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Emma Micro II > Random (Quizzes) > Flashcards

Random (Quizzes) Flashcards

(96 cards)

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1
Q

T/F

There is a vaccine for fifth disease.

A

F

parvo B19 –> fifth disease aka slapped cheek disease

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2
Q

antigenic shift

A

segments of the virus undergo reassortment by virtue of a mixture of virus affecting humans and that affecting animals –> pandemic outbreak

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3
Q

antigenic drift

A

genes encoding the HA and NA proteins of the viral capsid undergo frequent changes

–> new viral strains, epidemics

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4
Q

T/F

Influenza B virus undergoes antigenic shift.

A

F, can only undergo antigenic drift bc mainly infects humans.

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5
Q

T/F

Influenza A virus undergoes antigenic shift.

A

T, can undergo antigenic shift bc infects humans/other mammals/birds –> epidemics

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6
Q

Both influenza A and B can undergo antigenic ___.

A

drift

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7
Q

T/F

A point mutation can lead to pandemics.

A

F

A point mutation may cause antigenic drift that could lead to local epidemics, but not to pandemics (large portion of the population has no immunity to the new strain.)

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8
Q

bronchilitis

A

causes wheezing, seen in RSV

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9
Q

disseminated infection in transplant pt

A

adenovirus

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10
Q

_____ infection of the mother is a major factor in fetal infection and causes most of fetal infections.

(primary or reactivation)

A

primary

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11
Q

The most common cause of congenital viral infection is caused by …

A

primary infection of the mother with CMV

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12
Q

rash w/ lesions in varying stages of development

A

VZV

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13
Q

rash w/ lesions all at same stage of development

A

small pox

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14
Q

Small pox lesions are _____ whereas chickenpox lesions/vesicles are more _____.

A

Small pox lesions are DEEP/FIRM whereas chickenpox lesions/vesicles are more SUPERFICIAL.

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15
Q

chicken pox rash location

A

centripetal (chest, trunk)

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16
Q

small pox location

A

face, extremities

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17
Q

Cut off to distinguish encephalitis vs meningitis based on CSF profile

A

There is no absolute cut off, but CSF wbc count usu lower in encephalitis.

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18
Q

Ceftriaxone is active against many of the bacteria that cause ______ (Strep. pneumoniae, B. burgdorferi)

A

meningitis

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19
Q

why foscarnet is useful in HSV/CMV resistance…

A

Does not req phosphorylation

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20
Q

Which influenza drugs have efficacy only w/i first 48 hr?

A

oseltamivir

zanamivir

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21
Q

protein channel which enhances viral uncoating

A

M2 (influenza A)

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22
Q

ganciclovir AE

A

BM suppression

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23
Q

child hallucinations

A

oseltamivir

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24
Q

CMV drug with electrolyte abnormalities

A

foscarnet

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25
antiviral freq associated w/ N/V
oseltamivir
26
A mutation of ________ may confer both acyclovir and ganciclovir resistance.
thymidine kinase
27
toxoplasmosis prophylaxis is given when CD4 is
below 100
28
HIV RNA can be detected approx ____ after acute infection.
10-15 days
29
HIV Ab can be detected approx ____ after acute infection.
several weeks
30
____ is used to diagnose HIV
4th generation HIV antigen/antibody combination assay + after 20 d infection
31
Syncytium-inducing viral phenotype
CXCR4-tropic HIV virus fusion infected and uninfected CD4 cells poorer outcome
32
non-syncytium-inducing virus
CCR5-tropic virus HIV virus
33
Low CD4 counts (generally below _) commonlly increase the risk of developing an opportunistic infection.
200
34
Development of a CD8 cellular response is a characteristic of ...
long term non progressors controls viral replication
35
facial lipoatrophy
complication of use of older NRTIs mitochondrial toxicity
36
Poor initial ___ responses correlate with rapid progression to AIDS
CTL | vs long-term non progressers who have very strong CTL responses
37
support for early tx of HIV
discovery that gut associated T cell destruction resulted in release of LPS and chronic T cell activation and chronic T cell activation
38
Which HIV viral protein first engages the CD4+ T-cell receptor?
GP 120
39
CD4 <50 opportunistic infection
CMV retinitis
40
CD4 50-100 opportunistic infection
CNS lymphoma
41
CD4 200-500 opportunistic infection
pneumococcal pneumonia
42
>500 opportunistic infection
herpes zoster (shingles)
43
``` slow progression fevers hypoxia worsening SOB oral sores weight loss ```
PCP
44
MRI ring enhancing lesions
toxoplasma gondii
45
CD4
<200
46
when to give prophylaxis for cryptococcus in HIV pt
not given in US
47
hyperCHL associated antiviral
protease inhibitors
48
protease inhibitors are often given w low dose of ___
ritonavir (inhib CYP34A)
49
blocks reverse transcription of HIV RNA to DNA by inhibiting reverse transcriptase
NNRTI
50
NRTI
DNA synthesis chain termination
51
HIV drugs to avoid in preg
dolutrgravir | NNRTIs
52
HIV has an _____, which accounts for its ability to produce viral strains with mutations conferring drug resistance even before initiation of treatment
error-prone reverse transcriptase
53
most cases of this are asymptomatic
zika
54
one serotype infection offers no protection against other serotypes
dengue
55
arthralgia, arthritis, morning stiffness
chikungunya
56
neuroinvasive disease most comm seen in elderly
west nile virus
57
hand/foot/mouth
coxsackie
58
hyper infection immunosuppressed
strongyloides stercoralis
59
seizures | brain cysts
taenia sodium eggs (pig)
60
walking barefoot
strongyloides
61
duffy
P. vivax blood antigen receptor for entry into rbc
62
check G6PD
primaquine
63
latent phase of Pv and Po is due to
hypnozoites
64
Premunition
development of partial immunity to malaria in an indivual who lives in a malaria endemic area and sustains repeated malaria infections
65
spherule with many small spheres inside
coccidioides
66
anytime CSF suggests lymphocytic predominance, low glucose profile --> order
crypyococcal antigen test even if pt non-HIV +
67
If clinical picture of TB fits, start ___ right away.
RIPE
68
latent TB tx
INH for 9 mo.
69
TB presenting as recrudescent disease occurs at which CD4 count in HIV pt?
(extrapulmonary sites) @ any CD4 count but usu lower
70
early bactericidal therapy
INH
71
cryprospordia will stain + in ___ with ___ stain
cryprospordia will stain + in STOOL with ACID-FAST stain
72
toxoplasmosis reactive in immunocompromised most comm occurs in the ___ or ___
brain or eye
73
sandfly
Leishmania
74
which Leishmania has higher risk of mucocutaneous disease/erosion of mucous membranes
Leishmania braziliensis
75
ocular involve is seen in acute or reactivated toxo?
reactivated
76
toxo dx
serology (ocular fluid)
77
T/F culture can be done for toxo dx
F protozoa do not grow in culture
78
T/F stool antigen is helpful to detect Entamoeba histolytica
T trophozoites w/ ingested rbc
79
T/F serologies are helpful to detect Entamoeba histolytica
only if invasive disease has developed
80
immune response to bacterial polysaccharide antigen vaccines
thymus-independent vaccines directly activate B cells to develop into plasma cells that produce IgM --> little/no memory
81
vaccine eliciting strong T cell response
a live virus (will result in infected cells that can present virus peptides on MHC I --> CD8 T
82
immune response to adjuvants
stimulate innate acute inflammatory response (using PRRs like TLR-4) trigger maturation of dendritic cells (adaptive thinks theres an infection) exp. DTap HepB pneumococcal
83
_______ is preferred over levofloxacin for the treatment of atypical pathogens
azithromycin avoids adverse effects associated with quinolone use, including aortic aneurysm rupture, QT prolongation, and tendonitis
84
tx plan for severe pneumonia
cefepime vanco AZT (pseudomonas MRSA atypicals)
85
pneumonia from a freshwater source
legionella (air conditioner, etc) an atypical tend to have underlying lung disease GI sx
86
_____ is an endemic fungi that is inhaled from dusty desserts of the South West.
Coccidiomycosis
87
_____ causes a pulmonary infection that can be self-limiting in the healthy and cause nodular and cavitary diseases in the immunocompromised
Coccidiomycosis
88
atypicals abx
floroquinolones | macrolides
89
stroke pt at risk for which mechanism of infection
aspiration of oral flora
90
high opening P on LP
cryptococcus
91
Which abx are empirically given to cover Pneumococcal meningitis?
vancomycin AND ceftriaxone
92
fungal meningitis typical population affected
immunocompromised
93
The most common cause of lymphocytic predominant meningitis with normal glucose is viral meningitis, especially in ____ pts.
young, immunocompetent
94
AIDS pt, with lymphocytic meningitis w/ low glucose, and a high opening pressure on lumbar puncture
Cryptococcus meningitis --> india ink
95
ascending flaccid paralysis
W. Nile
96
__ meningitis is usually in patients with travel history, homelessness, incarceration etc. a.
TB

Emma Micro II (10 decks)

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