Respiratory Issues/Oxygen Therapy Flashcards

1
Q

What is the prep for pt getting nebulized aerosol therapy?

A

vitals and o2 sat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Why would someone need nebulized aerosol therapy?

A

resp issues that require bronchodilators, corticosteroids, mucolytics, or antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are some contraindications for chest physiotherapy?

A

PE, decreased cardiac reserves, increased intracranial pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are nursing interventions to perform prior to the patient receiving chest physiotherapy?

A

schedule before meals or 1 hour after meals
administer bronchodilator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the proper positioning for drainage of apical sections of the upper lobes?

A

fowler’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the proper positioning for drainage of posterior sections of upper lobes?

A

sitting with child leaning forward over pillows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the proper positioning for drainage of anterior segments of both upper lobes?

A

supine and rotated slightly away from side being drained

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the proper positioning for drainage of superior segments of both lower lobes?

A

prone with hips elevated on pillows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are early manifestations of hypoxemia?

A

tachypnea
tachycardia
restlessness
pallor of skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are late manifestations of hypoxemia?

A

confusion and stupor
cyanosis
bradypnea
bradycardia
hypotension or hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the minimum flow rate for a oxygen hood?

A

4-5 L/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the manifestations of oxygen toxicity?

A

nonproductive cough
N&V
stuffiness
substernal pain
headache
hypoventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Hypoventilation and increased PaCO2 levels allow for…

A

rapid progression into unconscious state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Purpose of tonsils

A

lymph tissue that filter pathogens
protect G.I and resp tracts
antibody formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

which tonsils are the ones removed during a tonsilectomy?

A

palatine tonsils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are risk factors of tonsillitis?

A

exposure to viral or bacterial agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are physical findings of someone with tonsillitis?

A

mouth odor
mouth breathing
snoring
nasality in voice
fever
difficult swallowing or eating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what instructions do you give to patients after a tonsillectomy?

A

discourage coughing, throat clearing, nose blowing to protect surgical site
avoid straws
alert that they could have blood tinged mucus in vomit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are the signs of bleeding after a tonsillectomy?

A

tachycardia
repeated swallowing and clearing of throat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

why are infants 3-6 months at a higher risk for respiratory infections?

A

decrease of maternal antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are the manifestations of nasopharyngitis?

A

nasal inflammation
dryness
irritation of the nasal passages
fever
restlessness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Acute streptococcal pharyngitis and what causes it?

A

infection of the upper airway caused by GABHS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Expected findings for acute streptococcal pharyngitis

A

abrupt onset
headache, fever, abdominal pain
tonsils and pharynx can be inflamed and covered with exudate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Bronchiolitis and what causes it?

A

caused by RSV and affects the bronchi and bronchioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Initial s/s of bronchiolitis

A

runny nose, intermittent fever, pharyngitis, coughing, sneezing, wheezing,

26
Q

progressed s/s of bronchiolitis

A

increased coughing and sneezing, fever, tachypnea, retractions, copious secretions

27
Q

severe s/s of bronchiolitis

A

tachypnea greater than 70 breaths per min
low energy
apneic spells
poor air exchange

28
Q

Expected findings for bacterial pneumonia

A

high fever
cough with white sputum
retractions
chest pain

29
Q

Pneumothorax

A

accumulation of air in the pleural space

30
Q

Manifestations of a pneumothorax

A

dyspnea
chest pain
labored breathing
decreased oxygen sat
tachycardia

31
Q

Pleural effusion

A

accumulation of fluid in the pleural space

32
Q

manifestations of pleural effusion

A

dyspnea
chest pain
tachycardia

33
Q

Expected findings of bacterial epiglottitis

A

no cough
tripod position
dysphonia
dysphagia
noisy breathing

34
Q

What kind of precaution is bacterial epiglottitis?

A

Droplet

35
Q

Expected findings for acute laryngotracheobronchitis

A

low grade fever
restlessness
hoarseness
barky cough
dyspnea
retractions

36
Q

Expected findings for acute spasmodic laryngitis

A

barky cough
restlessness
hoarseness
nighttime laryngeal obstruction

37
Q

Amantadine

A

For type A influenza
must be administered within 24-48 hrs of onset
shortens length of illness

38
Q

Rimantadine

A

For type A influenza
treats symptoms
give orally 2x a day for 7 days

39
Q

Zanamivir

A

for type A and B influenza
inhaled 2x a day
start within 48 hours of symptoms
for children older than 7

40
Q

Oseltamivir

A

for type A and B
decreases symptoms
give orally for 5 days
start within 48 hours

41
Q

What are some risk factors to asthma?

A

family hx
exposure to tobacco
low birth weight
being overweight

42
Q

What are some triggers to asthma?

A

allergens
smoke, odors, sprays
exercise
cold air
infections
strong emotions

43
Q

What are some physical assessment findings of asthma?

A

dyspnea
cough
wheezing
mucus production
sweating
retractions
accessory muscles

44
Q

Short Acting beta agonists (SABA) use and examples

A

used for acute exacerbations
prevention of exercised-induced
ex: albuterol, levalbuterol, terbutaline

45
Q

Long Acting beta agonists (LABA) use and name the meds

A

used to prevent exacerbations at night
cannot be used to treat acute exacerbations
ex: salmeterol, formoterol

46
Q

Cholinergic antagonists use and name the meds

A

provide relief of acute bronchospasms
ex: ipratropium, atropine

47
Q

What do corticosteroids do? What are some examples of corticosteroids?

A

decrease airway inflammation
prednisone, fluticasone, methylprednisolone

48
Q

What do leukotriene modifiers do?

A

decrease in airway resistance

49
Q

What do you educate patients about asthma?

A

avoid triggers
how to administer medications
use a peak flow meter

50
Q

What is the purpose of a peak flow meter?

A

to measure amount of air that can be forcefully exhaled in 1 second

51
Q

what is the percentage of the green zone of peak flow rates and what does it indicate?

A

80-100%
asthma is in good control

52
Q

what is the percentage of the yellow zone of peak flow rates and what does it indicate?

A

50-79%
warns of an acute attack, use maintenance meds

53
Q

what is the percentage of the red zone of peak flow rates and what does it indicate?

A

less than 50%
emergent action needed, use a SABA

54
Q

what is status asthmaticus?

A

a life threatening episode of of airway obstruction that is unresponsive to common treatment

55
Q

what are the manifestations of status asthmaticus?

A

labored breathing, accessory muscle use, tachypnea, distended neck veins

56
Q

what are the nursing actions of status asthmaticus?

A

administer 3 nebulizer treatments 20-30 min apart
prepare for intubation
monitor o2 stats continuously

57
Q

What is cystic fibrosis?

A

an inherited resp disorder where mucus glands secrete an increase of thick mucus

58
Q

What are the early manifestations of cystic fibrosis?

A

stasis of mucus
wheezing, rhonchi
dry cough
voracious appetite

59
Q

what are some gastrointestinal findings of cystic fibrosis?

A

steatorrhea
reflux
failure to gain weight

60
Q

How does the sweat chloride test confirm cystic fibrosis?

A

if chloride is greater than 40 and sodium greater than 90

61
Q

what is included in gastrointestinal management for cystic fibrosis?

A

give three meals a day with snacks
administer fat soluble vitamins A,D,E,K
provide meals high in protein and calories