Random Topics Flashcards
(201 cards)
1
Q
Match the Radial, Ulnar and median nerve damage to the observed result?
A
Radial: wrist drop
Ulnar: Claw Hand
Median: Thumb Opposition
2
Q
Conditions with cervical spine anomalies
A
“Kid Try Gold”
Klippel Fleil
Trisomy 21
Goldenhar
3
Q
Conditions with a small underdeveloped chin
A
"Please Get That Chin" Pierre-Robbins Goldenhar Treacher Collins Cri Du Chat
4
Q
Conditions with Macroglossia
A
“Big Tongue”
Beckwith
Trisomy 21
5
Q
Things that increase MAC
A
Chronic EtOH Increased CNS Neurotransmitters Hypernatremia Infants 1-6 months Hyperthermia Red Hair
6
Q
Things that decrease MAC
A
Acute EtOH IV Anesthetics N2O Opioids Hyponatremia Older Age Prematurity Hypothermia
7
Q
What are some causes of Low EtCO2
A
Hyperventilation (Pain, light anesthesia, metabolic acidosis)
Decrease CO2 production (Hypothermia)
Increased Alveolar dead space (Hypotension, PE)
8
Q
How many Liters are in E-Cylinders based on gas
A
Air: 625L / 2000 PSI
O2: 660L / 2000 PSI
N2O 1590L / 745 PSI
9
Q
Formula for dissolved O2
A
PaO2 x 0.003
10
Q
Formula fo CaO2
A
CaO2 = (FiO2 x Hgb x 1.34) + (PaO2 x 0.003)
11
Q
Formula for DO2
A
DO2 = CO x 10 x [(Hgb x Sa02 x 1.34) + (0.003 x Pa02)]
12
Q
What is a priority in a patient with pyloric stenosis?
A
Correct volume status and electrolyte abnormalities
(medical NOT surgical emergency)
- Volume: 20 mL/kg
-
13
Q
What are some post operative complications with pyloric stenosis?
A
Postoperative apnea
14
Q
What is the function of the Lateral Spinothalamic Tract?
A
Pain and Temp
15
Q
What is the function of the Ventral Spinothalamic Tract?
A
Crude Touch and pressure
16
Q
What is responsible for fine touch and proprioception?
A
The Dorsal Column: Cuneatus and Gracilis
17
Q
A common complication of ET intubation in pediatrics
A
Post- Intubation “Croup”
Facts about Croup Laryngeotracheal Bronchitis
- Barking Cough
- younger kids
- Viral
- Low fever
- Racemic Epi and Humidified O2
- Steeple sign
18
Q
What are some complications of Bone cement?
A
- The First sign under GA is DECREASE EtCO2
- Emboli
- Bradycardia
- Hypotension ( dec SVR)
- pHTN (Inc PVR)
- Hypoxia
- Cardiac Arrest
19
Q
Which procedure has the greatest risk of Bone Cement Implantation Syndrome (BCIS)?
A
Hip Arthroplasty
20
Q
What is the First Line treatment for BCIS? Bone cement
A
100% FiO2
IV Hydration
Phenylephrine
(Treated as RT heart failure)
21
Q
What hormones are secreted from Carcinoid tumors?
A
Histamine
Serotonin
Kinins & Kallikrein
22
Q
Signs of Carcinoid crisis
A
Bronchoconstriction Flushing (head and neck) Supraventricular Tachydysrhythmias HTN/Hypotension Vasodilation/Vasoconstriciton Increased GI motility (ABD Pain, Diarrhea)
23
Q
Drugs to avoid in patients with a carcinoid tumor?
A
- Sympathomimetics: Ketamine and ephedrine
- Histamine: Succ, Atracurium, morphine, meperidine, Thiopental
- Exogenous catecholamines
24
Q
Drugs used in the treatment of carcinoid tumors?
A
- Octreotide/Ianreotide (somatostatin)
- Ondansetron (5HT3 Antagonist)
- Diphenhydramine + Rinatedine or Cimetidine (Antihistamines H1 & H2)
- Steroids
- Phenylephrine or vasopression for hypotension
25
What are the location of the nerves relative to the axillary artery?
Median Nerve: Anterior and medial
Ulnar Nerve: Posterior and Medial
Radial Nerve: Posterior and lateral
MSC Nerve: Anterior and Lateral
26
What coagulation issue occur with pre-eclampsia?
1) Thrombocytopenia
- consumptive
2) Increase thomboxane (by 7x)
3) decrease Prostacyclin
27
What is the most important site of pain modulation?
Rexed Lamina II & III (Substantia gelatinosa) of the Dorsal Horn
- the descending pathway begins in the periaqueductal grey and rostroventral Medulla
28
What are the pain inhibiting neurotransmitters?
Spinal: GABA and Glycine
| Descending Pathway: NE, 5-HT3, and Endorphins
29
Pain is augmented by?
Wind-Up
| Central Sensitization
30
What nerve is in charge of mastication?
Trigeminal V3 (Mandibular)
31
What are branches of the trigeminal nerve?
CN V
- V1: Opthalmic
- V2: Maxillary
- V3: Mandibular
32
What TV do you use in the neonate?
6 mL/kg
33
How do you confirm ETT placement in the neonate?
EtCO2
Chest Rise
Condensation in the tube
Increasing SaO2
34
Anesthetic management of MS?
- Aspiration Risk (D/t cranial nerve involvement)
- Avoid Hyperthermia and stress
- Succ can cause life-threatening hyperkalemia
35
What are the management techniques for Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy?
Increase Preload (Volume/Phenylephrine)
Increase Afterload (Aortic Pressure): Phenylephrine
Decrease HR
Decrease Contractility
36
What medications Decrease PVR?
```
NO
NTG
PDEi (Sildenafil)
Prostaglandins
CCB
ACEi
Fentanyl (Treats pain)
```
37
What drugs INCREASE PVR?
N2O
Ketamine
Desflurane
38
What parameters increase PVR?
```
Hypoxia
Hypercarbia
Acidosis
Hypothemia
SNS stimulation
Pain
```
39
What causes problems after aortic cross clamp removal?
```
Hypovolemia
- Decrease venous return (preload)
Dec Contractility
Dec SVR
Dec Preload/Afterload
```
40
What is the normal MA in a TEG and what does it measure?
Measures Clot strength
MA: 50-60
Evaluates platelets( PLT + DDAVP)
41
What is the normal R time in a TEG and what does is measure?
Time to begin forming clot
R: 6-8 min
Coagulation factors (give FFP)
42
What is the normal K time in a TEG and what does is measure?
Time till clot has achieved fixed strength
K: 3-7 min
Fibrinogen (Cryo)
43
What is the normal Alpha Angle in a TEG and what does is measure?
Speed of fibrin accumulation
Alpha Angle: 50-60 degrees
Fibrinogen (Cryo)
44
What is the normal A60 in a TEG and what does is measure?
```
A60: MA-5
Excess fibrinolysis (TXA)
```
45
What is the Max dose for neostigmine?
MAX: 5mg or 5000 mcg
range: 0.02-0.07 mg/kg
46
What are similar respiratory mechanisms changes in pediatric and elderly?
- Minute Ventilation (Increase)
- Closing Capacity (Increase)
- Residual volume (Increase)
- Vital Capacity (Decrease)
47
What drugs are dosed based in IBW?
- Propofol (Induction)
- Vecuronium/Rocuronium
- Sufentanil
- Remifentanil
48
What effect does the prone position have on hemodynamics?
- Improved V/Q
- Decreased venous pressure
- Improved venous return
49
What are some problems seen with hydralazine?
Reflex tachycardia
| Lupus like symptoms
50
What are some problems with Sodium Nitroprusside?
Cyanide Toxicity
| Methemoglobinemia
51
How does CO change during pregnancy?
Increases by 40 %
52
How does CO change during labor?
1st stage: 20%
2nd stage: 50%
3rd stage: 80%
53
When does CO return to prelabor values?
24-48 hours
54
When does CO return to pre-pregnancy values?
2 weeks
55
How does BP change during pregnancy?
Decreased diastolic BP
56
how do lung volumes change during pregnancy?
Decrease
- FRC
- RV
- ERV
- TLC
57
What clotting factors are decreased in pregnancy?
- Protein C & S
| - XI & XIII
58
What effect does increased thromboxane have in pregnancy?
Increased
- platelet aggregation
- Vasoconstriction
- Uterine Activity
Decreased
- Uteroplacental Blood Flow
59
At what level does the Dural Sac end in Peds?
S3
| S2 in 1 y/o
60
At what level does the spinal cord end in the neonate?
L3
61
What are the terminal branches of the brachial plexus?
```
MSC
Radial
Median
Ulnar
Axillary
```
62
List the cords?
Lateral
Posterior
Medial
63
List the trunks?
Superior
Middle
Inferior
64
The posterior Cord gives rise to the ________
Radial
| Axillary
65
The lateral Cord gives rise to the _________
MSC
| Median
66
The medial cord gives rise to the __________
Ulnar
67
What is the formula for Coronary perfusion pressure?
CPP = AoDBP - LVEDP (aka PAOP, PAWP, PCWP)
68
Relative indications for OLV?
Surgical Exposure
Pulmonary Edema s/p CABG
Severe Hypoxemia
69
Procedure risk factors of Ischemic Optic Neuropathy
```
Prone
Wilson Frame
Long duration of anesthesia
large blood loss
low colloid to crystalloid ratio
hypotension
```
70
Landmarks for the Popliteal nerve block
Popliteal triangle
- semimembranous muscle (also the Semitendinosus) medially
- Biceps Femoris Laterally
- popliteal crease as the base
71
What are the disadvatages to the Beir Block (IV regional anesthesia)
LAST
Tourniquette Pain
No Post Operative Analgesia
72
Anatomical landmarks to the median nerve block at the wrist
Flexor Capri Radialis tendon (Thumb/lateral)
| Palmaris Longus Tendon (Pinky/Medial)
73
What is the formula for Cerebral PP?
CPP = MAP - ICP or CVP (whichever is higher)
74
What agents can be use in hyperthyroid patients to treat signs of hyperthyroidism?
The 4 B's
- BB: Esmolol, Propranolol
- Block Synthesis: PTU, Methimazole, Carbimazole, potassium iodide
- Block Release: radioactive iodine, potassium Iodide
- Block T4 to T3 conversion: Propranolol, PTU, Glucocorticoids
75
What drugs exacerbate Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)?
Dopamine Antagonists:
- Metoclopramide
- Haloperidol
- Risperidol
- Chlorpromazine
76
What is the treatment for NMS?
```
Dantrolene
Bromocriptine
Supportive Care
ECT
- Succ is safe
```
77
LMA cuff volume by size?
```
LMA 5: 40
LMA 4: 30
LMA 3: 20
LMA 2.5: 14
LMA 2: 10
LMA 1.5: 7
LMA 1.: 4
```
78
What causes systolic dysfunction?
Eccentric hypertrophy (Regurgitation) : Volume issue
79
What causes diastolic dysfunction?
Concentric hypertrophy (LV thickening): Pressure (AS)
80
What does SIADH cause?
Hypervolemic Hypotonic Hyponatremia
81
What are some drugs that prolong the QT interval?
```
Ondasetron
Methadone
Droperidol
Haloperidol
Halogenated anesthetics (Sevo)
Amiodarone
Quinidine
```
82
Metabolic disturbances that prolong Qt interval?
Hypokalemia
Hypocalcemia
Hypomagnesemia
83
List some Opioid agonist antagonist
(Kappa Agonist/ Mu Antagonist)
Nalbuphine
Butorphanol
84
List a partial opioid agonist that is not reversed by Naloxone ?
Buprenorphine
| Partial Mu Agonist
85
Drugs that inhibit COX
Non-Selective
- ASA, Ketorolac, Diclofenac, Naproxen, Ibuprophen, Indomethacin
Selective COX-2
- Coxib ending (celecoxib)
86
The O2 flush valve bypasses what?
The Low pressure system
- Vaporizer
- Check Valve
- Thorpe Tube
87
What is the first step in the pre-anesthesia checkout?
Verify auxiliary oxygen cylinder and self inflating manual ventilation device are available and functioning
- AKA check emergency equipment
88
What patients do you not give ergot alkaloids?
Ergot Alkaloid = Methergine
| - to patients with HTN (aka preeclampsia, PIH,)
89
What patients do you not give Carbapost/hemabate?
Asthamtics
90
What BP indicates severe pre-eclampsia?
>160 SBP
>110 DBP
(d/t increased thromboxane)
91
What are some postoperative considerations for the obese patient?
Minimize meds that suppress the respiratory system (d/t OSA)
| - use short acting drugs, avoid opioids/benzos
92
What is the parkland formula?
4ml x % BSA burned x kg = volume of fluid to give
93
What does the Train of Four correlate with?
70% blockade
94
What are the best indicators of adequate recovery from NMB?
50% blockade
- Bite Tongue blade against force
- Head Lift > 5second
- Hand grip > 5 seconds
- Negative Insp Force > -40 cm H2O
95
What does the TV of 5mL/kg correlate with? (in reference to nuero blockade)
80% blockade
96
What nerve can be missed with an inter scalene block?
Ulnar Nerve (C8-T1)
97
Complications from inter scalene block?
Horners Syndrome (Very Horny PAM)
Phrenic Nerve Paralysis (100% of the time)
Missed Ulnar Nerve
98
How does the BP change above or below the heart?
- for every 10 cm a change of 7.4 mmHg (or 1cm = .74mmHg)
| - for every 1 inch a chance of 2 mmHg
99
What are some of the risk associated with Jet ventilation?
```
Pneumothorax (most common)
Barotrauma
Sub Q emphysema/ Mediastinal Emphysema
Hemorrhage
Aspiration
tracheal injury
Esophgeal injury
(At risk of Hypercapnia)
```
100
What effect does hyperventilation have on electrolytes?
Decreases K and Ca (less ionized bc it binds to proteins)
101
Hematologic changes seen with a pneumoperitoneum?
- Increased: SVR, MAP, PVR, A-a gradient (V/Q Mismatch), ICP, CPP, Afterload
- Decreased: Splenic and RBF, FRC, Venous return
- CO Maintained or decreased
102
What are some relative contraindications to lithotripsy?
```
AICD/PPM
Calcified aneurysm of aorta or renal artery
Untreated UTI
Obstruction beyond renal stone
Morbid Obesity
```
103
What are some absolute contraindications to lithotripsy?
Risk of bleeding (Coagulopathy)
| Pregnancy
104
What are complications from mediastinoscopy?
Most Common:
- Hemorrhage
- tension Pneumothorax (usually right sided)
Others
- Phrenic or RLN damage
- Chylothorax (thoracic duct)
- Innominate artery compression (Decreased cerebral and carotid Blood Flow)
- reflex Bradycardia
105
What are the absolute contraindications to mediastinoscopy?
Previous mediastinoscopy
106
What are the RELATIVE contraindications to mediastinoscopy?
Tracheal deviation
Thoracic Aortic Aneurysm
SVC obstruction
107
What is a significant risk of TIPS procedure?
Hemorrhage
| - tachycardia, desaturation
108
Function of Alpha cells in the pancreas
Alpha-2 cells decrease insulin release from pancreatic islet cells
109
What is the dose for bupivicaine?
2. 5 mg/kg
| - 3.0 mg/kg with Epi
110
What is the MOA of LMWH?
Factor Xa Inhibitor
- Enoxaparin
- Dalteparin
- Tinzaparin
111
What are the guidelines for neuraxial anesthesia with LMWH?
Once daily: wait 12 hrs
Twice daily: wait 24 hours
Hold 12 hours before removing catheter
- may continue 2 hours after removal
112
What are the criteria for GAP Acidosis?What are the causes?
```
Anion Gap > 14
MUDPILES
- Methanol
- Uremia
- Diabetic Ketoacidosis
- Paraldehyde
- Isonazid
- Lactic acidosis (cyanide poisoning)
- Ethanol
- Salicylates
```
113
What are some causes of NON-anion gap acidosis?
HARDUP (think increased output conditions)
- Hypoaldosteronism
- Acetazolamide
- Renal Tubular Acidosis
- Diarrhea
- Ureterosigmoid Fistula
- Pancreatic Fistula
Also Large volume resuscitation with NaCl
114
What ligament extends from the foramen magnum to the sacral hiatus?
Ligamentum Flavum
115
What are the landmarks for the sciatic nerve block?
Greater trochanter (Hip)
Sacral Hiatus
Posterior Superior Illiac Spine (PSIS)
116
What is Virchows Triad?
3 categories that are thought to contribute to thrombosis
- Venous Stasis
- Hypercoagulability
- Endothelial Injury
117
Why do peds need a higher dose of Succinylcholine?
Increase ECV
118
What is the MOA of Methadone?
NMDA Antagonist*
Mu Agonist
MAOI
119
What is a complication from meperidine?
QT prolongation
120
Meperidine works on which receptor to stop shivering?
Kappa*
| Its has mixed Mu and Kappa effects
121
What is the problem with meperidine metabolism
Active metabolite Noremeperedine causes seizure
| - DO not give to elderly or renal patients
122
What conditions is omphalocele associated with?
Beckwith-Weidmen*
Trisomy 21
Cardiac Defects
123
What are the signs and symptoms of diaphragmatic Hernia?
```
Cyanosis*
Dyspnea*
Dextrocardia*
scaphoid abdomen
pHTN
Pulmonary hypoplasia
```
124
What can cause uterine atony?
```
Macrosomia (Lg fetus)*
Forceps Delivery* (Instrumentated Labor)
multiparty
Multiple gestation
Polyhydraminos
Prolonged Pitocin Infusion
```
125
What factors are in Cryoprecipitate?
Fibrinogen (Factor I),
Factor VIII,
Factor XIII,
vWF,
Fibronectin
126
What Factors increase in pregnancy?
fibrinogen (Factor I)*
| everything except XI, XIII, Protein C & S
127
What are the facto of Quaternary NMB's?
Highly Ionized
| DO NOT cross the placenta
128
What is a Rhizotomy?
Ablates neural impulses so it does not reach the spinal cord*
- Severs Nerve roots in the spinal cord
129
What is a side effect of vasogenic twitching with epilepsy?
Diplopia*
130
What are some consideration for patients undergoing strabismus surgery?
Increased risk of
- MH (Masseter Spasm*)
- PONV
- Occulocardiac reflex
131
What is commonly used for pain?
Antidepressants*
132
What is commonly used for chronic pain?
```
GABA Agonist (Gabapentin)*
SSRI's*
```
133
What is the best indication for a lighter stylet?
Unstable Cervical spine*
Anterior Airway*
Blood in airway
small mouth opening
134
```
What is the function of each:
CMAC
Glidescope
King
Air Traq
```
C-MAC: can use as DL
Glide: 60 Degree angle
King: 90 Degree
Air Traq: Prisms and Lenses
135
What is the most common complication from Liposuction?
PE*
136
Max dose for tumescent anesthesia?
55 mg/kg
137
```
What is the muscle response for the following nerves
Radial
Musculocutaneous
Tibial
Peroneal
```
Radial: Triceps contraction
MSC: Biceps contraction
Tibial: Plantar Flexion
Peroneal: Dorsiflexion
138
Respondeat superior, which is "borrowed servant" is under what?
Vicariouse Liability
139
In what population does succinylcholine cause increased potassium?
```
ALS
GBS
MH
MS
DMD
Charcot Marie Tooth
Hyperkalemic Periodic Paralysis
```
140
In what population is it safe to give succinylcholine?
Myasthenia Gravis*
PArkinsons*
Eaton Lambert (decrease dose d/t increased sensitivity)
141
What is responsible for the fast onset of intrathecal opioids?
Lipid solubility
142
What effect of EPI would be blocked by phentolamine but not metoprolol?
Pancreatic Islet Cells (Alpha 2)
143
What do you mix dantrolene with?
Bacteriostatic water
144
What is the purpose of the two vertical bars on the LMA?
prevents epiglottis from blocking the airway
145
What does elevated ALT and AST indicate?
Hepatocellular injury *
| - ALT is specific to the Liver
146
Why would conjugate bilirubin be increased?
Billiary obstruction
147
What are some signs of Cirrhosis?
Decreased effect plasma volume,
Decreased oncotic pressure,
Hyponatremia
148
What is in the inter vascular space but not in the intersistial space?
Plasma proteins
149
What is not made by the liver?
Immunoglobulins
150
What happens in DIC?
- Increased Pt, PTT, D-Dimer and fibrin spilt products*
- Decreased Fibrinogen (factor I), antithrombin and platelets*
- Increased fibrin and microvascular thrombosis*
151
What nerve innervates the medial aspect of the upper arm?
The intercostalbrachialis*
152
What is a sign of endobronchial intubation
Normal EtCO2 but increase PIP and decrease SpO2*
153
What are 2 thoracolumbar conditions that will make intubation difficult?
Kyphoscoliosis*
| Large Chest *
154
Which fibers have golgi body spindles?
A-Alpha (Muscle)*
155
Why is epidural dosing less for pregnancy?
Engorged epidural vein*
increased sensitivity to LA*
Increased spread
156
Why do we decrease spinal dose in pregnancy?
Decreased CSF volume*
157
What is the most common complication from Jet ventilation?
Pneumothorax*
158
What meds would require an decreased dose in liver disease?
Succ and roc
159
Which cells secrete Heparin?
Basophils
160
ST elevation indicates what type of ischemia?
Transmural ischemia
161
What is the best monitor after no TOF?
Post-Tetany
162
Patient in the prone position and an object is resting on the posterior lateral aspect of the arm, what nerve can be injured?
Radial
163
The patient is post cardiac surgery and becomes tachycardia with nothing draining from the chest tube, you should suspect?
Cardiac Tampnade
164
Hypovolemia in pediatrics can cause?
Increased dead space
165
Patient has transection at C4, what muscles will help with respiration?
Cervical Stap Muscles
166
Which muscle is least resistant to NMB?
Diaphragm
167
Where does the dural sac end in the neonate?
S3
168
What interrupts non shivery thermogenesis?
BB
169
pKa 6.2 Bicarb to carbonate ratio is 20:1, What its the pH?
pH = pKa + Log (base/acid)
| pH 7.4
170
Define IRV?
The amount of gas that can be forcibly inhaled after tidal breath
171
Define each:
Half Life:
Half time
Terminal half-life time:
- Half Life: The time is takes for 50% of the drug to be removed from the body after rapid IV injection
- Half time: The time is takes for 50% of the drug to be removed from the plasma during the elimination phase
- Terminal half-life time: time it takes for the drug concentration in the blood to fallibly 1/2 of its current value
172
How do lung volumes change during pregnancy?
```
Increase VT*
Increased IRV*
Increase MV
Decreased ERV
Decreased RV
Decreased FRC
```
173
Where to block the median nerve at the upper arm?
Elbow: at the lateral humerus epicondyle lateral to the brachiocephalic artery
- Medial to the brachial artery at the antecubital fossa
174
What do you do if pipeline pressure fails?
Disconnect pipeline, turn tank on
175
What nerve branches do u need to block for surgery of the dorsal of the foot?
Sciatic (to get Sural and peroneal))
| Common peroneal
176
What artery can be damaged during transphenoidal surgery?
INTERNAL CAROTID
177
What is the concern with hypotension during lithotomy?
Compartment syndrome
178
releasing the TQT produces what changes?
```
Inc EtCO2
Dec Temp
Dec BP
Dec SpO2
Dec pH (Metabolic Acidosis)
```
179
What causes the release of renin?
Low Na*
SNS Activation
Decreased renal perfusion pressure (PEEP, Hemorrhage)
180
What does a cobb angle of 70 degrees indicate?
Decreased VC
181
What is a side effect of tocolytics?
Pulmonary edema
182
What are some disadvantages of SubQ defibrillator?
No standard pacing successive shocks
183
CV changes in supine position?
Inc CO
| Inc preload
184
What drugs increase the required dose of NMB, pick 2?
- Rifampin (inducer)
| - Carbamazepime, Barbs, ethanol, Tamoxifen
185
Minimum distance of monopoler cautery from pacer?
15 cm
186
What is the cardiac output to each tissue group?
Vessel Rich Group 75%
Muscle 19%
Fat 6%
Vessel Poor < 1%
187
What would effect NIMS tube with EMG monitoring
Succ and Roc
| Lido LTA
188
Why do we use Mag drip for ERAS?
Decrease post op opioids
189
What is the biggest concern with pituitary surgery (hypothalamus)?
Diabetes Insipidus (DI): lack of ADH
190
What drugs not to use with porphyria?
```
Phenytoin*
Lidocaine*
Thiopental*
Etomidate
barbs
```
191
```
List the arterial waveform seen witch each condition
Left heart Failure
Cardiac tamponade
Aortic Stenosis
Aortic Regurgitation
```
Left heart Failure: Pulsus Alternans ( beat to beat variability)
Cardiac tamponade : Pulsus Paradoxus
Aortic Stenosis: Pulsus Parvus (looks like A)
Aortic Regurgitation: Bisurfens Puslse (looks like M)
192
Disadvantages of measuring stump pressures?
Embolic stroke
| Not routinely used
193
Nerve injury with sternal retraction?
Brachial Plexus that manifest in as Ulnar nerve issue
194
What must be proved for malpractice claim?
Duty
Breach of duty
Causation
Damages
195
Primary method of heat loss in burn patients
Evaporation
196
Systolic filling correlates with what part of the CVP waveform?
V Wave
197
what is hemophilia A
Factor 8 deficiency (give cryo)
198
What is a consideration with patients on doxorubicin?
Cardiotoxicity- get Echo for EF
199
What condition will have sustained muscle contraction after succinylcholine?
Myotonic Dystrophy
200
When to give FFP?
PT and/or PTT 1.5 normal
201
What is a treatment for apnea in peds
caffeine and theophylline
