.

88
Q

If the engineer said there was fuel leaking from an engine that just started, what would you do?

A

Time for five minutes and ask the engineer to monitor the leak. If leak is gone after five minutes, disconnect engineer and dispatch as normal.

89
Q

What happens if you lose A/C Fadec Supply?

A

Possibility of loss of 28V supply of both EEC channels. As a result, reverser inop and eng start.

90
Q

Fuel Gravity Feeding?

A

QRH
Avoid negative G
Maintain FL150 if FL300 never exceeded

91
Q

How is VAPP calculated?

A

VAPP is computed at estimated landing weight whilst the aircraft is in CRZ or DES. When approach phase is activated, VAPP is computed using current gross weight.

92
Q

What is Brakes Oxidation?

A

Repetitive high temp of the brakes (above 400 degrees) Therefore, the flight crew should preferably use LO AUTOBRK.

93
Q

Glideslope intercept from above?

A 
GEAR DN, FLAP 2, SPD BRK
Arm APPR pb on FCU and confirmed G/S is armed
Set ALT on FCU above
Select V/S 1500 ft/min initially
At G/S* set Go Around ALT on FCU
94
Q

What happens at 700ft RA?

A

FMS is frozen, can’t edit APR SPD, ILS TUNE ihibit

95
Q

What happens at 400ft RA?

A

FCU is frozen

96
Q

What must we have by 350ft RA?

A

LAND must be displayed on FMA

97
Q

Can we continue an approach for a ground system problem?

A

Above Alert Height (100ft) a missed approach initiated if a failure occurred in one of the redundant parts of the automatic landing system, or in the relevant ground equipment. If fail-operational criteria occurs below the AH, it would be ignored and the approach continued (unless AUTOLAND warning is triggered). This is relevant when CAT 3 DUAL is displayed on FMA.

98
Q

What is CAT 3 DUAL?

A

fail operational. In case of single failure, AP will continue to guide for approach, flare and landing.

99
Q

What is CAT 3 SINGLE?

A

fail passive (single failure will disconnect AP without any significant out of trim or deviations. Manual flight is required. Minimum DH is 50ft.

100
Q

What must we complete by 1000ft RA?

A

all ECAM must be completed and (DH amended if required) before reaching 1000ft – otherwise GO AROUND.

101
Q

What is the difference between an Approach with DH and NO DH?

A

With DH, must be visual confirm that a/c is over touch down zone, otherwise GO AROUND. With NO DH – no visual reference required, even though a minimum RVR is specified. Go around only for AUTOLAND warning below Alert Height (AH = 100ft).
With or without DH, after touch down, a go-around should NOT be attempted, regardless of visual references.

102
Q

What is the latest point we can go-around?

A

After touch down provided REV NOT selected?

103
Q

When do we have to commit to a landing?

A

After REV THR

104
Q

Max speed for circling apr?

A

205 kt

105
Q

Circling Area minima?

A

Company 5km and 1000ft cloud base, unless local regulations are more restrictive

106
Q

How would you initiate a GO-AROUND during a circling approach?

A

At any time during circling procedure if required visuals are lost, must make a climbing turn initially overhead rwy then follow the publish missed initial approach.

107
Q

What are the touch down zones A and B?

A

Zone A – 2nd and 3rd Markers (300-450m)

Zone B – 1st and Last Markers (6 pairs for rwys > 2400m)

108
Q

What is we land short or past the touchdown zone?

A

Touchdown prior to Zone B is not permitted. If beyond Zone B, rejected landing is mandatory unless the Commander is satisfied that sufficient distance available.

109
Q

What does SRS guide?

A

highest speed of VAPP or IAS as time of TOGA (VLS+25 dual eng, VLS+15 for S.E.)

110
Q

What are the decel rates for LO, MED, MANUAL?

A

LO : 4 secs after ground spoilers deploy, 3m/s
MED : 2 secs after ground spoilers deploy, 1.7m/s
Full pedal brake with anti-skid : 10kt/sec
DECEL light illuminates when 80% of selected rate.

111
Q

How can we pressurise the brake accumulator?

A

Using yellow electric pump. Must confirm ground crew clear first

112
Q

How many SECs must be operative for autobrake to activate?

A

2

113
Q

Definition of severe turbulence?

A

Severe turbulence is defined as turbulence that causes large, abrupt changes in altitude and/or attitude. It usually causes large variations in airspeed. If severe turbulence occurs during a flight, a logbook entry must be made.
During takeoff, flight crew must wait for target speed +20kt (limited to VFE-5) before retracting slats/flaps.
In thunderstorms, seat belt harnesses must be worn, use all white lights in cockpit lighting.

114
Q

Typhoon conditions, any considerations with thrust?

A

Approaches in very gusty conditions, recommended, MANUAL THURST (to dampen harsh thrust reactions_ and MANAGED SPEED (to benefit from built in protections from FMGS).
Landing at airports where frequent gusts of 55 kt or greater should not be made.

115
Q

If early go-around ordered by ATC, how would you do it?

A

If a/c is above the FCU ALT, cancel the approach.
Below the FCU alt then:
TOGA tap must be performed without delay.
Otherwise AP/FD remain engaged in approach or landing mode (G/S, LOC, LAND, FLARE). The FMS does not engage the GA phase and remains in APPR phase. F-PLN may get lost.

116
Q

Which CBs must be never pull?

A

SFCC, EEC or EIU

117
Q

Below Optimum Flight Level fuel penalties?

A

4000ft below OPT = 5% fuel penalty

8000ft below OPT = 10% fuel penalty

118
Q

If we arrive at aircraft and the battery voltage is below what level, what do we need to do?

A

if below 25.5v battery charge is 50%, need to do a 20mins charge cycle. Select BAT 1+2 to AUTO, make sure EXT PWR ON. After 20 mins, BAT 1+2 off and check above 25.5v.

119
Q

What equipment do we require for RVSM?

A 
FCOM PRO SPO-50
2 ADRs + 2 DMCs
1 XPNDR
1 AP
1 FCU 
2 PFDs
1 FWC
120
Q

What ECAMs should you reject for?

A

Above 100 kt, the FCOM wants us to reject for:

Any Red ECAM

ENG 1 (2) FIRE
APU FIRE
CONFIG SLATS (FLAPS) NOT IN TO CONFIG
CONFIG SPD BRK NOT RETRACTED
CONFIG PITCH TRIM NOT IN TO RANGE
CONFIG RUD TRIM NOT IN TO RANGE
CONFIG L ( R) SIDESTICK FAULT (by takeover)
L + R ELEVATOR FAULT
CONFIG PARK BRK ON
ENG DUAL FAILURE

and these Cautions:

L ( R) SIDESTICK FAULT
ENG 1 (2) FAIL
ENG 1 (2) REVERSER FAULT (Inhibited in my FCOM)
ENG 1 (2) REVERSE UNLOCKED (if thrust set to idle)
ENG THR LEVER FAULT (resolver fault)

121
Q

Engine Tailpipe fire? How can we tell? What do we do?

A

Rising EGT, no ecam. Have to rely on outside party to visually detect.
QRH procedure.
Aim is to shutdown the engine and perform dry crank. If that doesn’t work then last resort ask ground crew to use fire extinguisher.

Conrad Notes (7 decks)

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