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Southern 777 > Recurrent systems exam > Flashcards

Recurrent systems exam Flashcards

1
Q

When is Go-Around armed?

A

When flaps are extended

When G/S is captured

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2
Q

What automatic switching will occur if you start the APU with the primary external source powering the right main bus and the secondary external source powering the left main bus?

A

The APU then powers the left main bus and the primary external source continues to power the right main bus.

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3
Q

T or F: The PMGs in the Backup generators are only turned on when the Backup generators are activated?

A

False

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4
Q

What is the electrical configuration during autoland?

A

The busses isolate to allow three independent sources to power the three autopilots

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5
Q

If below 1500ft agl with LOC and G/S captured, how do you disconnect Approach Mode w/o engaging TO/GA?

A

Disengage the auto-pilot and turn both F/D switches off, then back on

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6
Q

What provides DC power on this airplane?

A

Four transformer-rectifier units (TRUs)

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7
Q

What is the primary electrical power source for the flight control DC electrical system?

A

Permanent magnet generators (PMGs)

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8
Q

You are having a bad day and are down to the electrical generator on the RAT. The RAT then experiences high hydraulic demand and then ELMS load sheds the electrical part of the RAT. Does the Captain’s flight instrument remain powered?

A

Yes, the Captain’s FLT INST bus will remain powered from the main battery.

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9
Q

What does LAND 2 on your PFD with NO LAND 3 on your EICAS mean?

A

The autoland system does not have redundancy for triple channel autoland.

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10
Q

The RAT is deployed automatically if?

A

Both AC transfer busses lose power in flight.

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11
Q

On your FMA you have two green TO/GA annunciations, what does this mean?

A

Takeoff/go0around is engaged for roll and pitch.

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12
Q

What thrust reference mode display indicates an assumed temperature derated takeoff thrust condition is selected?

A

D-TO

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13
Q

When does the EEC select approach idle?

A

Flaps are commanded to 25 or greater.

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14
Q

What malfunction, during ground start, will cause the autostart system to abort the start?

A

Hot start

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15
Q

When is continuous ignition automatically provided?

A

The flap lever is out of the UP position, or engine anti-ice is on.

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16
Q

On your FMA you have HOLD, TO/GO, TO/GO, which statement is true?

A

If the trust levers are manually positioned, the autothrottle with not reposition them to T/O thrust.

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17
Q

When does the engine failure alert system provide a red ENG FAIL annunciation on the PFD if actual thrust is less than commanded thrust?

A

During takeoff with airspeed between 65 knots and 6 knots prior to V1.

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18
Q

When is the APU operating in the attended mode?

A

When either engine is running or starting, or when the airplane is in flight.

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19
Q

V1 is 126. V2 is 139. What speed will be commanded by the flight director after rotation?

A

V2 + 15 knots (139 + 15 = 154)

20
Q

On your FMA you have THR, HDG SEL, and FLCH SPD, which statement is true?

A

Pitch controls airspeed and autothrottle controls vertical path.

21
Q

T/F? With LNAV engaged, the bank angle will NOT exceed 15 degrees if 15 degrees is set as the bank angle limit.

A

False

22
Q

Fire detection and extinguishing systems are installed for the following areas:

A

APU, cargo compartments, engines, and lavatories.

23
Q

You are at 82 knots with an ATM derate and have forgotten to turn on the F/D switches. What happens with a TO/GO switch is pushed?

A

The flight directors display.

24
Q

T/F: You need hydraulic power to move the two spoilers and stabilizer if you are in the Mechanical Backup mode>

A

True

25
Q

T/F: The Flaps and Slats can operate independently in either the primary or secondary mode.

A

True

26
Q

When in the Normal flight control mode and you have manually shut down the stabilizer or it has failed, do you have pitch trim available.

A

Yes, pilot pitch trim inputs change the PFC trim reference speed.

27
Q

You are in VNAV PTH following a departure with altitude constraints and UNABLE NEXT ALTITUDE displays in the FMS-CDU.

A

Use speed intervention and manually set a lower speed, delete climb derate on THRUST LIMIT page.

28
Q

What does wheel to rudder cross-tie provide?

A

Provides the capability of being able to control the initial effects of an engine failure using control wheel inputs only.

29
Q

Automatic speedbrakes are provided for which flight control system mode?

A

Normal mode.

30
Q

What does the EICAS caution message PRI FLIGHT COMPUTERS indicate?

A

The flight control system is operating in the direct mode.

31
Q

What would cause the EICAS advisory message STAB GREENBAND to be displayed?

A

Nose gear pressure switch disagrees with computed stabilizer greenband.

32
Q

Which statement about checklist overrides is true?

A

Overriding a checklist will also remove any notes and deferred items associated with that checklist.

33
Q

Under FAA regulations, what is the maximum holding airspeed at 4000 ft MSL?

A

200 kts

34
Q

What does the white square in front of an EICAS message indicate?

A

There is an electronic checklist associated with this message that is NOT complete.

35
Q

T/F: GPWS immediate windshear alerts inhibits all PWS, TCAS, and other GPWS alerts.

A

True

36
Q

If the IAS/MACH window is blank, what happens with the FLCH switch is pushed?

A

The IAS/MACH window opens to the FMC target speed.

37
Q

PFD flight mode annunciations are shown in which sequence?

A

A/T, ROLL, PITCH

38
Q

In an early descent before reaching T/D, what are the FMA autothrottle mode annunciations you can expect to see during the descent.

A

THR then HOLD allowing pilot controlled rate of descent.

39
Q

When cleared for the apch, what must you see on the PFD and ND before pushing the APP switch?

A
  1. You intercept track angle is less than 120 degress from the loc course.
  2. The LOC/ILS frequency is tuned AND identified.
  3. Deviation scales show correct sensing
40
Q

What happens when you push the altitude select knob?

A

In climb/descent with altitude constraints, each push deletes the next constraint.

41
Q

When armed on takeoff, LNAV engages laterally within how many miles of the active route leg?

A

2.5 nautical miles

42
Q

What is the max allowable thrust reduction when using an assumed temp?

A

25%

43
Q

What hydraulic system powers the Normal brakes?

A

The right hydraulic system

44
Q

When operating with a derate, such as TO 1, which of the following speeds are determine at the derate performance level?

A

V1, Vr, V2, and V1mcg at derate.

45
Q

An illuminated BRAKE SOURCE light indicates

A

Both right and center/reserve hydraulics systems have low pressure.

46
Q

Which of the following operations are prohibited when using derated takeoff thrust?

A

No special operational restrictions

47
Q

You have been dispatched using an Assumed Temp of 49 degress C. Which item below may cause you to change your trust reduction for takeoff.

A

A change in your takeoff runway.

Southern 777 (12 decks)

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