Reproductive/Endocrine Flashcards

(68 cards)

1
Q

GnRH analog with agonist properties when used in pulsatile fashion; antagonist
properties when used in continuous fashion
(downregulates GnRH receptor in pituitary
􀁰that decreases 􀁲 FSH/LH).

A

Leuprolide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What drug causes transient increase in pituitary LH secretion; which leads to a rise in testosterone levesl; continuous use will suppress LH release and leads to a decrease in testosterone levels

A

Leuprolide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Antagonist at estrogen receptors in hypothalamus. Prevents normal feedback inhibition and
increases􀁱 release of LH and FSH from pituitary, which stimulates ovulation

A

clomiphene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Antagonist at breast; agonist at bone, uterus; increased􀁱 risk of thromboembolic events and endometrial
cancer.

A

tamoxifen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Antagonist at breast, uterus; agonist at bone; increased risk of thromboembolic events but no increased risk
of endometrial cancer (

A

raloxifene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Anastrozole, letrozole, exemestane are examples of:

A

aromatase inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Inhibit peripheral conversion of androgens to estrogen.

A

aromatase inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Used for relief or prevention of menopausal symptoms (eg, hot flashes, vaginal atrophy),
osteoporosis ( increased estrogen, decreased􀁲 osteoclast activity).

Unopposed estrogen replacement therapy ; increased 􀁱 risk of endometrial cancer, so progesterone is added.

Possible increased cardiovascular risk.

A

hormone replacement therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Agonists at androgen receptors

A

testosterone, methyltestosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

5α-reductase inhibitor (􀁲decreases conversion of
testosterone to DHT).

Used for BPH and malepattern
baldness.

A

Finasteride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Inhibits steroid binding, 17α-hydroxylase, and

17,20-desmolase.

A

Spironolactone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Inhibits steroid synthesis (inhibits

17,20-desmolase).

A

Ketoconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Nonsteroidal competitive inhibitor at androgen

receptors. Used for prostate carcinoma.

A

Flutamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

α1-antagonist used to treat BPH by inhibiting smooth muscle contraction. Selective for α1A,D receptors (found on prostate) vs vascular α1B receptors.

A

tamsulosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Direct arteriolar vasodilator.

A

minoxidil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

used to treat androgenic alopecia

A

minoxidil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Sildenafil, vardenafil, tadalafil are examples of:

A

phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Inhibit PDE-5 which increases􀁱 cGMP and causes􀁰 prolonged
smooth muscle relaxation in response to NO which increases􀁱 blood flow in corpus cavernosum of penis,
and decreases pulmonary vascular resistance.

A

phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Risk of life threatening hypotension in patients taking nitrates

A

phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Synthetic androgen that acts as partial agonist at androgen receptors.

A

danazol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

MC SE of danazol

A

decreased HDL levels and hepatoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

β2-agonists that relax the uterus; used to decrease 􀁲 contraction frequency in women during labor.

A

terbutaline, and ritodrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Produces local inflammatory reaction toxic to sperm and ova, preventing fertilization and implantation; hormone free.

A

copper IUD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Estrogen and progestins inhibit LH/FSH and thus prevent estrogen surge. No estrogen surge 􀁰 no
LH surge 􀁰 no ovulation.

A

Combined contraception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Competitive inhibitors of progestins at progesterone receptors.
Mifepristone, ulipristal **Termination of pregnancy (mifepristone with misoprostol); emergency contraception (ulipristal)
26
Bind progesterone receptors, 􀁲 decreased growth and 􀁱 increased vascularization of endometrium, thicken cervical mucus.
progestins (Levonorgestrel, medroxyprogesterone, etonogestrel, norethindrone, megestrol, and many others when combined with estrogen)
27
MOA: work by suppressing pituitary LH secretion and subsequently decreasing ovarian androgen production.
Oral contraceptives
28
inhibition of phospholipase A2, and inhibition of | transcription factors such as NF-κB.
glucocorticoids
29
Sensitizes Ca2+-sensing receptor (CaSR) in parathyroid gland to circulating Ca2+ which decreases 􀁲 PTH.
cinacalcet
30
Synthetic analog of aldosterone with little glucocorticoid effects.
fludrocortisone
31
ADH antagonist (member of tetracycline family)
democycline
32
Propylthiouracil (PTU), methimazole are examples of
Thionamides
33
Inhibit oxidation of iodine to iodine by thyroid peroxidase
Thionamides
34
Inhibit iodination of tyrosyl resides (organification) on thyroglobulin to form MIT and DIT
Thionamides
35
Inhibiting coupling of MIT and DIT to form T3 and T4
Thionamides
36
Inhibit proteolytic release of T3 and T4 from thyroglobulin
High doses of iodide
37
inhibit conversion fo T4 to T3 via 5` deiodinase in peripheral tissues
Propranolol and Propylthiouracil (PTU)
38
Acromegaly, carcinoid syndrome, gastrinoma, glucagonoma, esophageal varices.
Somatostatin analog (octreotide)
39
What is a multifunctional enzyme responsible for catalyzing the oxidation of iodide, the iodination of thyroglobulin and the coupling reaction between 2. iodized tyrosine residues?
thyroid peroxidase
40
What removes the iodine groups from MIT and DIT for recycling?
iodotyrosine deiodinase
41
uptake of iodide from the blood is an energy dependent process carried out by?
the na-iodide symporter ; TSH stimulates this uptake and competitively inhibited by perchlorate and pertechnetate
42
What drug is 40% iodide by weight, thus can cause a number of alterations to thyroid function? IT can cause hypothyroidism due to decreased production of thyroid hormone. or hyperthyroidism by increasing thyroid hormone synthesis or destructive thyroiditis
Amiodarone
43
decrease androgen aromatization
aromatase inhibitors
44
decrease androgen synthesis
ketoconazole
45
decreased follicular cell stimulation
continuous GnRH stimulation by long acting GnRH analogs (ex. goserelin) suppresses LH and FSH release;d creating production of estrogens in the ovarian follicle.
46
decrease thyroid hormone synthesis by inhibiting thyroid peroxidase
PTU and methimazole
47
The most likely biochemical target of pioglitazone is:
intracellular nuclear receptor
48
Which selective estrogen receptor modulator inhibits the effects of estrogen on breast tissue and is effective for prevention and treatment of gynecomastia in patients on ADT?
Tamoxifen
49
The glucose lowering effects of TZDs requires __________________and protein synthesis, it takes several days to a few weeks after commencing TZd to observe significant results
alteration in gene transcription AKA transcription modulation
50
Glucocorticoids cause an increase in what organ's protein synthesis ?
Liver protein synthesis ; by increasing hepatic glycogenesis and gluconeogenesis
51
An increase in estrogen activity (raises or lowers) circulating ____ levels?
raises circulating TBG levels; so there will be an increased total T4 pool.
52
impairs ligand receptor binding?
flutamide
53
Decreased leydig cell stimulation by LH
leuprolide, goserelin, nafarelin, histrelin
54
Decrease synthesis of testosterone in the leydig cells of the testis
ketoconazole
55
Decreased peripheral androgen aromatization occurs with
aromatase inhibitors
56
3 parts to Hyperthyroidism treatment
Antithyroid drugs, radioactive iodine, surgical thyroidectomy
57
PTU and methimazole are associated with what SE?
agranulocytosis (absolute neutrophil count less than 500/mL
58
Check wbc count with differential for what antithyroid drugs?
PTU and methimazole * in patient that present with fever
59
Administration of what may prevent thyroid absorption of radioactive iodine isotopes by competitive inhibition?
Potassium iodide
60
anion inhibitors (perchlorate and pertechnetate) work by?
blocking iodide absorption by the thyroid gland via competitive inhibition
61
Thionamides (methimazole and PTU) work by?
decrease the formation of thyroid hormones by inhibiting thyroid peroxidase
62
iodide salts work by?
inhibiting synthesis as well as release of thyroid hormones
63
What occurs as a result of increased testosterone secretion or increased conversion of testosterone to DHT?
Hirsutism
64
What drug has anti-androgenic properties and is used to treat hirsutism?
spironolactone
65
Also, used to rx hirsutism are?
flutamide and finasteride
66
What is a GnRH agonist that causes first a transient increase then a decrease in both testosterone and DHT levels?
Leuprolide
67
What causes a discordant decease in DHT level?
finasteride
68
Mifepristone is an example of a?
anti-progestin