Recent Updates

Question 1

Question 16:
Two members of Engine 2, located in Midtown, Manhattan, were discussing their unit’s equipment for standpipe operations. In which choice were they incorrect?

A: 1 length of 2” lightweight hose (green with a red stripe), maintained as a roll-up and kept with the 2” nozzle and 1” MST attached, is required to be carried on all engine apparatus.

B: 3 lengths of 2 ½” lightweight hose (white with a red stripe) maintained as roll-ups is required to be carried on all engine apparatus. One of these lengths must be kept with the 2 ½” nozzle and 1” MST attached.

C: For companies staffed with 5 firefighters, 1 additional length of 2 ½” lightweight hose must be carried, maintained as a roll-up.

D: Hose for standpipe use may be carried on the side board of the apparatus, and is secured using straps and buckles. This hose may also be carried inside apparatus compartments.

Answer 1

Explanation:
B) 3 lengths of 2 ½” lightweight hose (white with a red stripe) maintained as roll-ups is required to be carried on all engine apparatus. One of these lengths must be kept with the 2 ½” nozzle and 1 1/8” MST attached.
Eng Ch 2 9.2, 9.3

Question 2

Question 18:
Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding the “GAL Drop Key”?

A: It is a hand tool characterized by a hinged working end and is used to open SLIDING TYPE elevator hoistway doors.

B: The correct sized key that fits into the keyway should be used. However, the smaller key can be used in the larger keyway and the larger key can be used in smaller keyways with some effort.

C: Insert the tool until the hinged section(s) drop behind the hoistway door, turn the tool away from the leading edge of the hoistway door until resistance is met and apply pressure against the resistance to disengage the hoistway door lock. Open the hoistway door by pushing it away from its leading edge.

D: On elevators equipped for use of the GAL Drop Key, attempt to open the hoistway door by use of the key before resorting to forcible entry.

Answer 2

Explanation:
B) The correct sized key that fits into the keyway should be used. The smaller key CAN be used in larger keyway but the larger key CANNOT be used in smaller keyways.
Emerg 1 Add 6

Question 3

Question 22:
Which button on the MDT can retrieve the combination to a unit’s quarters?
A: UNIT STATUS”

B: INCIDENT SUMMARY”

C: “INCIDENT HISTORY”

D: “COMBINATION

Answer 3

A Explanation:
D - no such button exists
UNIT STATUS: Permits the current status of any unit to be displayed on the screen. The combination to that unit’s quarters will also be displayed.
INCIDENT SUMMARY: Provides current information on incident that includes: Information transmitted, addresses, locations, CIDS information, list of units, etc.
INCIDENT HISTORY: Provides complete particulars of incident, (Note: printer needed to receive information)
SEND: Transmits information on the display screen to Starfire.
Comm 2 11.1 C

Question 4

Question 28:
During an Engine Company drill on relay operations, one member made an incorrect statement. Which statement made was incorrect?

A: A concern at a relay operation is ensuring the activation of the operating pumper’s PPG. This can be a problem because the operating pumper is receiving water from the supply pumper at a pressure greater than hydrant pressure.

B: The operating pumper is receiving the discharge pressure of the supply pumper (hydrant pressure plus the idle pressure of the supply pumper.) This number will be roughly 110 psi higher than regular hydrant pressure.

C: Since the operating pumper’s PPG will only effectively engage if the setting on the PPG is higher than their actual pump pressure, the PPG will not activate at their normal Preset value.

D: The ECC of the operating pumper must set their PPG to match the “Master Pressure Gauge” of the apparatus. This will be equal to the idle pressure of the operating pumper, plus the pressure supplied by the supply pumper

Answer 4

B Explanation:
The operating pumper is receiving the discharge pressure of the supply pumper (hydrant pressure plus the idle pressure of the supply pumper.) This number will be roughly 55 PSI higher than regular hydrant pressure.
B Note: Based on local hydrant pressure, this number can range from 95 psi to 155 psi.
C Note: To minimize the difference in supply pressures, the ECC of the supply pumper should supply water at their preset value (which is their idle pressure, plus hydrant pressure).
D Note: Based on local hydrant pressure, this number will range from 150 psi to 210.
Eng Ch 2 Add 1 4.2-4.4

Question 5

Question 40:
Engine company members are at MUD drilling on the well hole stretch. They make the following points during the drill but were only correct in which one?

A: The nozzle firefighter should determine the point at which the hose will be pulled out of the well and flaked out for fire attack.

B: In larger buildings, it may be possible to pull the hose out of the well hole and secure it on the fire floor, if the stairs are sufficiently remote from the fire apartment to allow members to flake out the required lengths and secure the hose.

C: Before the hose is secured, the nozzle firefighter must confirm that enough hose is available on the fire floor to reach the fire area.

D: In order for the well hole to be used, it must be large enough to accommodate the hose; if you can fit your ungloved fist inside a well hole, it should be large enough to execute a well hole stretch.

Answer 5

B Explanation:
A. The ENGINE OFFICER should determine the point at which the hose will be pulled out of the well and flaked out for fire attack.

C. Before the hose is secured, the ENGINE OFFICER must confirm that enough hose is available on the fire floor to reach the fire area.

D. In order for the well hole to be used, it must be large enough to accommodate the hose; if you can fit your GLOVED fist inside a well hole, it should be large enough to execute a well hole stretch.

Engine Ops Ch 7 5.2, 5.5, 5.6

Question 6

Question 3:
When a radio is missing, unaccounted for, lost or stolen, the company officer must follow certain procedures. Which one is correct?

A: If the missing radio is not located by the end of the day it shall be considered lost.

B: When a radio is determined to be lost, both a lost property report and an unusual occurrence report must be forwarded by the officer on duty.

C: When a missing radio is located it shall be placed back in service immediately.

D: When a radio is stolen at the scene of a fire/emergency, the IC (chief or company officer) must conduct an investigation.

Answer 6

Explanation:
A. If the missing radio is not located by the END OF THE TOUR it shall be considered lost.

C. When a missing radio is located FORWARD THE RADIO TO THE DIVISION DEPOT FOR EVALUATION BY THE RADIO SHOP PRIOR TO BEING RETURNED TO SERVICE.

D. When a radio is stolen at the scene of a fire/emergency, the IC (CHIEF OFFICER) must conduct an investigation.

NEW ADDENDUM AS OF JUNE 2022

Comm Ch 11 Addendum 8 2.4, 2.5, 3.2.1, 3.2.3, 4.1)

Question 7

Question 17:
Units should be familiar with the Manual Shut Off Wrench for the Buckeye Pipeline. In which choice below is the wrench described incorrectly?

A: It is approximately 3 1/2 feet long and painted yellow.

B: The longer portion of the wrench has a square, female fitting used to unlock the fitting cover and shut the manual valve.

C: Each unit with Buckeye Pipeline responsibilities has been issued two wrenches. One shall be kept on the apparatus and the other kept near the housewatch.

D: The wrench near the housewatch should be kept along with the second copy of the Buckeye Pipeline Response Manual and extra cans (at least 2 cans) of AFFF foam for use by relocated companies.

Answer 7

Explanation:
D) The wrench near the housewatch should be kept along with the second copy of the Buckeye Pipeline Response Manual and extra cans (at least 3 CANS) of CLASS B (AR-AFFF) for use by relocated companies.
AUC 149 2.1.2, 2.1.2

Question 8

Question 23:
Members must use caution when positioning a tower ladder (TL) in the vicinity of overhead wires. Which one of the following SOPs is correct?

A: The TL turntable shall never be positioned directly under wires.

B: If live overhead wires fall onto the apparatus, it is possible for the apparatus to be energized, particularly if the jacks and outriggers are in the bedded position.

C: live wires fall onto the apparatus, notify the IC transmitting an “urgent” message after depressing the EAB.

D: Any members already in position on an energized apparatus should attempt to dismount the apparatus immediately.

Answer 8

Explanation: c
A. POSITIONING THE TURNTABLE directly under wires MAY ALLOW FOR UPPER FLOOR VEIS/ROOF ACCESS.

B. If live overhead wires fall onto the apparatus, it is possible for the apparatus to be energized, particularly if the jacks and outriggers are DOWN IN PLACE.

D. Any members already in position on an energized apparatus should attempt to REMAIN IN PLACE AND ARE NOT TO BE TOUCHED UNTIL POWER HAS BEEN REMOVED.

NEW INFORMATION WITH RELEASE OF NEW TL BULLETIN IN OCTOBER 2019

Tower Ladder Ch 2 2.7

Question 9

Question 37:
What is the designated TAC “U” Channel on the Handie-Talkie?
A: Zone “A” Channel 12

B: Zone “B” Channel 9

C: Zone “B” Channel 12

D: Zone “A” Channel 10

Answer 9

Code: Vitamin B12

C THIS WAS UPDATED IN JUNE 2022 c

Note “A”: is the secondary building repeater channel.
Note “B”: Is UTAC 42D the primary UTAC channel for use in the NYC region.
Note “D”: Is the encrypted command channel.

Comm Ch 14 Addendum 2 2.1

Question 10

Question 7:
Various size hoselines are acceptable at fireproof loft building fires based on the type of occupancy and conditions encountered. Which one provision mentioned is incorrect?

A: When the standpipe system is used in any fireproof residential loft building, the initial hoselines should have a lead length of 2-inch lightweight hose (with a 1 -inch tip).

B: In a residential fireproof loft, if hoselines are stretched from the apparatus in a building equipped with a standpipe, the use of 2 1/2 hose is not mandated.

C: When using a standpipe system for large fires in large, uncompartmented areas in a loft building, a lead length of 2 1/2 inch lightweight hose should be used.

D: For fire operations in non-residential fireproof loft buildings, initial hoselines shall be 2 1/2 inch

Answer 10

Explanation:
A. When the standpipe system is used in a fireproof residential loft building, the initial hoselines MAY have a lead length of 2-inch lightweight hose (with a 1 -inch tip). HOWEVER, WHEN USING THE STANDPIPE SYSTEM FOR LARGE FIRES IN LARGE, UNCOMPARTMENTED AREAS IN ANY LOFT BUILDING, A LEAD LENGTH OF 2 1/2 INCH LIGHTWEIGHT HOSE SHOULD BE USED.

THIS WAS UPDATED IN MAY 2022

LOFTS 6.3.1, 6.3.2

Question 11

Question 9:
The Drager 6500 CO meter is has been issued to units for monitoring Carbon Monoxide (CO) gas in ambient air. Which one feature of this meter is described incorrectly?

A: The Drager meter is always to remain on.

B: The alarm threshold 2 (A2) is activated at 100 PPM and cannot be acknowledged or be silenced.

C: The alarm threshold 1 (A1) is activated at 35 PPM and can be acknowledged and silenced by pressing the OK button.

D: The Drager CO meter will display reading up to 2000 PPM

Answer 11

Explanation:
B. The alarm threshold 2 (A2) is activated at 100 PPM and CAN BE acknowledged AND silenced BY PRESSING THE OK BUTTON.

THIS SPECIFIC FEATURE WAS UPDATED MARCH 2021

Haz Mat Ch 4 Addendum 2 2.1, 2.3, 2.5, 2.7

Question 12

Question 24:
Which of the following choices indicates the most correct code to transmit for Fire units assisting a vessel in distress in the Hudson River?

A: 10-40 Code 3

B: 10-46 Code 1

C: 10-46 Code 2

D: 10-42

Answer 12

Explanation: C
10-46 Code 1: Any fire in maritime environment (example: vessel, dock, pier)
10-46 Code 2: Emergency in maritime environment Examples: Vessel in distress, person(s) in the water removed by Marine personnel, hazard to navigation, hazardous materials incident in maritime environment.
Comm 8 8.5

Question 13

Question 27:
Basic knowledge of the Buckeye Pipeline is essential to units operating properly at pipeline incidents. Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information?

A: There are some above-ground valves that may require shutting down by Fire Department personnel. These valves are located behind locked metal wire fences openable with a 1620 key.

B: There are four Buckeye Pipeline locations that are equipped with intruder alarms. If units need to enter these locations for any reason other than an emergency response (i.e. drills or training) the Buckeye Pipeline Control Center must be notified through the Borough Dispatcher after entry.

C: There are two locations along the pipeline that are equipped with Hazardous Vapor Detection Systems which will detect an accumulation of flammable vapors inside these spaces. For any response to these locations, the IC must transmit a 10-80.

D: The Hazardous Vapor Detection Alarm resembles a fire alarm strobe outside of these locations.

Answer 13

Explanation:B
B) There are four Buckeye Pipeline locations that are equipped with intruder alarms. If units need to enter these locations for any reason other than an emergency response (i.e. drills or training) the Buckeye Pipeline Control Center must be notified through the Borough Dispatcher PRIOR to entry.
B Note: Due to increased security measures from the Department of Homeland Security, if an intruder alarm is received without prior notification, this will cause an emergency shut down of the pipeline.
C Note: Members must use extreme caution at these locations as they are potentially entering a flammable atmosphere. The IC must utilize Haz-Mat Co. 1, a Haz Mat Tech Engine or a Squad company with metering capabilities to confirm that there is not an accumulation of flammable vapors.
AUC 149 2.1.7, 3.1.1, 3.1.3, 3.2.1

Question 14

Question 28:
The Coordinated Attack Fire Behavior Curve will behave the same way as the Modern Content Fire Behavior Curve up until the _______ stage. Additionally, during the Coordinated Attack Fire Behavior Curve the ______stage is the stage where the firefighters can effectively operate and extinguish the fire.
A: growth; fully developed

B:growth; elongated decay

C: early decay; fully developed

D:early decay; elongated decay

Answer 14

D Explanation:
THE COORDINATED ATTACK FIRE BEHAVIOR CURVE IS A NEW CONCEPT WITH THE RELEASE OF THIS BULLETIN IN 2019

Question 15

Question 34:
Sabbath elevators are designed for religious purposes, operate automatically without the need to push any buttons and are a challenge for members operating at a fire. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: When in Sabbath mode, these elevators typically stop at every floor or every other floor automatically.

B: These elevators are required to be operable in fire service mode. Units shall verify the firefighter service feature is operational before electing to utilize any Sabbath Elevator.

C: Most often a sign will be present indicating this type of elevator. There may also be a sabbath key switch plate.

D: Sabbath elevators may be used if the firefighter service feature is missing/not operational and there is no other elevator. Notification to the IC is required.

Answer 15

Explanation:
D) Sabbath elevators SHALL NOT be used if the firefighter service feature is missing or not operational.
Note: Buildings where Sabbath elevators exist, should be considered for inclusion in ECIDS.
TB Emerg 1 6.4.7

Question 16

Question 39:
Each of the following incidents are considered modified single unit emergencies (assigned a single unit response) and responding units should operate in the 10-20 mode, except in which choice?
A: Electrical emergencies

B: Trees down (no wires, buildings or vehicles affected)

C: Lock-ins (no reported food on the stove or other associated emergency)

D: Salvage Truck

Answer 16

Explanation:
A) This is a Group 2 Response (not single unit)
Note: Also…ERS no contact (2300 to 0800 hours) and Water Leaks are Group 1 Responses (single unit 10-20)
Note: When a single unit responding to a Group 1 call type receives additional information, or the dispatcher fills out the assignment, the officer or assigned Battalion Chief may direct an emergency response, if warranted. The dispatcher shall announce that the 10-20 response is cancelled and that all units shall respond in the emergency mode.
Comm 6 Add 1 2.1

Question 17

Question 12:
EFAS has many features that contribute to the safety of members. Individuals monitoring EFAS should be familiar with this application and should know which choice to be incorrect?

A: The member monitoring EFAS has the option of setting a “FLAG” for a member. When the EFAS monitoring member sets the “FLAG” they must notify the Incident Commander in case further action is warranted.

B: A flagged member will remain flagged if a Mayday is activated for that member. If the Mayday is resolved for the flagged member, the flag will not be cleared and must be manually cleared by the member monitoring EFAS.

C: A snapshot of currently displayed transmissions can be manually printed by selecting the “PRINT TXs” button. The first transmission printed will be the first visible transmission in the “RADIO STATUS” area. Scroll to the desired transmissions before selecting “PRINT TXs.”

D: EFAS defaults to HT-1/TAC-1. It has the capability of monitoring any of the programmed radio channels, including FDNY-specific channels, UTAC, and repeater channels; however, it can only monitor one channel at a time

Answer 17

Explanation:
B) A flagged member will remain flagged if a Mayday is activated for that member. If the Mayday is resolved for the flagged member, the flag WILL AUTOMATICALLY be cleared.
D Note: Therefore, a separate Battalion/Division/EFAS-equipped vehicle in conjunction with an EFAS-trained member is required for each channel in use (e.g., primary tactical, secondary tactical, primary command).
Comm 9 Add 3 5.3.2, 5.5, 5.5.1, 6.1

Question 18

Question 18:
Of the following Buckeye Pipeline response duties, which is correct and in accordance with Department policy?

A: Valves should always be closed as per duties outlined in the response card manual, except when a unit is required to protect life or property. If a unit is diverted from isolation duties, the dispatcher must be immediately notified by the unit officer.

B: Patrolling the pipeline to locate the leak will be on foot or by apparatus as designated in the response manual. When units have the responsibility of both closing a manual valve and patrolling to adjacent valve(s), shutting the valve shall take place prior to patrolling.

C: Foot patrols are conducted by two handie-talkie equipped firefighters. When a unit officer determines that the duties of shutting down valves and patrolling the pipeline cannot be accomplished, the officer must request the response of another unit directly through the dispatcher.

D: Upon receipt of a 9000 series box, prior to leaving quarters, confirm your unit is equipped with the special valve wrench and Buckeye Pipeline Response Manual. Any unit special called which does not have the special valve wrenches or Buckeye Pipeline Response Manual shall notify the dispatcher and proceed to the box location.

Answer 18

Explanation:C C
A) Valves should always be closed as per duties outlined in the response card manual, except when a unit is required to protect life LIFE a serious, life-threatening situation. If a unit is diverted from isolation duties, the dispatcher must be immediately notified by the unit officer.
A Note: The dispatcher will special call a designated alternate unit to carry out the isolation duties.
B) Patrolling the pipeline to locate the leak will be on foot or by apparatus as designated in the response manual. When units have the responsibility of closing a manual valve and patrolling to adjacent valve(s), BOTH functions are to be carried out SIMULTANEOUSLY.
D) Upon receipt of a 9000 series box, prior to leaving quarters, confirm your unit is equipped with the special valve wrench and Buckeye Pipeline Response Manual. Any unit special called which does not have the special valve wrenches or Buckeye Pipeline Response Manual shall RESPOND TO THE QUARTERS of the nearest unit so equipped and secure this equipment.
D Note: Units shall contact the Dispatcher to ascertain the location of the nearest unit quarters with such equipment.
AUC 149 6.2, 6.2.1, 6.3.2, 7.1, 7.2

Question 19

Question 21:
The low air whistle of the fast pak activates at ________ remaining in the cylinder. When use of the fast pak is anticipated, it is recommended the member assigned to monitor the air turn on the cylinder ________.
A: 1/4; prior to entering the IDLH

B: 1/4; when arriving at the location of the member in distress

C: 1/2; prior to entering the IDLH

D: 1/2; when arriving at the location of the member in distress

Answer 19

distress
B
Explanation:
BOTH NEW POINTS IN THE NEW FAST PAK BULLETIN

SCBA Addendum 1 8.3.2; 13.4

Question 20

Question 27:
Which of the following choices is incorrect regarding Buckeye Pipeline operations?

A: The “primary consideration” is the evacuation of the area involved. Avenues of escape must remain open for civilians and FD personnel.

B: Vapors of flammable liquids are heavier than air and may drift into cellars, sewers, manholes, or subways with a potential for explosion and fire. Do not hesitate to cover unignited pools of spilled fuel with Class B (AR-AFFF) firefighting foam.

C: Department apparatus should not be brought closer than 600’ to a leak. This not only removes a source of ignition but removes personnel from any vapor cloud present.

D: Engine companies responding from quarters on the second alarm for a street box associated with a leak from the pipeline should place additional cans (at least 3 cans) of Class B firefighting foam on the apparatus. Engine companies out of quarters, receiving a notification to respond to a second alarm for a pipeline leak must not return to quarters for the additional cans of firefighting foam.

Answer 20

Explanation:
C) Department apparatus should not be brought CLOSER THAN 500’ to a leak. This not only removes a source of ignition but removes personnel from any vapor cloud present.
B Note: Explosions in sewer lines may damage other underground utilities. Request response from utility companies.
AUC 149 7.13, 7.15, 7.17, 7.18, 7.20, 7.21

Question 21

Question 28:
Units are operating at a fire in apartment 4A on the 4th floor of a multiple dwelling. Regarding the horizontal ventilation operations of the fire area, the ladder company officer inside the fire area shall consider the following points. Which one is incorrect?

A: Ensure door control at the fire area entrance and evaluate the ventilation profile at the entry point; pay particular attention to the air being pulled into the fire area.

B: Ventilation points that are behind your operating position may place you in a flow path; control and limit flow paths until there is a charged line is advancing into the fire building.

C: If the officer encounters a high heat and heavy smoke condition without a charged hoseline, he/she should consider directing members to immediately exit the fire area.

D: If the officer encounters a high heat and heavy smoke condition without a charged hoseline, he/she should consider limiting additional ventilation; horizontal ventilation prior to extinguishment will not sufficiently cool or improve conditions but will allow the fie to grow, potentially placing members in an untenable situation.

Answer 21

Explanation:
B. Ventilation points that are behind your operating position may place you in a flow path; control and limit flow paths until there is a charged line is advancing WITHIN THE FIRE AREA TO EXTINGUISH THE FIRE.

Ventilation 8.1.1

Question 22

Question 1:
During severe storms and hurricanes Rapid Response Vehicle Task Forces may be placed into operation. The initial Task Force may consist of all of the following except which incorrect choice?
A: An officer.

B:✔Two to four firefighters.

C: Two apparatus consisting of RRV-SOC Support Ladder second pieces, one RRV and a TAC Unit, or one RRV and a BFU.

D:✘The officer will serve as the Task Force Leader (TFL

Answer 22

Explanation:
B) THREE to SIX firefighters.
AUC 159 Add 8 3

Question 23

Question 19:
When activated during a severe storm or hurricane, each Rapid Response Vehicle Task Force shall be equipped with a minimum of each of the following except?
A: Two chain saws

B:✘Spare chains, Chain saw fuel and NFPA approved protective equipment for chain saw operations including helmet, eye and ear protection, gloves, bunker boots and chaps

C:✔Search rope

D: One dewatering pump

Answer 23

Explanation:
C) Elevator keys
Note: Additional equipment will be supplied as necessary by contacting Tech Services. SOC or Rescue Operations does not supply this equipment for SSL’s.
AUC 159 Add 8 3.6

Question 24

Question 14:
The Petzl I’D Decent Control Device (DCD) is part of the new Kernmantle Life Saving Rope (KLSR) system. Which intended use of this device is described incorrectly?
A: The Petzl I’D (DCD) is a self-braking descent control device used to lower a firefighter for rescue pickup of a trapped victim.

B: The Petzl I’D (DCD) is not intended for use in the Civilian Vertical Escape System (CVES), to assist in the vertical ascent/descent of victims, e.g. stuck occupied elevators.

C: The Petzl I’D (DCD) is intended for use in emergencies where the KLSR might be attached to a firefighter, i.e. confined space entry, ice rescue, etc.

D: The Petzl I’D (DCD) is not to be used to haul a victim vertically by engine or ladder companies.

Answer 24

Explanation:
B. The Petzl I’D (DCD) IS INTENDED for use in the Civilian Vertical Escape System (CVES), to assist in the vertical ascent/descent of victims, e.g. stuck occupied elevators.

BULLETIN RELEASED JULY 2021

TB Rope 10 Data Sheet 4 2.2, 2.3, 2.4

Question 25

Question 30:
The condition of a unit’s lengths of hose can determine the outcome of a fire operation. Of the following choices, which is not in accordance with Department policy?
A:✘Hose should be removed and repacked in the spring and fall of each year, in accordance with schedules issued by Division Commanders.

B:✔Any hose 10 years old or older should be placed out-of-service. The first two digits of the serial number stamped on the male coupling will indicate the year of manufacture.

C: Any hose of doubtful strength should be placed out-of-service. This may be due to cuts, abrasions, wear or burns to the hose jacket.

D: Couplings should not be cracked or out-of-round and there should be no burred threads. All female couplings should have a rubber washer and washers that are dried out or cracked shall be replaced.

Answer 25

Explanation:
B) Any hose 10 years old or older should be placed out-of-service. The first two digits of the serial number stamped on the FEMALE coupling will indicate the year of manufacture.
Note: Spare hose shall be used to replace hose on the apparatus, when available and hose should be inspected before being placed on the apparatus.
Eng Ch 3 Add 3 4

Question 26

Question 37:
The annual hose test must be conducted in accordance with Department policy to ensure it is done safely. Which of the following choices is incorrect?
A: The Officer ensures all members are positioned a safe distance from the hose before charging the system to the test pressure. Once safety of members is assured, the ECC will gradually increase pressure.

B: The test pressure of 300 psi is maintained for 5 minutes.

C:✘The ECC should be mindful that there is no movement of water during the test and the pump may build up heat. If heat is noted, a valve on an unused gate may be partially opened to allow water movement.

D:✔After the hose is tested, it is inspected for damage to the hose jacket or couplings. A black marker circle around each male coupling (the “creep line”) is provided by the manufacturer and a movement of this line 1/16” away from the coupling indicates the coupling is separating from the hose

Answer 26

Explanation:
D) After the hose is tested, it is inspected for damage to the hose jacket or couplings. A black marker circle around each male coupling (the “creep line”) is provided by the manufacturer and a movement of this line 1/8” AWAY from the coupling indicates the coupling is separating from the hose.
Eng Ch 3 Add 3 5.4.8, 5.4.9, 5.4.11, 5.5.1, 5.5.2

Question 27

Question 65:
Which of the following collisions results in a supervisory conference between the involved officer, chauffeur and the unit’s battalion commander:
Any collision involving double parked cars while unit is in non-response mode. 2. Any collision occurring while the apparatus is operating in reverse gear when guide personnel are or should be available. 3. A fall from a moving apparatus. 4. Operating a tractor trailer without an operator in the tiller.
A:✘1, 2, 3, 4

B: 1, 2, 3

C:✔1, 2

D: 1 only

Answer 27

Explanation:
THIS ADDENDUM WAS REVOKED AND REISSUED IN MAY OF 2022 WITH SIGNIFICANT CHANGES

Safety Bulletin 3 Addendum 3 3.6

Question 28

Question 68:
All members should know the appropriate valve to shut when dealing with gas emergencies. Which of the following choices is incorrect?
A:✔Head of Service Valves are typically the first valve after the curb valve; they are always after the meter and are generally located either on the interior or exterior of the building near the Point of Entry (P.O.E.).

B: An Interior Gas Riser Valve May be found in the basement/cellar near the ceiling and is a ¼ turn valve.

C: Each occupancy may have its own meter and natural gas supply can be controlled using the ¼ turn Individual Meter Valve at this meter, which will shut the gas supply to the affected occupancy.

D:✘A Master Meter Valve may control the flow of natural gas to just a few appliances (i.e., in a private dwelling), or to many appliances (i.e., in an apartment house). When possible, avoid shutting the Master Meter Valve if it supplies many occupancies/appliances.

Answer 28

Question 68:
All members should know the appropriate valve to shut when dealing with gas emergencies. Which of the following choices is incorrect?
A:✔Head of Service Valves are typically the first valve after the curb valve; they are always after the meter and are generally located either on the interior or exterior of the building near the Point of Entry (P.O.E.).

B: An Interior Gas Riser Valve May be found in the basement/cellar near the ceiling and is a ¼ turn valve.

C: Each occupancy may have its own meter and natural gas supply can be controlled using the ¼ turn Individual Meter Valve at this meter, which will shut the gas supply to the affected occupancy.

D:✘A Master Meter Valve may control the flow of natural gas to just a few appliances (i.e., in a private dwelling), or to many appliances (i.e., in an apartment house). When possible, avoid shutting the Master Meter Valve if it supplies many occupancies/appliances.

Question 29

Question 71:
When an engine company experiences a “short stretch” situation there are several solutions to add additional lengths of hose including:
If six lengths of 1 3/4” hose have already been stretched, it is permissible to add one extra length of 1 3/4” hose to the stretch.
If a 2” lead length is stretched off the standpipe, the additional length can be 2 1/2” hose.
If a 2” lead length is stretched off the standpipe, it is permissible to add a 2nd length of 2” hose.
Which are correct?
A: 1 only

B:✘1 and 2 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D:✔1, 2 , 3

Answer 29

Explanation:
SOME MAJOR CHANGES TO SOP’S IN THIS SECTION

Engine Ops Ch 10 4.3.9, 4.3.10

Question 30

Question 72:
Which of the following choices contains correct information regarding the markings, features and operation of the NYC hydrant system?
A: Some hydrants may be marked with a white number on the barrel; this indicates the size of the main supplying the hydrant (in feet).

B:✔Some hydrants have a “breakaway” feature which consists of a “collar” fitted on the lower portion of the barrel which, when broken, will cause the water supply to the hydrant to be shut down. It is sometimes possible to find this collar buried beneath concrete surrounding a hydrant.

C: A white line over the number on the barrel of a hydrant indicates the hydrant is on a dead end main and is only supplied from one direction, which may limit water flow.

D:✘Hydrants are equipped with a curb valve, generally located in the street near the hydrant, which requires a special curb valve key to shut down. The key is turned clockwise 17 full turns to shut the valve and there will not be a noticeable decrease in water flow until about 12 full turns are made.

Answer 30

Explanation:
A) Some hydrants may be marked with a white number on the barrel; this indicates the size of the main supplying the hydrant (in INCHES).
B) A white line UNDER the number on the barrel of a hydrant indicates the hydrant is on a dead end main and is only supplied from one direction, which may limit water flow.
D. Hydrants are equipped with a curb valve, generally located in the street near the hydrant, which requires a special curb valve key to shut down. The key is turned COUNTERCLOCKWISE 17 full turns to shut the valve and there will not be a noticeable decrease in water flow until about 12 full turns are made.
Eng Ch 3 Add 4 2.4.1-2.4.3

Question 31

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Question 82:
Which of the following choices is incorrect regarding investigation of complaints involving possible violations of the Fire Code at a premises in your unit’s administrative district?
A: Complaints shall be investigated promptly, but must be investigated within 24 hours after receipt.

B:✘The officer shall fax an unendorsed A-17 to the BISP Unit immediately after conducting an investigation.

C:✔If access is not obtained within 24 hours, at least one additional attempt shall be made to complete the investigation within 72 hours. If completed, a final report is sent.

D: If the investigation cannot be completed after 72 hours, a telephone notification shall be made to the BISP unit.

Answer 31

Explanation:
C) At least one attempt PER DAY shall be made to complete the investigation within 72 hours. If completed, a final report is sent.
B Note: Only final reports shall be emailed through the chain of command.
AUC 5 Ch 3 Add 6 2.2-2.5

Question 32

Question 94:
Members are listening to a web ex drill in the kitchen when they hear the following two statements:
All newly constructed high-rise fireproof multiple dwellings built under the 2008 building code are fully sprinklered throughout the structure.

In 2014 a new fire code was enacted that requires ARC systems in all newly constructed high-rise buildings.
Which of these statements are true?
A: 1 only

B: 2 only

C:✔1 and 2

D:✘Neither 1 or 2

Answer 32

Explanation:
BOTH OF THESE PROVISIONS WERE ADDED TO MDS IN MAY OF 2022