Review 2 Flashcards

(76 cards)

1
Q

What is normal HR in a horse?

A

28-44 bpm

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2
Q

Abdominocentesis with uniform red tinge, nucleated cell count of 3500 cells/mCL and protein 3 g/dL indicates…

A

indicates strangulating intestinal lesion

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3
Q

GI impaction occurs most often at the diaphragmatic flexure. T/F

A

False, occurs at the…. PELVIC FLEXTURE

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4
Q

What cannot be ID on rectal palpation of a horse?

A

R dorsal colon (above root of the mesentery)

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5
Q

Horse that is rolling, has fever, blue mm, skin tent, distended SI loops on rectal, foul-smelling orange to brown nasogastric reflux, slightly turbid yellow abdominal fluid with total protein on 3 g/dL and nucleated cell count of 2000=

A

Anterior enteritis

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6
Q

What part of the equine GI tract has 2 bands and sacculations?

A

Small aka descending Colon

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7
Q

Colic case with PCV > 50% and serum lactate > 6 prognosis …

A

likely to die

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8
Q

What is most likely the cause of rising PCV, declining TP, and neutropenia???

A

Colitis

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9
Q

Predilection sites for impaction that are palatable on rectal examination –>

A

pelvic flexure, cecum, descending colon (small colon)

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10
Q

What confirms that there is rupture of GI tract when plant material is present in the abdominal paracentesis sample???

A

Cytology revealing phagocytized bacteria, plant material ID in the sample from a different area of the stomach

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11
Q

What 3 issues cause extreme pain in horses?

A

severe thromboembolism, SI obstruction w strangulation, and large colon volvulus

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12
Q

What are two indications for sx in a horse with colic?

A

Severe intractable pain and/or peritoneal fluid indicating damaged bowel

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13
Q

What are indications for referral with colic?

A

Progressive colon distension even tho pain is responsive to banamine, moderate to severe SI distension with pain on palpation of affected loops

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14
Q

What to do with horse colic with serum lactate > 6 and PCV >50%

A

euthanize

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15
Q

Which type of cells are NOT part of the innate immune system?

A

B cells

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16
Q

What are some things that can trigger SIRS?

A

Hypoxia, endotoxemia, bacterial infection, surgery, trauma

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17
Q

Where is the inflammatory response to SIRS the greatest?

A

Laminae/ aka shock organ of the horse

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18
Q

SIRS bloodwork findings–

A

Leukopenia, hyperthermia, tachypnea

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19
Q

Adequate passive transfer in horses is ___ or more on SNAP test

A

800 mg/dL

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20
Q

What is a highly conserved part of an endotoxin and is highly conserved between species and is also responsible for most of the LPS toxicity?

A

Lipid A

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21
Q

___ is responsible for LPS toxicity and is bound to polymixin B

A

Lipid A

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22
Q

What is the most common lab abn in horses with endotoxemia?

A

Neutropenia

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23
Q

What is bound by polymixin B?

A

Lipid A

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24
Q

Lipid A is bound to ____

A

polymixin B

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25
Gastric ulceration, right dorsal colitis, renal papillary necrosis are side effects to....
NSAID use
26
What is the most common cause of esophageal obstruction?
Intraluminal obstruction (food or FB)
27
What is NOT a tissue layer of the esophagus?
Serosa
28
What is the most common complication of esophageal obstruction?
Aspiration pneumonia
29
What grade rectal tear can be treated with epidural anesth and manual evacuation every 2 hours?
Grade 3
30
What substance can be used when performing a rectal examination to reduce rectal contractions (anticholinergic like atropine is)
Buscopan
31
Its is impt to palpate ___ ____
umbilical hernias
32
What is the most common thing assoc. with surgical site infection?
Incisional hernias
33
__ ____ is bounded by caudate liver lobe, gastropancreatic fold, and prortal vein
epiploic foramen
34
what surrounds the epiploic foramen???
caudate liver lobe, gastropancreatic fold, and prortal vein
35
What is the most common type of hernia?
umbilical
36
Equine parvovirus is assoc. with administration of ?
equine derived biologic
37
What is involved with the inability to convert ammonia to urea?
Hepatic encephalopathy
38
What drug is C/I for seizure control with horses with hepatic encephalopathy? Why?
Diazepam; Benzos are metabolized by the liver
39
What is n serum bile acid, what does it mean if it is increased?
Normal is <15, if high could mean decreased hepatic function (hepatic mas?)
40
Serum triglyceride concentration more than 500mg/dL is indicative of ?
Hyperlipemia
41
Imidocarb dipropionate is used to tx...
equine piroplasmosis
42
What is the most common cause of equine anemia?
Chronic inflammation (anemia of chronic disease)
43
There is an imported stallion from Germany (6 weeks ago) and now has a fever, off feed, WBC is low, PCV is low, icteric. What is our best guess at what he may be sick with???
Piroplasmosis
44
What does coggins test test for?
EIA (equine infectious anemia)
45
What cells are most likely to contain Anaplasma phacocytophilum?
Neutrophils
46
What can decrease incidence of disease from Rhodococcus equi when administered to neonatal foals?
Hyperimmune plasma
47
What is the idea Blood Donor situation??
RBC lack type Aa and Qa antigens and lack antibody against Aa and Qa RBC antigens
48
Equine plasma donors should be ____ negative for ?
PCR negative for Equine Parvovirus (causes severe fatal hepatitis)
49
What causes severe, fatal hepatitis?
Equine Parvovirus
50
What is the most abundant protein in blood of horses?
Albumin
51
What breaks down hetastarch?
Amylase
52
What is the focus of parasite control in horses younger than 2-3?
Target Parascarius equorium
53
Most pathogenic parasite causing infections in horses involve what parasite?
Strongylus vulgaris
54
Eggs/ ___ of feces= FEC
eggs/gram of feces
55
What should you do if your horse has higher than ideal FEC?
deworm and repeat FEC in 14d
56
___% reduction of parasites means anthelmintic is effective
90%
57
is rotational deworming without testing recommended?
NOPE..
58
Focus of parasite population in horses over 2-3 years is...
small strongyles
59
Refugia should be small. T/F
False, should be LARGE
60
Fecal egg count of 0 is perfect and ideal. T/F
FALSE, not expected/realistic
61
___ hypertrophy in response to ____ loss
crypts; villi
62
Inflammatory mediators and bacterial toxins disrupt what?
coordinated motility and decreased transit time
63
What e'lytes are secreted into enterocytes from blood to cell and out of enterocytes (from cell to lumen)?
Na, Cl, K, HCO3- and water
64
Na, Cl, K, HCO3-, and water move from enterocyte- (list this pathway)
blood- cell- out of enterocyte and from cell to lumen/interstitial to lumen via lateral chloride secretion
65
What CS and diagnostic findings are consistent with diarrhea?
Tachycardia, hypovolemia, colic/abdominal pain, fever
66
What is the hallmark of impending colitis?
Leukopenia and neutropenia
67
What does the red line over teeth mean?
toxic line
68
What's the most common cause of acute or chronic diarrhea?
cyathostomiasis (small strongyles)
69
Is a new horse on the property considered a risk for Salmonella?
Nope.......
70
What is NOT a def. host for N. risticii???
Mosquitos
71
Equine coronavirus has what transmission type?
fecal- oral
72
Right dorsal colitis can be assoc. with what drug use? Why/How?
NSAID use; suppresses PGE2 and PGI2/prostaglandins (responsible for tight junction integrity)
73
What is the MOST common cause of foal diarrhea?
Rotovirus
74
Lawsonia intracellularis--
In a weanling, CS are hyperplasmic mucosal SI, crypts affected the most rather than villi tips
75
What is the most impt tx plan for diarrhea???
FLUIDSSSSS
76
What supplement is ideal when tx right dorsal colitis due to PGE2 analogs (like NSAID use)???
Misoprostol