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GPhC Exam > Random Questions from Practice Papers > Flashcards

Random Questions from Practice Papers Flashcards

1
Q

What drug class of antidepressants are most likely to cause antimuscarinic side effects?

A

Tricyclic antidepressants e.g. dosulepin, clomipramine

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2
Q

What is Von Willebrand disease?

A

A genetic disease in which clotting factors are reduced, leading to a prolonged INR

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3
Q

Which beta blocker can be used for thyrotoxicosis?

A

Propranolol

It reduces symptoms of hyperthyroidism caused by an increase in beta-adrenergic tone e.g. palpitations, anxiety

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4
Q

Which drug class of antidiabetics can cause acute pancreatitis?

A

GLP-1 receptor agonists (-glutide)

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5
Q

What medicines can be used as first-line therapy for lewy-body dementia?

A

Donepezil

Rivastigmine

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6
Q

Which anticoagulant should be taken with food?

A

Rivaroxaban

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7
Q

What type of CCB should not be given to patients with heart failure with reduced EF? Why?

A

Rate-limiting (e.g. verapamil) and short-acting (e.g. nifedipine)
Can cause reduced cardiac contractibility

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8
Q

What is the mechanism of action of loperamide?

A

Inhibits μ-opioid receptors in the gut, reducing peristalsis

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9
Q

What commonly used drug can be used to reduce stoma output?

A

Omeprazole (reduces stomach acid secretion)

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10
Q

What type of insulin is fast-acting?

A

Soluble insulin (15-30 min onset)

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11
Q

What type of insulin should be reserved for medical emergencies (e.g. DKA)?

A

IV soluble insulin

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12
Q

What are examples of rapid-acting insulin?

A

Aspart
Glulisine
Lispro

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13
Q

How should metformin be dosed initially?

A

Titrated up (increase freq. every week) to minimise GI side effects

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14
Q

What can be used to treat hypos?

A

15-20 g of a fast-acting carbohydrate, e.g.:
five glucose or dextrose tablets
five jelly babies
a small glass of a sugary (non-diet) drink
a small carton of pure fruit juice
two tubes of a glucose gel
Followed by a fast-acting carbohydrate

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15
Q

How long should fentanyl patches be worn for?

A

72 hours

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16
Q

What are some red flag symptoms of indigestion?

A 
Unintentional weight loss
Taking treatment for more than 4 weeks
Over 55
Liver disease
Previous gastric surgery
Previous gastric ulcer(s)
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17
Q

How many hours post-UPSI can Levonelle One Step be taken?

A

72 hours

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18
Q

How many hours post-UPSI can EllaOne be taken?

A

120 hours (5 days)

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19
Q

How long does a mother have to wait before breastfeeding after taking EllaOne?

A

7 days

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20
Q

What can be used OTC to treat menorrhagia? What is the age range for supply?

A

Tranexamic acid; 18-45 years old

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21
Q

What antimalarial is contraindicated in patients with a history of depression? Why?

A

Mefloquine; it is associated with neuropsychiatric adverse reactions

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22
Q

What are some symptoms of scarlet fever?

A

Rough, red rash on trunk, which can spread to rest of body
Strawberry tongue
Flu-like symptoms (fever, headache, etc)

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23
Q

What is first-line antibiotic therapy for scarlet fever?

A

Phenoxymethylpenicillin QDS for 10 days

Azithromycin OD for 5 days if pen allergic

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24
Q

What are symptoms of slapped cheek syndrome?

A

Red rash on one/both cheeks, followed by rash on chest/arms/legs a few days later
Flu-like symptoms

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25
What are some symptoms of shingles?
Itchy, painful rash on ONE side of body | Flu-like symptoms
26
What medicines can omeprazole interact with?
Clopidogrel - omeprazole can decrease its efficacy Citalopram - omeprazole can increase its exposure Methotrexate - omeprazole can decrease its clearance
27
What does of atorvastatin is first-line for secondary prevention of CVD?
80 mg OD (high-intensity)
28
Which DDP-4 inhibitor can be given to patients with renal impairment?
Linagliptin
29
Which DDP-4 inhibitors can be given to patients with hepatic impairment?
Linagliptin and sitagliptin
30
When can sodium valproate be used in pregnancy?
If it's a last resort for treatment of epilepsy (not suitable if indicated for bipolar)
31
What colour can rifampicin turn urine?
Reddish-brown
32
What colour can nitrofurantoin turn urine?
Dark yellow/brown
33
What are the monitoring requirements for lithium?
BMI Renal function U&Es Thyroid function All should be done every 6 months
34
What should happen if a patient on azathioprine experiences unexplained bruising?
They should immediately report it to their GP, as it is a sign of bone marrow suppression
35
What patients are at higher risk of conceiving a child with neural defects, and will therefore need a higher dose of folic acid during their first trimester?
``` Patients with: Diabetes Sickle-cell anaemia Epilepsy A history of conceiving a child with neural defects ```
36
What doses of folic acid are typically given to women in their first trimester?
5 mg OD if high-risk of conceiveing a child with neural defects (POM) otherwise, 400 mcg OD (OTC)
37
What are the four principle categories of child abuse?
Emotional abuse Physical abuse Sexual abuse Neglect
38
The risk of ________ is decreased in patients taking HRT.
osteoporosis
39
What is the first-line treatment option for leg ulcer infections?
Flucloxacillin QDS for 7 days Doxycycline OD or clarithromycin BD for 7 days if pen allergic Erythromycin QDS if pregnant
40
What is the HAS-BLED score used for? What criteria is included?
To estimate the risk of bleeding in patients with AF being offered anticoagulation Criteria: HTN, renal and liver disease, Hx of stroke, Hx of/predisposition to major bleed, Hx of high INR, age (>65), medication that can cause bleeding, alcohol
41
What is the Wells score used for?
To determine the probability of a patient getting a DVT
42
Why should long-acting sulfonylureas be avoided in elderly patients?
Higher risk of prolonged hypoglycaemia
43
What are some symptoms of Stevens-Johnson syndrome?
Flu-like symptoms | Followed by a purple/red rash
44
What symptoms are associated with neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
Altered mental state HYPERthermia (≠ fever) Muscular rigidity Tachycardia
45
What is the target INR for patients who have AF, or are being treated for DVT/PE?
2.5 (2-3)
46
What medication should be given to patients ASAP after a stroke?
Aspirin 300 mg STAT
47
What antihypertensive should be used as first-line therapy for HTN in patients with T2DM?
ACEi/ARB, irrespective of age/ethnicity
48
What are some symptoms of cauda equina?
Neurological deficit in lower limbs Bladder/bowel dysfunction Genital/perianal/perineal sensory loss Severe lower back pain
49
What are some GI symptoms that might trigger a cancer pathway referral? (over 40)
Age >40 with unexplained weight loss or abdominal pain Age >50 with unexplained rectal bleeding Aged >60 with iron-deficiency anaemia or changes in bowel habits
50
What are some GI symptoms that might trigger a cancer pathway referral? (under 50)
``` Rectal bleeding AND one of the following: Abdominal pain Change in bowel habit Weight loss Iron-deficiency anaemia ```
51
What is a cohort study?
A study where a group of people are identified and observed over a period of time
52
What is a randomised controlled trial?
A study where participants are randomly chosen to receive (or not receive) a clinical intervention
53
What is a systematic review?
A study looking at several other studies/research about a particular topic
54
What is a double-blind randomised controlled trial?
A study where neither the participants nor the researchers know what the participants will receive
55
What is a cross-sectional study?
An epidemiological study that describes a population at a single point in time
56
What route should vinca alkaloids be administered?
Intravenous only
57
What are some clinical features of bullous impetigo?
Itchy, fluid-filled blisters lasting 2-3 days Usually on flexures, face, trunk or limbs Flu-like symptoms
58
What are some clinical features of non-bullous impetigo?
Red, itchy sores which burst quite quickly | Usually around nose/mouth
59
How is impetigo treated?
Localised non-bullous - hydrogen peroxide 1% cream (avoid if infection is around eyes) Widespread non-bullous - topical OR oral antibiotic Severe non-bullous/bullous - oral antibiotic
60
Which antibiotics can cause C. difficile infection?
Cephalosporins Clindamycin Broad-spectrum antibiotics Quinolones
61
What is the weekly maximum recommended amount of alcohol?
14 units
62
What is the weekly minimum recommended amount of exercise?
``` 150 mins (moderate intensity) or 75 mins (vigorous intensity) ```
63
What antiemetic should be avoided in patients with Parkinson's?
Metoclopramide - can induce extrapyramidal side-effects
64
What drugs have a high risk of agranulocytosis, and therefore should not be taken concomitantly?
Methotrexate | 2nd-gen antipsychotics e.g. clozapine
65
What is the minimum age for supply of mometasone 0.05% nasal spray?
18 years
66
What foods can increase the risk of gout?
Purine-rich food, e.g. red meat, seafood
67
What can trigger/worsen rosacea?
``` Stress Exercise Smoking Spicy food Hot food/drinks ```
68
Who is at high-risk of contracting typhoid?
Travellers to endemic areas where frequent/extended exposure to poor sanitation/food hygiene is likely
69
What are some activities that can put a patient at high-risk of contracting hepatitis B?
UPSI Exposure to blood Exposure to contaminated needles Contact sports
70
What are some examples of mild topical corticosteroids?
Hydrocortisone (all strengths, but not hydrocortisone butyrate)
71
What warning labels are needed on beta-blockers?
Warning: Do not stop taking this medicine unless your doctor tells you to. (Sudden cessation can cause rebound worsening of MI/angina)
72
What dose of adrenaline is given to 0-5 year olds for anaphylactic shock?
0.15 mL of 1 in 1000 solution (150 micrograms)
73
What dose of adrenaline is given to 6-11 year olds for anaphylactic shock?
0.3 mL of 1 in 1000 solution (300 micrograms)
74
What dose of adrenaline is given to 12+ year olds and adults for anaphylactic shock?
0.5 mL of 1 in 1000 solution (500 micrograms)
75
What needs to be monitored in children using inhaled and systemic corticosteroids? How often?
Height and weight; annually
76
What needs to be monitored in children using intranasal corticosteroids?
Height
77
Who should be considered for gradual withdrawal of systemic corticosteroids?
Patients who are unlikely to relapse and have [taken]: > 40 mg of prednisolone OD for more than 1 week; repeated doses in the evening; more than 3 weeks of treatment; recently received repeated courses; taken a short course within 1 year of stopping long-term treatment; other possible causes of adrenal suppression
78
What are three important cautions for all PPIs?
Osteoporosis - patients at risk should maintain vit D and calcium intake Gastric cancer - look out for 'alarm features' Elderly - STOPP criteria: high dosage for ≥ 8 weeks if taking for ulcers or oesophagitis
79
What are symptoms of agranulocytosis?
Fever/chills Bruising Malaise Sore throat

GPhC Exam (10 decks)

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