REV 5 Test Questions 175 Flashcards
(124 cards)
1
Q
MAX FWD CARGO
MAX AFT CARGO
A
3306LBS
2535LBS
2
Q
APU FIRE ON THE GROUND
A
EICAS warning appears
-
Master warning be
ll makes a noise
-
After 10sec the APU will shut down automatically
-
After 60sec the RED fire bottle light will illuminate (do note that you can press the bottle at any time
to discharge the halon)
3
Q
The APU will shut down for the following:
On
the Ground…
A
UFO + SHELF
UNDER SPEED
FADEC
OVERSPEED
SENSOR FAIL HIGH OIL TEMP EGT OVER TEMP LOW OIL PRESSURE FIRE
4
Q
APU FIRE IN THE AIR
A
UFO
UNDER SPEED
FADEC
OVERSPEED.
5
Q
If you manually pressed the APU EMERG stop:
A
- Closes APU fuel shutoff valve - Shuts down the APU - Lights up the fire extinguisher pushbutton
6
Q
Anytime the engines associated fire handle is pulled it commands the following shut off valves to close:
A
- Fuel SOV - Hydraulic SOV - Bleed Air SOV - Bleed Air X Bleed S
7
Q
Cargo Compartment Fire Protection
A
Has 3 detectors in the FWD bay and 2 in the AFT bay.
The system has 1 hi
gh rate and 1 low rate bottles shared between the two bays.
These bottles are stores in the centre avionics bay.
Note if a fire is announced the fire extinguisher system is armed!
If the fire is not announced you will need t
o arm the system by pressing
the fire bottle once.
8
Q
CARGO
On the Ground announced (therefore the system is armed):
-
A
Second press discharges the low rate
9
Q
CARGO
On the ground not announced (therefore the system isn’t armed):
-
A
First press arms the bottle - Second press discharges high rate - Third press discharges the low rate
10
Q
A
First press arms the bott le - Second press discharges high rate - Third press discharges the low rate
11
Q
CARGO
In the Air announced (therefore the system is armed):
-
A
First press discharges the high rate - After 1 min, the low rate auto discharges
12
Q
CARGO
In the Air not announced (therefore the syst
em isn’t armed):
-
A
First press arms the system - Second press discharges the high rate - After 1 min, the low rate auto discharges
13
Q
CARGO
HOW LONG DOES LOW RATE LAST
A
Note there will be the cyan message
saying CRG FIREX HI DISCH
Inflight the low rate discharges automatically at a reduced flow which allows for continues
75min of fire bottle discharge and therefore giving you a 60min diversion time.
14
Q
LAVE FIRE DETECTION
If smoke is detected:
-
A
The LAV smoke EICAS message appears
-
The smoke detector alarm and a light appears in the respective dunny
-
A flashing amber light appears on the flight attendant rainbow panel
15
Q
AC ELECTRIC PRIORITY
THE PRIORITY IS:
A
1) ONSITE (IDG)
2) INSIDE (APU)
3) OUTSIDE (AC GPU)
4) X SIDE (USING THE OTHER SYSTEMS IDG
16
Q
The batteries are capable of powering t
he electrical essential system for even if the
RAT has failed
A
10min
17
Q
The AC essential Bus which is powered by the RAT in an emergency provides:
3,2,2,1;
-
A
2 AC fuel pump 2
(helps start the APU) (helps an engine 2 restart)
-
2 Slat CHANNEL 2 (allows configuration changes to assist landing)
-
1 Flap CHANNEL 1 (allows configuration changes to assist landing
18
Q
Note before the RAT is deployed the batteries
would be providing power to the
which has the igniters on it (keeps the engines turning if it’s called upon) (through an inverter
A
AC STBY Bus
19
Q
If a LOAD SHED message appears. Power has been removed from the
A
galley and RH windshield heat.
20
Q
(These ACE’s have an independent battery capable of ______ of power)
There are two basic modes
A
15 MIN
Normal and DirecT
21
Q
A
Auto throttle compensation with elevator
-
AOA limiting with elevator (essentially a pusher)
-
Rudder airspeed gain scheduling and stroke limiting
-
Yaw damper and turn coordination via AFCS
-
Rudder flight authority
-
Roll spoiler scheduling with airspeed and speed
-
brake deployment
-
Configuration change compensation with horizontal stabilizer due to speed brake
actuation
22
Q
FLAP Positions (7): -
A
0 =Slats and flaps up (detent/gate) - 1 =Slats 15 and flaps 5 (detent only) - 2 =Slats 15 and flaps 10 (detent only) - 3 =Slats 15 and flaps 20 (detent only) - 4 =Slats 25 and flaps 20 (gated stop) (same as flaps 5) (T/o) - 5=Slats 25 and flaps 20 (detent only) (Same as flaps 4) (LA) - Full= Slats 25 and flaps 35 (detent/gate)
23
Q
Landing Flaps = 5 and Full
(Note if GA from flaps Full go to flaps __ or if flaps 5 go to flaps __)
T/o Flap
A
4
2
1,2,4
24
Q
APU FIRE
ANYTIME?
ON THE GROUND?
A
Anytime:
1 minute after fire detection, APU Extinguishing Bottle lights up even if APU Emergency Stop button has
not been pushed
-
On ground:
10 Seconds after fire detection, APU will automatically shuts down
25
Cargo Fire Detection
-
-
3 Smoke Detectors in FWD Cargo Compartment
-
2 Smoke Detectors in AFT Cargo Compartment
Cargo Fire Extinguishing System
26
CARGO FIRE EXTINGUISHER
```
One High
-
Rate Extinguishing Bottle
-
One Low
-
Rate Extinguishing Bottle 75 min
```
27
CARGO FIRE IN FLIGHT.
```
In Flight
-
One minute later the 2nd Fire Ext
inguisher Bottle Discharges automatically at a reduced flow rate
-
Continuous Discharge for75 minutes
-
Allows a 60 minute divert time
```
28
CARGO FIRE DETECTION WITH MESSAGE.
INFLIGHT:
ON GROUND:
WITH MSG. BOTTLE IS ARMED.
INFLIGHT 1 PRESS HIGH RATE BOTTLE
AUTOMATICALLY LOW RATE AFTER 1 MIN
ON GROUND 1 PRESS HIGH RATE BOTTLE
SECOND PRESS LOW RATE BOTTLE
29
CARGO FIRE DETECTION NO MESSAGE:
INFLIGHT:
ON GROUND:
NO MSG. BOTTLE NOT ARMED
INFLIGHT: 2 PRESS. 1 TO ARM 1 TO DEPLOY HIGH RATE BOTTLE. LOW RATE BOTTLE DEPLOYS AUTOMATICALLY AFTER 1 MIN.
ON GROUND: 3 PRESS 1 TO ARM, 1 TO DEPLOY HIGH RATE BOTTLE AND 1 TO DEPLOY LOW RATE BOTTLE.
30
Lavatory Fire Protection
Lavatory Smoke Detection System
—
Two Smoke Detectors
-
One installed in the ceiling of each lavatory
One in Trash container
31
Lavatory Smoke Detection
Smoke is detected in either lavatory:
-
```
Master Warning Lights Illuminate
-
LAV SMOKE EICAS
Warning Message Displayed
-
Smoke Alarm Sounds and Smoke Detector light illuminates in the associated lavatory
-
Flashing
Amber
Light on the respective Flight Attendant light panel (Rain
bow Lights) illuminate
```
32
DC GPU
Supplies Power ONLY to the APU Start Bus (
normal power source is Battery 2)
APU NEEDS BATTERY 1 BUT CAN SUBSTITUTE BATTERY 2 WITH DC GPU FOR APU START.
33
AC Bus Ties
| -
Automatic operation of the Bus Tie Connector (BTCs)
-
Opens Bus Tie 1 or 2 allowing pilot control and isolates AC Bus 1 or 2 from the other power source
34
ELECTRICAL PRIORITY
IDG (Onside) / APU (Inside) / GPU (Outside) / Opposite IDG (X Side
35
High Level Function (Associated with P ACE)
| NORMAL MODE
Elevator Control Laws scheduling with airspeed
Auto thrust compensation with elevator
AOA Limiting with elevator off-set
Rudder Airspeed gain scheduling and stroke limiting
Yaw Damper and Turn Coordination
via Automatic Flight Control System (AFCS)
Rudder Flight Authority
Roll Spoiler Scheduling with airspeed and speed brake deployment
Configuration change compensation with horizontal stabilizer due to speed brake
actuation
36
Yaw / Roll Trim
–
Trim Switches command movement of the actuators for the neutral feel of the rudder / aileron
Trim Commands are limited to ___ Second
3 SECONDS
37
ELECTRICAL P-BIT Interrupted by:
Hydraulic Pump Operation
Flight Control Mode Switches Cycled
AC Power Interruption
FLIGHT CONTROL NO DISPATCH Caution
38
Electrical PBIT
Detects out of tolerance conditions and failures of the
Automatically performed with
FCMs,
P ACEs &
SF ACEs
airplane power up with any AC Source (3 Minutes to complete)
39
Hydraulic PBIT
| Functional control of the
Flight Control Actuators
40
H PBIT
PERFORMED AUTOMATICALLY
1.
2.
INTERUPTED BY:
1. Performed automatically on the ground with all the Hydraulic Systems Pressurized (Manually by turning ON
Hydraulic Pump Switches
2. Automatically After #1 Engine Start (1 Minute to complete)
Interrupted by:
Movement of Flight Control Surfac
41
Automatic test
not started if the
Hydraulic Reservoir temperature is below ____ unless FLT CTRL BIT EXPIRED message displayed
10°C
42
Ground / Multi
-
Function Spoilers
After Touchdown the FCM will command all multifunction spoiler surfaces and ground spoiler surfaces to extend
when the following conditions simultaneously met:
Weight on Wheels
Wheel Speed is above 45 kts or airspeed is above 60 KIAS
Thrust Lever Angle (TLA) below 26 DEGREES
43
In direct mode,________ are not available
ground spoilers
44
On the Ground ACMPs operate when:
Flaps Greater than 0
Thrust Set for T/O or
Ground Speed Greater than 50 kt
45
In Flight ACMPs operate when:
EDP or Engine Failure
| Flaps Greater than 0
46
System 2 ACMP Operates Automatically:
Engine #1 is Running
| Parking Brake is Release
47
Electric Hydraulic Pump #2 Automatically Turns OFF after Parking Brake is Set and____Minutes have elaped
6 minutes
48
Hydraulic Power Transfer Unit (PTU)
–
Assists in Landing Gear Extension / Retraction should the
Right Engine or Right EDP Fails
(With PTU Selector Switch in the AUTO Position):
Flaps not set to 0 or Landing Gear is NOT up and Locked
EDP 1 not failed
Hydraulic Reservoir #2 above 12% quantity
49
______ (Selector Switch in AUTO) 3B pump energizes with a failure of the 3A Pump
Inflight
50
APU
Duty Cycle
Attempt 1 2 3
–
1 60 Seconds OFF
2 60 seconds off
3. 5 Minutes Off
51
DC Power for APU
| –
```
Battery 1 (Powers the APU FADEC “Brains”)
Battery 2 (APU Starter & DC Fuel Pump “Braw
```
52
T/O CONFIGURE TEST BUTTON CHECKS
1. PARKING BRAKE
2. TRIM SETTING GREEN RANGE
3. FLAP SETTING MATCHES MCDU
4. SPOILERS NOT DEPLOYED
53
AFTER GOING TO QRC FOR AN ENGINE HOT START WHERE IN THE QRH DO YOU GO?
NON ANNUNCIATED
54
AFTER A V1 CUT AND YOU DO YOUR PROFILE. YOU CALL FOR "CONTINUOUS BANK OFF". HOW IS ENGINE THRUST SET TO CONTINUOUS?
TRS ON THE MCDU
| THEN SET CON
55
WHEN THE PF ADVANCES THE THRUST LEVERS TO TO/GA THRUST AND CALLS CHECK THRUST. WHAT IS THE PM LOOKING FOR?
1. N1 HAS REACHED TARGET
2. ATTCS IS GREEN
3. ENGINE PARAMETERS ARE NORMAL
56
WHEN GA MODE IS DISPLAYED ON THE N1 GUAGES
1. LANDING GEAR EXTENDED
| 2. FLAPS EXTENDED
57
WITH THE THRUST LEVERS AT TO/GA WHEN WILL THE ATTCS COMMAND RESERVE THRUST?
1. DIFFERENCE BETWEEN BOTH ENGINE N1 SETTINGS IS GREATER THAN 15%
2. WIND SHEAR DETECTION
3. ENGINE FAILURE DURING T/O OR GO AROUND
58
WHAT IS THE PURPOSE OF THE E-PBIT TEST
TO PROVIDE DETECTION OF OUT OF TOLERANCES CONDITIONS AND FAILURES IN THE FCM'S, P ACE'S AND SF ACE'S
59
WHEN WILL THE SPEED BRAKES AUTOMATICALLY RETRACT?
1. AIRSPEED SLOWER THAN 180 OR
2. THRUST NEAR TO/GA OR 70 TLA OR
3. FLAPS 2 OR GREATER.
60
STABILIZER TRIM PRIORITY LOGIC?
1. BACK UP SWITCHES
2. CAPTAIN
3. FO
4. FCM AUTO TRIM
61
"FLT CONTROL TEST IN PROG" AFTER STARTING ENGINE 1 ONLY AND RELEASING THE BRAKES?
THE HYDRAULIC PORTION OF THE FLT CONTROL PBIT TEST IS IN PROGRESS
62
WHAT ITEMS ARE ON THE AC ESSENTIAL BUS?
1. AC FUEL PUMP 2
2. HYD 3 A
3. 1 FLAP CHANNEL
4. 1 SLAT CHANNEL
63
ELECTRICAL EMERGENCY EICAS MSG. IS CAUSED BY WHAT?
LOSS OF NORMAL ELECTRICAL POWER IN AC BUS 1 AND AC BUS 2.
64
IF AC GROUND POWER IS BEING USED TO START THE APU. WHICH FUEL PUMPS WILL PROVIDE FUEL PRESSURE FOR THE APU?
AC FUEL PUMP.
65
WHEN IS DC FUEL PUMP USED?
1. APU START WITH NO AC POWER
| 2. ENGINE 2 START WITH NO AC POWER.
66
TWO WING FUEL TANKS DIVIDED INTO 3 INDIVIDUAL PARTS.
1. MAIN
2. COLLECTOR
3. SURGE TANK
67
DURING AN ELECTRICAL EMERGENCY WITH THE RAT DEPLOYED, WICH ELECTRICAL FUEL TANKS ARE AVAILABLE?
1. AC PUMP 2
| 2. DC PUMP
68
DURING FLIGHT THE PRIMARY PUMP USED TO PUMP FUEL FROM THE COLLECTOR TANK TO THE ENGINE IS THE?
MAIN EJECTOR PUMP
69
MAX FUEL IMBALANCE?
794
70
WHEN THE CROSS FEED IS SET TO LOW 1 OR LOW 2 THE BEST WAY TO DESCRIBE HOW FUEL IS BALANCED?
BOTH ENGINES ARE BURNING FUEL FROM THE SAME TANK TO STAY BALANCED.
71
IN A FIRE THE ONLY WAY TO SHUT OFF THE FUEL TO THE ENGINE IS THE?
ENGINE FIRE EXTINGUISHING HANDLES.
72
MINIMUM FUEL TEMP?
MINIMUM FUEL TANK TEMP?
1. -40
| 2. -37
73
NOSE GEAR TOWING LIGHT RED?
1. PARKING BRAKE SET
2. STEERING ON
3. EXTERNAL STEERING ENGAGED.
74
MAX LANDING WEIGHT?
74,957
75
WHEN PRESSING THE WATER DUMP ON THE LAST FLIGHT OF THE DAY ALL THE WHITE BAR WILL EXTINGUISH WITH ONE OF THESE?
1. WATER DUMP BUTTON PRESSED AGAIN
2. LANDING GEAR EXTENDED
3. POTABLE WATER IS EMPTY
4. DRAIN MAST HEATER INDICATION ON THE FLT ATT PANEL.
76
WHEN DOES THE SOPM REQUIRE THE NAVE LIGHTS TO BE ON?
AFTER ESTABLISHING AC POWER ON THE AIRCRAFT.
77
MAXIMUM TAXI SPEEDS?
1. DRY STRAIGHT 30
2. DRY TURN 10
3. WET OR CONTAMINATED STRAIGHT 10
4. WET OR CONTAMINATED TURN 5
78
PUSHING THE EMERG ENTRY TO GAIN ACCESS TO THE FLIGHT DECK DOOR. HOW LONG TILL THE PILOTS PUSH INHIBIT BEFORE THE DOOR UNLOCKS?
30 SEC
79
WHEN WILL THE PAX OX AUTO DEPLOY AND HOW LONG WILL IT WORK?
14,000 TO 14750
12 MIN
80
WHAT WILL THE FLT DIRECTOR COMMAND BY PUSHING THE DESCENT NOW BUTTON ON THE MCDU BEFORE REACHING TOD?
AN INITIAL DESCENT OF 1,000 FPM
81
PRESSING VNAV TURN VNAV ON/OFF, IF VNAV IS ON IT IS DISPLAYED IN MAGENTA ON THE FMA?
TRUE.
82
AS YOU REACH YOUR CRUISE ALT. THE VERTICAL MODE ON THE FMA SHOULD SWITCH FROM FLCH TO ____ AS WELL AS THE AUTO THROTTLE MODE SHOULD SWITCH FROM SPDE TO _____.
ASEL
SPDT
83
WHILE CLIMBING ON A RNAV DEPARTURE WITH MULTIPLE SPEED AND ALT RESTRICTIONS THE CONTROL SAYS DELETE ALL ALTITUDE RESTRICTIONS TO COMPLY WITH ALL THE RESTRICTIONS YOU SHOULD FLY IN _________ FOR ALTITUDE AND _______FOR SPEED?
GREEN FLCH
FMS SPEEDS (MAGENTA)
84
ACCORDING TO SOPM FMS SPEEDS ARE A LOUD IN ALL FLIGHTS INCLUDING SINGE ENGINE?
TRUE
85
WHILE PRESSING THE TOUCH CONTROL STEERING (TCH) THE FLIGHT DIRECTOR IS SYNCED TO THE FLIGHT PATH ANGLE?
TRUE
86
MINIMUM HOLDING SPEED AT SKYWEST 6,000 AND BELOW?
MINIMUM HOLDING SPEED AT SKYWEST ABOVE 6,000?
200 KNOTS NOT BELOW GREEN LINE
210 KNOTS
87
CLEARANCE FLY RWY HEADING, CAPTAIN SAY HEADING CHECKS AND ARMS THE AUTO THROTTLES AND VERIFY ON FMA?
1. WHITE T/O ( AUTO THROTTLE ARMED)
2. GREEN ROLL ( ACTIVE LATERAL)
3. GREEN T/O (ACTIVE VERTICAL)
4. WHITE VNAV (ARMED VERTICAL MODE)
88
SkyWest minimums for RNP approach?
RNP MAP minimum?
1. RNP 0.30
| 2. 1.00 (can't have a note saying that Missed approach minimums require RNP less than 1.00
89
EPU (Estimated Position Uncertainty) must remain _______ then the RNP value, or you will get UNABLE RNP on MCDU PROGRESS PAGE 1/3.
Less than
90
The FMA ( Flight Mode Annunciator) on top of the PFD show?
Automation and Status
91
The buttons on the AIR COND/ PRESS in the AUTO mode and pushed in show _________________,
dark and no Zebra stripe.
92
What protects the airplane structure do to over and under pressure?
Safety valve and negative pressure relief valve.
93
The ________ controls pressurization.
Out flow valve.
94
Pushing the DUMP button does what?
1. Turns packs and Recirculation fans off.
2. Outflow valve rate of climb 2,000 fpm to 12,400
3. Cabin Reaches 12,400 Out Flow Valve closes.
95
Packs are automatically turned off during engine start if in the _______ position.
Auto
96
AI WING VALVE OPEN comes on when?
1. 10,000 or
| 2. 10 min whichever occurs first.
97
You land and are taxing on contaminated surfaces, you should do what?
Ice protection switch should be turned on.
98
When the ICE protection switches are pushed in dark that means they are in ________ mode.
Auto
99
"STALL PROTECTION ICE SPEED" with no ACARS means?
You need to use the With Ice Accretion Chart when determining V speeds for landing.
100
On taxi out the windshield heat is automatically heated when?
Two engine taxi.
101
Radar range and tilt are adjusted with?
The CCD inner and outer knobs.
| Curser Control Device
102
The IRS can align on the ground or inflight?
IRS takes how long to align?
True
17min
103
While being vector on to the ILS pushing _______ on the Guidance Panel will arm the LOC and GS on the FMA.
APP
104
During cruise flight the primary source of Navigation is?
FMS
105
SkyWest is a loud to do Back Course Approaches?
False
106
I an Electric Emergency what Navigation is available?
NAV 1
IRS 1
MCDU 2
107
Navigation source of information PFD
1. FMS
2. VOR/LOC
3. Cross Side
1, Magenta
2. Green
3. Amber
108
FMS determines position by
1. GPS
2. IRS
3. VOR/DME
109
RTO Provides as much braking as?
Maximum manual braking
110
Landing on Contaminated runway you need what?
1. Auto Brakes set to MED
| 2. Max reverse Thrust
111
When do you use the DN LOCK RELEASE button?
To retract gear for obstacle clearance.
112
How many ways can the crew extend the landing gear?
3.
1. Gear Handle
2. Electric over ride switch
3. Alternate gear extension lever
113
The landing gear and brakes are actuated using?
Hydraulic pressure.
114
Max performance braking on a short runway you should?
Maximum manual braking and
| Max reverse thrust.
115
On the MCDU radio frequencies can be changed by?
1. Typing the frequency in the scratch pad and setting the desired radio frequency to change it.
2. Selecting the frequency to be changed then using tuning knob on MCDU
116
On the MCDU radio page the top green frequencies are ______ and the bottom frequencies are________
Active
| Standby
117
COMM 3 is deferred how would we get landing speeds and performance?
Use QRH performance since ACARS uses COMM 3
118
Is it possibly to tune the radios using the PFD and the CCD (Cursor Control Device)?
Yes
119
A successful FDR (Flt Data Recorder) test is pushing the test button and no?
FDR EICAS msg appears.
120
Pressing the passenger address button provides direct communication with the passengers no matter what is in the ACP (Audio Control Panel)
True.
121
The MIC button on the Audio Control panel must be selected to __________ to allow the oxygen mask MIC to work in the event AUTO mode fails.
Mask
122
The EMER FLT ATT call button when pressed?
1. Triple HI/LO chime sound over the PA system
2. RED light is illuminated on the ceiling of the FA station (rain bow bar)
3. Green bar inside the button flashes.
4. If pushed when flashing will turn to steady green signifying a HOT MIC ( no need to push PTT to communicate).
123
The Control Wheel (Yoke) PTT should be selected to _____ in order to communicate with ramp personnel.
HOT
124
CONTROL WHEEEL COMM SWITCH
1. PTT
2. HOT
3. OFF
1. Transmits from headset mic to whatever channel is selected on the ACP (push up and to the right momentarily).
2. HOT (center) allows communication between crew members and crew members and ramp personnel.
3. Allows only audio reception and no Hot Mic.
