Flashcards in Reproductive Deck (46)
49. Which is the American Cancer Society’s recommendation for the early detection of
cancer of the prostate?
1. A yearly PSA level and DRE beginning at age 50.
2. A biannual rectal examination beginning at age 40.
3. A semi-annual alkaline phosphatase level beginning at age 45.
4. A yearly urinalysis to determine the presence of prostatic fluid.
50. The client is diagnosed with early cancer of the prostate. Which assessment data would
the client report?
1. Urinary urgency and frequency.
2. Retrograde ejaculation during intercourse.
3. Low back and hip pain.
4. States that he has not had any problems.
51. The 80-year-old male client has been diagnosed with cancer of the prostate. Which
treatment would the nurse discuss with the client?
1. Radiation therapy every day for four (4) weeks.
2. Radical prostatectomy with lymph node dissection.
3. Diethylstilbestrol (DES), an estrogen, daily.
4. Penile implants to maintain sexual functioning.
52. The nurse writes a client problem of urinary retention for a client diagnosed with stage
IV cancer of the prostate. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
1. Catheterize the client to determine the amount of residual.
2. Encourage the client to assume a normal position for urinating.
3. Teach the client to use the Valsalva maneuver to empty the bladder.
4. Determine the client’s normal voiding pattern.
54. The client diagnosed with cancer of the prostate has been placed on an LHRH agonist
(luteinizing hormone–releasing hormone) therapy. Which statement indicates that the
client understands the treatment?
1. “I will be able to function sexually as always.”
2. “I may have hot flashes while taking this drug.”
3. “This medication will cure the prostate cancer.”
4. “There are no side effects with these medications.”
55. The client is diagnosed with metastatic prostate cancer to the bones. Which nursing
intervention should the nurse implement?
1. Prepare for a transurethral resection of the prostate.
2. Keep the foot of the bed elevated at all times.
3. Place the client on a scheduled bowel regimen.
4. Discuss the client’s altered sexual functioning.
56. Which could be a complication of cryotherapy surgery for cancer of the prostate?
1. The urethra could become scarred and cause retention.
2. The client could have ejaculation difficulties and be impotent.
3. Bone marrow depression could occur from the chemotherapy.
4. Chronic vomiting and diarrhea causing electrolyte imbalance could occur.
57. The client is eight (8) hours post-transurethral prostatectomy for cancer of the prostate.
Which nursing intervention is priority at this time?
1. Control postoperative pain.
2. Assess abdominal dressing.
3. Encourage early ambulation to prevent DVT.
4. Monitor fluid and electrolyte balance.
58. The client scheduled for a radical prostatectomy surgical procedure has an intravenous
antibiotic medication ordered on call to surgery. The antibiotic is prepared in 100 mL
of sterile normal saline. At what rate should the nurse infuse via the IV pump when
notified by the operating room nurse?________
59. The client diagnosed with cancer of the prostate tells the nurse, “I caused this by being
promiscuous when I was young and now I have to pay for my sins.” Which statement
would be the most therapeutic response?
1. “Why would you think that prostate cancer is caused by sex?”
2. “Do you feel guilty about some of your actions when you were young?”
3. “Well, there is nothing you can do about that behavior now.”
4. “Have you told the HCP and been checked for an AIDS infection?”
60. The nurse is preparing the care plan for a 45-year-old client who has had a radical
prostatectomy. Which psychosocial and physiological problem should be included in
1. Altered coping.
2. High risk for hemorrhage.
3. Sexual impotence.
4. Risk for electrolyte imbalance.
61. The school nurse is preparing a class on testicular cancer for male high school seniors.
Which information regarding testicular self-examination should the nurse include?
1. Perform the examination in a cool room under a fan.
2. Any lump should be examined by an HCP as soon as possible.
3. Discuss having a second person confirm a negative result.
4. The procedure will cause a mild discomfort if done correctly.
62. The nurse enters the room of a 24-year-old client diagnosed with testicular cancer.
The fiancée of the client asks the nurse, “Will we be able to have children?” Which is
the nurse’s best response?
1. “Your fiancée will be able to father children like always.”
2. “You will have to adopt children because he will be sterile.”
3. “You and he should consider sperm banking prior to treatment.”
4. “Have you discussed this with the client? I can’t discuss this with you.”
63. The client diagnosed with testicular cancer is scheduled for a unilateral orchiectomy.
Which information is important to teach regarding sexual functioning?
1. The client will have ejaculation difficulties after the surgery.
2. The client will be prescribed male hormones following the surgery.
3. The client may need to have a penile implant to be able to have intercourse.
4. Libido and orgasm usually are unimpaired after this surgery.
64. Which client has the highest risk for developing cancer of the testicles?
1. The client diagnosed with epididymitis.
2. The client born with cryptorchidism.
3. The client with an enlarged prostate.
4. The client diagnosed with hypospadias.
65. The nurse is caring for a client who is eight (8) hours postoperative unilateral orchiectomy
for cancer of the testes. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
1. Provide an athletic supporter before ambulating.
2. Encourage the client to delay use of pain medications.
3. Place client on a clear liquid diet for the first 48 hours.
4. Monitor the PT/INR levels and have vitamin K ready.
66. The nurse and unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are caring for clients on a genitourinary
floor. Which nursing task can be delegated to the UAP?
1. Increase the drip rate on the Murphy drip irrigation set.
2. Check the suprapubic catheter insertion site for infection.
3. Encourage the two (2) hour postoperative client to turn and cough.
4. Document the amount of red drainage in the catheter.
67. The nurse is caring for a client with epididymitis secondary to a chlamydia infection.
Which discharge instruction should the nurse discuss?
1. The sexual partner must be prescribed antibiotics.
2. Delay sexual intercourse for a minimum of three (3) months.
3. Expect the urine to have white clumps for one (1) to two (2) months.
4. Drainage from the scrotum is fine as long as there is no fever.
68. The nurse is assessing a client with rule out testicular cancer. Which assessment data
would support that the client has testicular cancer?
1. The client complains of pain when urinating.
2. There is a chancre sore on the shaft of the penis.
3. The patient complains of heaviness in the scrotum.
4. There is a red, raised rash on the testes.
69. The 30-year-old male client diagnosed with germinal cell carcinoma of the testes asks
the nurse, “What chance do I have? Should I end it all now?” Which response by the
nurse indicates an understanding of the disease process?
1. “God would not want you to give up hope and end it all now.”
2. “There is a good chance for survival with standard treatment options.”
3. “There may be little hope, but ending it all is not the answer.”
4. “You have a 50/50 chance of living for at least 5 years.”
70. Which tumor marker information is used to follow the progress of a client diagnosed
with testicular cancer?
2. Carcinogenic embryonic antigen (CEA).
3. DNA ploidy test.
4. Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG).
71. The client diagnosed with cancer of the testes calls and tells the nurse that he is having
low back pain that does not go away with acetaminophen, a nonnarcotic analgesic.
Which action should the nurse implement?
1. Ask the client to come in to see the HCP for an examination.
2. Tell the client to use a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug instead.
3. Inform the client that this means the cancer has metastasized.
4. Encourage the client to perform lower back–strengthening exercises.
72. The charge nurse is making rounds on the genitourinary surgery floor. Which action
by the primary nurse warrants immediate intervention?
1. The nurse elevates the scrotum of a client who has had an orchiectomy.
2. The nurse encourages the client to cough although he complains of pain.
3. The nurse empties the client’s J-P drain and leaves it rounded.
4. The nurse asks the unlicensed nursing assistant to empty a catheter drainage bag.
73. The occupational health nurse is preparing a class regarding sexually transmitted
diseases (STDs) for employees at a manufacturing plant. Which high-risk behavior
information should be included in the class information?
1. Engaging in oral or anal sex decreases the risk of getting an STD.
2. Using a sterile needle guarantees that the client will not get an STD.
3. The more sexual partners, the greater the chance of developing an STD.
4. If a condom is used, the client will not get a sexually transmitted disease.
74. The female client diagnosed with human papillomavirus (HPV) asks the nurse, “What
other problems can HPV lead to?” Which statement is the most appropriate response
by the nurse?
1. “HPV is transmitted during sexual intercourse.”
2. “HPV infection can cause cancer of the cervix.”
3. “It has been known to lead to ovarian problems.”
4. “Regular Pap smears can help prevent problems.”
75. The male client presents to the public health clinic complaining of joint pain and
malaise. On assessment the nurse notes a rash on the trunk, palms of the hands, and
soles of the feet. Which action should the nurse implement next?
1. Determine if the client has had a chancre sore within the last two (2) months.
2. Ask the client how many sexual partners he has had in the past year.
3. Refer the client to a dermatologist for a diagnostic workup.
4. Have the client provide a clean voided midstream urine specimen.
76. The nurse is caring for a young adult client who has been diagnosed with gonorrhea.
Which statement reflects an understanding of the transmission of sexually transmitted
1. Only lower socioeconomic income people are at risk for gonorrhea and syphilis.
2. The longer a client waits to become sexually active, the greater the risk for an STD.
3. Females can transmit infectious diseases more rapidly than males.
4. If a client is diagnosed with an STD, they should be evaluated for other STDs.
77. The young female client is admitted with pelvic inflammatory disease secondary to a
chlamydia infection. Which discharge instruction should be taught to the client?
1. The client will develop antibodies to protect against a future infection.
2. This infection will not have any long-term effects for the client.
3. Both the client and the sexual partner must be treated simultaneously.
4. Once the infection subsides, the pain will go away and not be a problem.
78. The nurse is assessing a male client for symptoms of gonorrhea. Which data support
1. Presence of a chancre sore on the penis.
2. No symptoms.
3. A CD4 count of less than 200.
4. Pain in the testes and scrotal edema.
79. The nurse is working in a health clinic. Which disease is required to be reported to the
public health department?
1. Pelvic inflammatory disease.
4. Ectopic pregnancy.
80. The nurse is planning the care of a client diagnosed with pelvic inflammatory disease
secondary to an STD. Which collaborative diagnosis is appropriate for this client?
1. Risk for infertility.
2. Knowledge deficit.
3. Fluid volume deficit.
81. Which laboratory test would the nurse expect for the client to rule out the diagnosis
1. Vaginal cultures.
2. Rapid plasma reagin card test (RPR-CT).
3. Gram stain specimen of the urethral meatus.
4. Immunologic assay.
82. The client is diagnosed with tertiary syphilis. Which signs and symptoms would the
1. Lymphadenopathy and hair loss.
2. Warts in the genital area.
3. Dementia and psychosis.
4. Raised rash covering the body.
83. Which statement best describes the responsibility of the public health nurse regarding
sexually transmitted diseases?
1. Notify the sexual partners of clients diagnosed with an STD.
2. Determine the course of treatment for clients diagnosed with an STD.
3. Explain the legal aspects of STD reporting to a client diagnosed with an STD.
4. Analyze the statistics regarding STD transmission and reporting the findings.
84. The nurse is admitting a client diagnosed with trichomonas. Which assessment data
support this diagnosis?
1. Odorless, white, curdlike vaginal discharge.
2. Strawberry spots on the vaginal surface and itching.
3. Scant white vaginal discharge and dyspareunia.
4. Purulent discharge from the endocervix and pelvic pain.
A 28 year old male is diagnosed with acute epidiymitis. The nurse should assess the client for:
1. burning and pain on urination
2. severe tenderness and swelling in the scrotum
3. foul smelling ejaculate
4. foul smelling urine
A 20 year old client is being treated for epididymitis. Teaching for this client should include the fact that epidiymitisy is commonly a result of a :
3. sexually transmitted infection
When teaching a client to perform testicular self examination, the nurse explains that the examination should be performed
1. after intercourse
2. at the end of the day
3. after a warm bath or shower
4. after exercise
The nurse is assessing a client's testes. Which of the following findings indicate the testes are normal?
2. egg shaped
A client has a testicular nodule that is highly suspicious for testicular cancer. A laboratory test that supports this diagnosis is:
1. decreased alpha fetoprotein
2. decreased beta-human chorionic gonadotropin
3. increased testosterone
4. increased AFP
Although the cause of testicular cancer is unknown, it is associated with a history of
1. undescended testes
2. sexual relations at an early age
3. seminal vesiculitis
Risk factors associated with testicular malignancies include:
1. African American race
2. residing in a rural area
3. lower socioeconomic status
4. age older than 40 years
A client with a testicular malignancy undergoes a radical orchiectomy. In the immediate post-operative period the nurse should particularly assess the client for:
1. bladder spasms
2. urine output
A right orchiectomy is performed on a client with a testicular malignancy. The client expresses concerns regarding his sexuality. The nurse should base the response on the knowledge that the client:
1. Is not a candidate for sperm banking
2. should retain normal sexual drive and function
3. Will be impotent
4. will have a change in secondary sexual characteristics
A client diagnosed with seminoamatous testicular cancer expresses fear and questions the nurse about his prognosis. The nurse should base the response on the knowledge that:
1. testicular cancer is almost always fatal
2. testicular cancer has a cure rate of 90% when diagnosed early
3. surgery is the treatment of choice for testicular cancer
4. testicular cancer has a 50% cure rate when diagnosed early.